Principles of Microbiology Exam
Solutions
Course Introduction
Principles of Microbiology introduces the fundamental concepts and principles underlying the study of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course covers microbial structure and function, metabolism, genetics, growth and reproduction, and the roles of microbes in health, disease, and the environment.
Emphasizing laboratory techniques and scientific reasoning, students will explore the applications of microbiology in fields such as medicine, biotechnology, agriculture, and environmental science, while also considering issues related to public health and microbial resistance.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations 9th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diseases has been eradicated?
A)Chicken pox
B)Measles
C)Smallpox
D)Mumps
Answer: C
Q2) Pasteur worked on rabies and cholera vaccine during the emergence of immunology.While culturing a chicken cholera he noted that an old culture was weakened and useful as a vaccine as it:
A)caused disease
B)caused severe cholera symptoms and prevented further infection
C)allowed for the cholera to spread from person to person
D)did not cause disease symptoms and immunized against chicken cholera
Answer: D
Q3) Which is a false statement about genomes?
A)genomes contain all the genetic material of a species.
B)all of the genome is made up of useful genes whose function we already know
C)humans have only 300 genes not found in the mouse
D)most microbial genomes are smaller than the human genome
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disaccharides,such as sucrose and lactose,are formed from:
A)two monosaccharides connected by a glycosidic bond.
B)chains of two amino acids.
C)long chain of carbon atoms and a carboxyl group at one end of chain.
D)three fatty acids combined with glycerol.
Answer: A
Q2) Which is a FALSE statement about chemical reactions?
A)Catabolic reactions are exergonic and release energy.
B)Polymerization and the building up of large molecules is a catabolic reaction.
C)Anabolic reactions require energy.
D)Energy is stored in the form of chemical bonds.
Answer: B
Q3) Ketones,alcohols,aldehydes and organic acids are four of the organic compounds found in all living cells.What do these four classes of organic compounds share?
A)They contain the same atoms but differ in structure.
B)They are chains of carbon atoms with functional groups that contain oxygen.
C)They are all fully oxidized.
D)They can only be synthesized inside a cell.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lens closest to the slide during a microscopic examination is the _____.
A)ocular
B)objective
C)condenser
D)compound
Answer: B
Q2) In a Gram stain,the mordant is _____.
A)crystal violet
B)iodine
C)water
D)alcohol
Answer: B
Q3) Why do basic dyes attach to most bacterial surfaces?
A)Most bacterial surfaces are negatively charged.
B)Bacterial cells take up safranin.
C)Most bacterial surfaces resist taking up the stain.
D)Most bacterial surfaces do not have a charge.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Q1) Bacteria with flagella all over their surface are said to be:
A)monotrichous
B)peritrichous
C)amphitrichous
D)lophotrichous
Q2) Which of the following is responsible for converting sunlight into chemical energy?
A)Chromatophores
B)Chloroplasts
C)Endoplasmic reticulum
D)Two of the above
Q3) While division in one plane produces cells in pairs,what does random division produce?
A)Sarcinae
B)Eight cells arranged in a cube
C)Grapelike clusters (staphylo-)
D)Four cells arranged in a cube
Q4) What supports the idea that prokaryotes were involved in the evolution of eukaryotes by means of endosymbiosis?
6
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Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bioluminescent microbes:
A)may have evolved because of aerobic metabolism
B)are often beneficiaries of symbiotic relationships with a larger host, producing light in exchange for nutrients
C)often have the enzyme luciferase which catalyzes the oxidation reaction that emits light
D)all of the above
Q2) Substrate-level phosphorylation during glycolysis refers to the transfer of phosphate groups from:
A)ATP to glucose
B)1,3 diphosphoglyceric acid to ADP
C)phosphoenolpyruvic acid to ADP
D)ATP to ADP
Q3) Organisms which get their carbon from other organisms are:
A)autotrophs
B)chemotrophs
C)phototrophs
D)heterotrophs
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chocolate agar:
A)contains blood
B)is used exclusively for stock cultures
C)is nutrient poor
D)is a selective agar plate
Q2) A growth medium consisting of only water,glucose and beef extract would be considered _____.
A)a defined synthetic medium
B)a complex medium
C)a chemically defined medium
D)two of the above
Q3) When a bacterial cell divides into two new cells,the new cells are called:
A)daughter cells
B)sister cells
C)son cells
D)father cells
Q4) Draw and label a standard growth curve. Describe each of the 4 phases. Why do you think bacteria do not continue to double indefinitely? You sample a culture that has reached the fourth phase after 2 days,can you think of one reason why the culture would begin to increase on day 4?
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A DNA mutation that results in no change in protein product produced is termed a:
A)missense mutation
B)nonsense mutation
C)silent mutation
D)frameshift mutation
Q2) A permanent alteration in the DNA of an organism is called a/n:
A)mutation
B)hereditary marker
C)replicon
D)allele
Q3) In eukaryotes,transcription takes place in the ________ while translation takes place in the ________.
A)nucleus, nucleus
B)nucleus, cytoplasm
C)cytoplasm, nucleus
D)cytoplasm, cytoplasm
Q4) Using the lac and trp operons as examples,describe the two control mechanisms for protein synthesis: one based on enzyme induction and the other based on enzyme repression.
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) A relative is upset about genetically modified organisms being in food that she might eat. How are transgenic organisms different from organisms that undergo recombination events in nature? How do you feel about transgenic organisms? Do you feel the same about organisms used for laboratory research as those that are crops? How about transgenic organisms used to manufacture medical treatments or pets? Explain all of your opinions with scientific arguments or evidence.
Q2) In specialized transduction the bacterial genes transduced tend to be:
A)those genes in greatest use by the bacteria
B)those genes that are currently not being transcribed
C)those genes that are located close to the site of the prophage insertion
D)those genes that are small enough to fit in the viral head
Q3) In 1981 a review of safety concerns concerning recombinant DNA research found that:
A)mutants of E. coli require special sanitization practices
B)laboratory workers could become easily infected with the strain of E. coli normally used in lab experiments
C)no illnesses could be traced to laboratory researchers working with recombinants D)two of the above are true
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Page 10
Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Q1) All members of the historic Kingdom Monera are:
A)cyanobacteria
B)prokaryotes
C)fungi
D)protists
Q2) In the five-kingdom system of classification,_____.
A)viruses cannot be classified
B)all prokaryotic organisms are found in the kingdom eubacteria
C)all organisms that can photosynthesize are found in the plant kingdom
D)a domain is a division of a kingdom
Q3) What is a species? How are species determined for bacteria and plants/animals? Is the notion of a species still relevant when morphology,ecology/environmental pressures and phylogeny may present such differing ways in which to organize organisms and their relatedness.
Q4) Organisms that degrade organic molecules to methane belong to the domain
A)Archaea
B)Eukarya
C)Bacteria
D)Monera
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Chapter 10: Viruses
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Q1) Viral DNA lying within a bacterial chromosome is called a ________ while the combination of a bacterial cell and its temperate phage is called a ________.
A)prophage, lysogen
B)plaque, lysogen
C)lysogen, prophage
D)prophage, retrovirus
Q2) Prophages are responsible for production of the toxins found in:
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Micrococcus luteus
C)Clostridium botulinum
D)Streptococcus lactis
Q3) A minus (antisense)strand virus might synthesize proteins within a host cell through the following synthesis pathway:
A)minus strand RNA protein
B)minus strand RNA plus strand RNA protein
C)RNA DNA protein
D)RNA RNA DNA protein
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Q1) The only non-motile group of protozoans is the _____.
A)Mastigophorans
B)Amebozoans
C)Apicomplexans
D)Ciliophorans
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of a plantlike protist?
A)Euglenoids
B)Diatoms
C)Amebozoans
D)Dinoflagellates
Q3) Fungal hyphae are sometimes separated into smaller compartments by cross walls called _____.
A)mycelium
B)thalli
C)sporangia
D)septa
Q4) What are the four groups of parasitic helminthes? Name one parasitic helminth in each group that causes human disease and describe its hosts and transmission.
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13
Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Q1) Agents that denature proteins include all of the following except:
A)acids
B)alkalis
C)detergents
D)cold treatment
Q2) An agent that inhibits the growth of bacteria is called a/an:
A)antiseptic
B)bactericide
C)bacteriostatic agent
D)sanitizer
Q3) All of the following are examples of heavy metals used as antimicrobial agents except:
A)iodine
B)merthiolate
C)selenium sulfate
D)copper sulfate
Q4) What makes a disinfectant desirable? Describe one method for determining the effectiveness of a chemical agent.
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibiotics that contain a beta-lactam ring:
A)interfere with peptidoglycan synthesis
B)act as an antimetabolite
C)bind to a bacterial RNA polymerase
D)are erroneously incorporated into nucleic acids
Q2) Rifampin:
A)inhibits RNA synthesis
B)inhibits all nucleic acid synthesis
C)disrupts of cell membrane function
D)acts as an antimetabolite
Q3) Rimantadine is an effective antimicrobial agent against:
A)viruses
B)protozoa
C)bacteria
D)fungi
Q4) Describe three mechanisms for antibiotic resistance.If exposure to antibiotics does not induce drug-resistant mutations to occur,why do we see so many more drug-resistant strains today?
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transposal of virulence is all of the following except:
A)a laboratory technique in which a pathogen is passed from its normal host to a new host
B)involves animal passaging experiments to adapt a pathogen to its normal host
C)was used by Pasteur to prepare rabies virus
D)increases the virulence for the new host but may reduce the virulence in the normal host
Q2) An infection that is confined to a specific area of the body is a:
A)local infection
B)focal infection
C)systemic infection
D)latent infection
Q3) Which of the following do not affect the incubation period of an infectious disease?
A)Nature of the microorganism
B)Virulence factors
C)The numbers of invading microorganism
D)Time between symptoms arising and microbe being transmitted
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Q1) A disease that breaks out in explosive proportions within a population is called:
A)systemic
B)endemic
C)epidemic
D)pandemic
Q2) Mortality rate is typically expressed as the _____.
A)number of illnesses from a disease per 100,000 people in the population per year
B)fraction of susceptible population that dies
C)speed at which a disease spreads through a population
D)number of deaths from a disease per 100,000 people in the population per year
Q3) Which of following is a true statement about outbreaks?
A)An outbreak is considered vastly more serious than an epidemic.
B)A propagated outbreak arises from contact with contaminated substances.
C)In common-source outbreaks new cases are continually seen during time.
D)Outbreaks can be classified by the rate of increase of new cases.
Q4) What makes a microbe a potential bioterrorism weapon? Do you believe that bioterroism that targets humans or agriculture is more worrisome? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Q1) What is the fragile,reddish,grainy tissue that is typically observed in cut tissue and consists of capillaries and fibroblasts?
A)Gut-associated lymphoid tissue
B)Granulation tissue
C)Granuloma
D)Granulocytes
Q2) Defensins:
A)are located within the lysosomal vesicles of phagocytes
B)are enzymes secreted by natural killer cells
C)defend against parasitic worms
D)are receptors for distinguishing between microorganisms
Q3) Bacteria that resist digestion by phagocytes use all of the following mechanisms except:
A)produce capsule that can resist lysosomal digestion
B)block chemokines from reaching phagocytes
C)form parasitophorous vacuoles
D)produce streptolysin and leukocidin
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18
Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) Agglutination:
A)is inactivation of bacterial toxins due to the binding of an antibody
B)leads to the ingestion of the particle by macrophages due to opsonization
C)requires complement
D)occurs when antibody-antigen complexes form large clumped particles
Q2) Which region of an antibody determines the class of that particular antibody?
A)Constant
B)Variable
C)Light chain
D)Fab
Q3) Immunity that is mediated by T lymphocytes is called _____.
A)cell-mediated
B)antibody-mediated
C)innate acquired
D)innate natural
Q4) Monoclonal antibodies are all of the following except:
A)antibodies that are produced at greatest frequency in the body
B)made by hydridomas which make only one specific antibody
C)produced by a clone of cultured cells
D)used for diagnostic tests and to treat rheumatoid arthritis
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Chapter 18: Immunology Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Q1) The only treatment used to cure allergies is _____________.
A)epinephrine
B)antibiotics
C)desensitization
D)sensitization
Q2) The match between HLAs determines the suitability of transplants,which HLA is known to generate the strongest transplant rejection reaction?
A)HLA-A and HLA-B
B)HLA B27
C)HLA Dw3
D)HLA-DR
Q3) Granulomatous hypersensitivity,the most serious Type IV hypersensitivity,might occur during all the following infections except:
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C)Mycobacterium leprae
D)Leishmania tropica
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Subcutaneous fungal infections are caused by:
A)Sporothrix schenckii
B)Candida
C)Microsporum
D)two of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements about scalded skin syndrome is incorrect?
A)caused by Staphylococcus aureus
B)rarely leads to bacteremia
C)most commonly occurs in infants
D)exotoxins cause the upper skin layers to separate and peel off
Q3) All of the following are symptoms of measles or rubeola except:
A)Koplik's spots
B)upper respiratory and middle ear infections
C)stillborn, heart abnormalities or low birth weight
D)red raised rash caused by T cells interacting with virus-infected cells in small blood vessels
Q4) Gas gangrene was historically thought of as a battlefield injury and thought to have played a role in determining the outcome of armed conflicts. Describe gas gangrene.What causes gas gangrene? Why is amputation so common? And what civilians are susceptible to the disease?
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Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) A person with fever blisters from HSV 1 _____.
A)is still susceptible to herpes simplex virus type 2 which causes genital herpes
B)will always have herpes virus in the ganglia of their sensory nerves
C)cannot shed the virus when asymptomatic
D)two of these choices
Q2) In the United States,the most prevalent STD is caused by _____.
A)Chlamydia trachomatis
B)Haemophilus ducreyi
C)Treponema pallidum
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q3) Which of the following viruses can lead to fever blisters (cold sores)on the mouth and lips?
A)HSV-1
B)Herpes simplex virus
C)HSV-2
D)all of the above
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Parasitic lung fluke disease can be prevented by _____.
A)treatment with amphotericin B
B)cooking shellfish before eating
C)vaccination when in endemic parts of the world
D)cooking meat products before eating
Q2) The major etiological agent of lobar pneumonia is:
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)Klebsiella pneumoniae
D)two of these choices
Q3) Whooping cough treatment includes:
A)administration of antitoxin
B)erythromycin
C)supportive treatment for symptoms
D)all of these choices
Q4) Treatment of choice for TB is _____.
A)erythromycin and penicillin
B)isoniazid and rifampin
C)purified protein derivative
D)cold fresh air
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Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which Hepatitis virus only causes severe disease when there is a coinfection with Hepatitis B?
A)Hepatitis A
B)Hepatitis D
C)Hepatitis C
D)Hepatitis G
Q2) Which of the following infections can be self-limiting and will cease without treatment?
A)Strongyloides
B)Pinworm
C)Trichinosis
D)Whipworm
Q3) Which of the following could be prevented by cooking fish and shellfish?
A)Clonorchis sinensis
B)Taenia saginata
C)Fasciolopsis buski
D)Trichinella spiralis
Q4) Describe peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis. What infectious agent causes peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis? What is known about its mode of transmission?
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Q1) Chronic fatigue syndrome:
A)is due to Burkitt's Lymphoma
B)is transmitted by organ transplantation
C)may be associated with EBV, HHV6 or other viral illnesses
D)is a fictitious disease made up by psychiatry patients
Q2) Group B Streptococcal disease is characterized by:
A)early onset neonatal sepsis and meningitis
B)late onset neonatal meningitis
C)etiology is Streptococcus agalactiae
D)all of these choices
Q3) Brucellosis is:
A)a zoonosis highly infective in humans
B)characterized by a bull's eye rash
C)characterized by a chronic nonfatal skin disease
D)a blood disorder that protects from malaria infections
Q4) Which of the following causes hemorrhagic fever?
A)Toxoplasma gondii
B)Leishmania donovani
C)Ebola virus
D)Colorado Tick Fever
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Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Humans are naturally protected against nagana,a tsetse-fly-bourne cattle disease. What has been found to serve the protective role?
A)Serum
B)High-density lipoprotein (HDL)
C)Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
D)Iron
Q2) One problem with treating Hansen's disease is _____.
A)antibiotics are not effective against the Mycobacterium B)dapsone-resistant strains are beginning to appear C)the organism is growing too rapidly for the antibiotic to work D)the bacteria survive inside the microglial cells
Q3) A college freshman presents to student health services with a pounding headache,fever,neck rigidity and nausea. The cerebrospinal fluid is purulent with numerous white blood cells and a culture reveals Neisseria meningitidis. What are the possible complications? What makes college students at risk? How can it be prevented?
Q4) What are all the animals that can get rabies? Which animals can transmit to humans and what determines human transmission ability? How should one treat an animal bite?
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Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Which is a primary symbiotic nitrogen fixer?
A)Azotobacter
B)Rhizobium
C)Cyanobacteria
D)Clostridium
Q2) The trickling filtration system employs a bed of rocks that have been coated with:
A)Sphaerotilus
B)Pseudomonas
C)Beggiatoa
D)two of these choices
Q3) Tertiary treatment of sewage could include:
A)chlorine
B)UV light
C)ozone
D)all of these choices
Q4) What is the greenhouse effect? What effect might global warming have on infectious disease?
Q5) Why are soil microorganisms so important to the nitrogen cycle? Describe the 3 roles bacteria play in the nitrogen cycle.
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) What can cause mild to severe gastroenteritis,arthritis,glomerulonephritis,a fatal typhoid like septicemia,and fatal ileitis,an inflammation of the small intestines that can be misdiagnosed as appendicitis?
A)Adirondack disease
B)Erysipelas
C)Yersinia enterocolitica infection
D)Two of these choices
Q2) Food processing equipment is disinfected with _____.
A)ultraviolet radiation
B)formaldehyde
C)gamma rays
D)microwaves
Q3) Wort is a precursor for _____.
A)white wine
B)red wine
C)brandy
D)beer
Q4) Are food spoilage microorganisms also pathogens? Give examples to support your answer. Outline 4 methods of food preservation. How does each method limit growth of microorganisms?
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