Principles of Microbiology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Principles of Microbiology introduces students to the fundamental concepts and processes of microbiology, focusing on the structure, function, classification, and metabolism of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course explores the roles of microorganisms in the environment, human health, and disease, as well as techniques for their cultivation, identification, and control. Emphasis is placed on microbial genetics, host-microbe interactions, and the impact of microbes on society through applications in medicine, industry, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology The Human Experience 1st Edition by John W. Foster
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Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
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Q1) Antibiotics are chemotherapeutic drugs that function by inhibiting an important cellular structure or process of an organism that is causing an infection.Which of the following would not be affected by an antibiotic that targets cellular metabolic enzymes?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes bacteria
B) Herpes virus
C) ameba
D) bread mold
Answer: B
Q2) In 1884,the Gram stain was devised to distinguish bacteria from ________ cells.
Answer: human
Q3) What would John Tyndall have needed to use to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation with his experiments?
A) a swan-neck flask
B) a microscope
C) an autoclave
D) organic media
Answer: C
Q4) Why did agar offer an improvement over gelatin for the growth of microorganisms?
Answer: Agar remains more solid at higher temperatures than does gelatin.
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a fundamental attribute of a successful pathogen?
A) host attachment
B) immune avoidance
C) nutrient acquisition
D) wide host range
Answer: A
Q2) What is the difference between a sign and a symptom?
Answer: Signs (such as rashes)can be observed by others.Symptoms (body aches)cannot be directly observed by others but are felt by the patient.
Q3) A fever is often a host response to a pathogen.As such,fever is an example of
Answer: immunopathology
Q4) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)spreads directly from person to person via intimate contact.HIV exhibits
A) a simple infection cycle.
B) a complex infection cycle.
C) vehicle transmission.
D) indirect transmission.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
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Q1) The purpose of the condenser is to
A) focus light rays onto the slide.
B) magnify the image from the objective lens.
C) decrease the refractive index.
D) improve resolution.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is INCORRECT?
A) Congo red is a negative stain.
B) Malachite green is an acid-fast stain.
C) Methylene blue is a simple stain.
D) Fluorophore is in an antibody stain.
Answer: B
Q3) Assume you stain Bacillus with malachite green with heat and then counterstain with safranin.What type of stain would you be performing?
A) a differential and endospore stain
B) a differential and Gram stain
C) a simple and endospore stain
D) a simple and Gram stain
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Q1) A cell's genome consists of 20% thymine.What is the percentage of cytosine?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Q2) An infectious agent remains infectious after treatment with an enzyme that destroys DNA.What might the infectious agent be?
A) an archaeal cell
B) a bacteria
C) a eukaryote
D) a virus
Q3) There is no net movement of water into or out of cells when the cells are in which type of environment?
A) isotonic
B) hypertonic
C) hyperosmotic
D) hypotonic
Q4) ________ is the general name for a six-carbon sugar.
Q5) What does amphipathic mean?
Q6) What is osmosis and why is it important for cells to maintain osmotic balance?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Q1) How does the cell wall protect bacterial cells from osmotic shock?
A) The wall forms a rigid cage that withstands turgor pressure.
B) The wall is impermeable to water, preventing turgor pressure.
C) The wall is impermeable to ions and other solutes, preventing osmotic imbalance.
D) The wall ensures cells are only found in environments where turgor pressure will not occur.
Q2) The bacterial nucleoid contains loops of DNA that emanate from a central point called the ________.
Q3) Which of the following is true of growing bacteria?
A) DNA synthesis occurs continuously.
B) DNA synthesis occurs during a defined period.
C) They suspend flagella rotation to put energy toward DNA replication.
D) DNA synthesis cannot occur at the same time as transcription.
Q4) Compare and contrast the Gram-negative and Gram-positive cell envelopes.
Q5) In Gram-negative bacteria the cell membrane separates the A) periplasm from the external environment.
B) cytoplasm from the external environment.
C) cytoplasm from the nucleoid.
D) DNA from the RNA.
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) Fastidious organisms would be best grown on which type of media?
A) enriched
B) synthetic
C) minimal
D) selective
Q2) What is a batch culture? Describe how it can be used to illustrate the bacterial growth curve.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT required for microorganisms to grow and divide?
A) DNA replication
B) binary fission
C) equatorial septum formation
D) conjugation
Q4) A ________ contains only the most basic compounds an organism needs to grow and nothing more.
Q5) Which of the following can be most efficiently used to measure bacterial growth in real time?
A) FACS
B) spectrophotometer
C) Petroff-Hauser counting chamber
D) fluorescent microscope
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Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Q1) What catabolite is produced first from the catabolism of starch and cellulose?
A) acetyl-CoA
B) amino acids
C) glucose
D) glycerol
Q2) Lithotrophs donate electrons from inorganic reduced molecules directly to an ETS to generate a proton motive force.Why might these lithotrophs still possess the tricarboxylic acid cycle?
Q3) Humans harness microbial ________ to preserve foods and retain caloric value. A) glycolysis
B) fermentation
C) TCA cycle
D) aerobic respiration
Q4) Why does sugar production from CO require NADPH in addition to ATP? In other words,why is ATP not sufficient?
Q5) During photosynthesis,ATP is produced via A) oxidation of glucose.
B) transfer of a phosphate from NADPH onto ADP.
C) ATP synthase powered by a pmf.
D) ATP synthase powered directly by light.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Q1) Why might the insertion or deletion of three base pairs in a gene be less harmful than the insertion or deletion of only one or two base pairs?
Q2) A protein that affects the expression of many different genes is known as a ________.
Q3) Except for the initiating fMet tRNA,what is the order of sites that tRNAs take through a ribosome?
A) first E, then P, and finally A
B) first A, then P, and finally E
C) first E, then A, and finally P
D) first P, then A, and finally E
Q4) After translation
A) all proteins are folded and secreted.
B) some proteins are folded but all are secreted.
C) all proteins are folded and some are also secreted.
D) some proteins are folded and another subset are secreted.
Q5) Proteins that assist the folding of newly formed proteins are known as ________.
Q6) During Sanger DNA sequencing,in addition to normal dNTPs used in cellular DNA synthesis,small amounts of modified DNA polymerase substrates are added to the reaction.How do these modified monomers differ from the normal dNTPs?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Q1) The marine organism Chromohalobacter salexigens contains two homologous genes responsible for the conversion of a-ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA.A third gene contains a similar sequence and appears to have evolved from the other two genes to complete a different function.This is an example of ________ genes.
A) paralog
B) ortholog
C) degenerate
D) nonfunctional
Q2) Would transformation be possible for an organism that does not produce nucleases? Explain.
Q3) The traits of the hidden microbiota of humans can be predicted by analyzing A) cellular structure.
B) DNA sequences.
C) microscopic appearance.
D) growth patterns.
Q4) Genes for transfer RNA can be predicted through A) amino acid sequence similarity.
B) protein function prediction.
C) gene function prediction.
D) conservation over vast phylogenetic distances.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics is associated with bacteria in the phylum Firmicutes and most likely helps them survive dryness?
A) a thick waxy coat that excludes Gram stain
B) horizontal gene transfer between two cells
C) thick cell walls with multiple layers of peptidoglycan
D) an ability to ferment sugars to lactic acid
Q2) Which of the following species causes an illness that can be prevented by immunization?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Vibrio cholera
D) Helicobacter pylori
Q3) If all cyanobacteria were suddenly removed from our environment,how would you expect the biosphere to be affected?
Q4) Which of the following is a characteristic found in all Enterobacteria?
A) a cell wall that stains Gram positive
B) facultative anaerobic rods
C) motility provided by flagella
D) obligate aerobes
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Q1) A single-celled eukaryotic microbe proliferating by mitosis is undergoing ________ reproduction.
Q2) The ability of fungi to digest lignin is important in the
A) production of bread.
B) production of beer.
C) decomposition of wood.
D) decomposition of animal bodies.
Q3) Cyanobacteria engulfed by an ancient proto-alga lead to the development of ________ in both algae and plants.
A) mitochondria
B) a nucleus
C) ribosomes
D) chloroplasts
Q4) Obligate parasites with a single flagellum,a complex life cycle,and unique organelles called "kinetoplasts" are known specifically as ________.
Q5) How is the development of a hookworm larva different from the development of a pinworm larva?
Page 13
Q6) Giardias and trichomonads are both examples of ________.
Q7) Branching tufts of filamentous fungal hyphae form structures known as ________.
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Chapter 12: Viruses
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Q1) One positive use of viruses is their function as
A) infectious particles.
B) pandemic initiators.
C) cloning vectors.
D) marine predators.
Q2) An infectious particle with an RNA genome and no capsid is known as a ________.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT caused by an aberrant protein?
A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
B) scrapie
C) hepatitis
D) kuru
Q4) Which of the following viruses is capable of causing a syncytium?
A) hepatitis
B) influenza
C) HPV
D) HIV
Q5) Explain why the HIV virion structure contains a tRNA from the host.
Q6) A phage genome integrated into the DNA of the bacterial host cell is known as a
Q7) Human papillomavirus contains a ________ genome.
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Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Q1) Viruses cause more illnesses on an everyday basis than do bacteria.Why are there so few antiviral agents compared to antibacterial agents?
A) Viruses are a bigger problem in developing countries where they do not have the funds to develop antiviral drugs.
B) Since viruses are not living, there are no drugs that can stop their proliferation.
C) Viruses use functions of the host to replicate themselves, so achieving selective toxicity is difficult.
D) Viruses do not cause as many deadly diseases and therefore have not been targeted with antivirals.
Q2) Neuraminidase inhibitors that target viral release can be used to treat infections with ________.
Q3) Administering antibiotics before knowing the cause of the infection is specifically known as
A) chemotherapy.
B) empirical therapy.
C) prophylactic therapy.
D) persistence therapy.
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Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Q1) Colonization of the stomach requires the ability to withstand ________ conditions.
Q2) CASE HISTORY
Hiroshi,a 19-year-old college student,arrived at the emergency department complaining of a fever and lethargy that started the previous evening.He originally suspected that the symptoms were due to a hangover from a fraternity party held two days earlier.However,Hiroshi became alarmed when turning his head became painful and when tiny red blotches suddenly appeared on his skin.The physician recognized this as a petechial rash (red spots on the skin that do not blanch,or turn white,when pressed).Blood cultures were obtained,and Hiroshi underwent a lumbar puncture to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)for culture.He was immediately admitted to the hospital and treated with intravenous antibiotics.The next day,blood and CSF cultures grew a deadly Gram-negative diplococcus-Neisseria meningitidis.Hiroshi had bacterial meningitis.
Explain the natural barrier Neisseria meningitidis must have crossed in order to result in Hiroshi's meningitis.Briefly,how does this barrier serve as an immune defense so effective some people can be asymptomatic carriers of this bacterium?
Q3) What is wrong with the situation described below?
After vaginal delivery,a gnotobiotic mouse was moved to an axenic environment.
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Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Q1) A chill is a sign that
A) body temperature is falling.
B) body temperature is rising.
C) body temperature is not changing.
D) blood vessels are dilating.
Q2) All of the following are mechanisms to avoid digestion by phagocytes EXCEPT
A) bacterial capsules.
B) formation of phagolysosomes.
C) escape from the phagolysosome.
D) surviving inside the phagolysosome.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Type I and type II interferons have the same effect on the body.
B) Interferon-alpha promotes phagocytosis.
C) Type II interferons increase MHC antigens on the surface of macrophages.
D) Interferon-gamma is a type I interferon.
Q4) All of the following are true regarding NK cells EXCEPT that they
A) are a type of lymphocyte.
B) have the ability to kill infected host cells.
C) destroy cells via phagocytosis.
D) release toxic substances that induce cellular death.
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Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Describe the process of affinity maturation.
Q2) Proteins that do not require antigen processing and presentation are referred to as
Q3) Why are cytotoxic T (T<sub>C</sub>)cells more effective than antibodies at clearing viral infections?
A) T<sub>C</sub> cells are able to recognize free viral particles as they circulate through lymph nodes.
B) Antibodies bind weakly to antigen-MHC I complexes on antigen-presenting cells.
C) Antibodies are only able to bind to extracellular antigen, and viruses tend to be intracellular.
D) T<sub>C</sub> cells are activated more strongly than B cells by cytokines released by helper T cells.
Q4) IgG,IgA,IgM,IgD,and IgE are all examples of A) antigens.
B) idiotypes.
C) isotypes.
D) allotypes.
Q5) Explain the role of Class II MHC in B-cell activation.
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Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Q1) Patients with primary immunodeficiencies and who are immunosuppressed are prone to developing cancers.Which is the most commonly developed cancer for these patients?
A) Epstein-Barr
B) B-cell lymphomas
C) myelomas
D) mononucleosis
Q2) Which of the following is a test to determine a patient's blood type by mixing the patient's red blood cells with antibodies?
A) agglutination reaction
B) immunoprecipitation
C) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
D) immunofluorescence
Q3) Which of the following is a symptom of systemic anaphylaxis?
A) sneezing
B) watery, itchy eyes
C) rhinitis
D) edema
Q4) The process that detects and eliminates cancer cells as they arise is called a(n)________.
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Which of the following protozoans uses antigenic variation to circumvent the host immune system?
A) plasmodium
B) entamoeba
C) leishmania
D) trypanosome
Q2) In viruses such as influenza,the ability to undergo a major genetic alteration is called
A) antigenic drift.
B) antigenic shift.
C) antigenic variation.
D) antigenic binding.
Q3) Cervical warts are caused by
A) HBV.
B) HPV.
C) HIV.
D) herpes.
Q4) Some microbes use tiny molecular syringes called ________ to inject proteins directly into the host cytoplasm.
Q5) Most pathogenicity island genes were acquired by ________ transmission.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) A 17-year-old boy has pus-filled cysts on his face and upper back.Microscopic examination reveals Gram-positive rods.This infection is caused by
A) herpes simplex virus.
B) Propionibacterium acnes.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.
Q2) Which of the following lists the layers of the skin in the correct order from deepest to superficial?
A) stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum
B) stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
C) stratum granulosum, stratum corneum, stratum basale, stratum spinosum
D) stratum spinosum, stratum basale, stratum corneum, stratum granulosum
Q3) An eight-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat.Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother,who had shingles.What infection does the eight-year-old have?
A) chickenpox
B) measles
C) rubella
D) fever blisters
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Which of the following organisms is an intracellular pathogen capable of preventing fusion of a phagosome with a lysosome after phagocytosis has occurred?
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Legionella pneumophila
Q2) A patient with a respiratory infection who is unresponsive to treatment with antibiotics,lacks a clearly defined presentation,and has seemingly unrelated symptoms
A) is more likely to be infected by a fungus than a virus or bacteria.
B) is more likely to be infected by a virus than a fungus or bacteria.
C) is most likely carrying an antibiotic-resistant form of bacteria.
D) would likely have a positive TB skin test.
Q3) Explain how the M proteins associated with some strains of Streptococcus pyogenes lead to streptococcal sequelae.
Q4) Coccidioidomycosis is endemic in the ________ United States.
Q5) Describe how a human infected simultaneously with an avian flu strain and a swine flu strain may cause an influenza pandemic.
Q6) Moraxella catarrhalis may cause bacterial ________.
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) Which periodontal pathogen has been found within atherosclerotic plaques?
A) Streptococcus mutans
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Chlamydophila pneumoniae
D) Porphyromonas gingivalis
Q2) Subacute bacterial endocarditis is often caused by
A) Streptococcus mutans.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Chlamydophila pneumoniae.
D) Porphyromonas gingivalis.
Q3) The most common treatment for systemic viral diseases is
A) the treatment of symptoms.
B) antiviral medications.
C) immunotherapy.
D) antibiotics.
Q4) Which of the following diseases is caused by a helminth?
A) toxoplasmosis
B) babesiosis
C) leishmaniasis
D) schistosomiasis
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Explain why a gastrointestinal pathogen would want to cause diarrhea when it could easily result in its removal from the host.
Q2) When does dental caries become painful?
A) when the biofilm forms on the tooth
B) when the enamel breaks down
C) when the decay penetrates the nerve
D) Dental caries is never painful.
Q3) Shannon comes down with a Clostridium difficile infection that results in severe colitis.Which of the following conditions is she experiencing?
A) inflammation of the small intestine
B) inflammation of the large intestine
C) inflammation of the stomach lining
D) inflammation of the Paneth cells
Q4) How would you distinguish between gingivitis,periodontal disease,and trench mouth?
Q5) Jack presents at the clinic with mild nausea,vomiting,abdominal pain,and jaundice.The most likely cause of Jack's condition is ________.
Q6) During digestion,pepsin is secreted by ________.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) The normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of A) Lactobacillus.
B) Streptococcus.
C) Mycobacterium.
D) Candida.
Q2) Reoccurring UTIs can be a result of all of the following EXCEPT A) birth control pills.
B) biofilm formation.
C) improper clearance after antibiotic treatment.
D) reintroduction of the organism.
Q3) All of the following are risk behaviors that lead to the acquisition of an STI EXCEPT A) abstinence.
B) unprotected sex.
C) multiple sex partners.
D) drug abuse.
Q4) Sperm are produced in the testes and mature inside the male in a process known as
Q5) Highly active antiretroviral therapy,or HAART,is used to treat ________.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following is true about CSF?
A) Inflammatory cells are found in both healthy and unhealthy CSF.
B) It helps to diagnose infections of the central nervous system.
C) The identification of PMNs in CSF indicates a viral infection.
D) CSF is collected via the placement of a shunt in the vertebral column.
Q2) A physician diagnoses a patient with Eastern equine encephalitis.All of the following pertain to the patient EXCEPT that he or she
A) most likely caught the virus from a bite from an infected mosquito.
B) was diagnosed by detecting an increase in antibody titer to the virus.
C) is infected with a neurotropic virus.
D) is infected with a rare disease.
Q3) Which of the following is true about Candida albicans?
A) Normal flora helps this organism to cause disease.
B) It commonly causes disease in immunocompetent individuals.
C) Treatment includes amphotericin B and flucytosine.
D) Candida meningitis is seen more commonly in teenagers.
Q4) Fungal infections of the central nervous system are also known as ________.
Q5) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the Salk and Sabin vaccines.
Q6) A small proteinaceous infectious particle is known as a ________.
Q7) Explain the transmission,etiologies,and diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
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Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) Body sites that contain no microorganisms are considered to be ________.
Q2) API 20E test strips contain wells with media that test for specific ________ reactions.
Q3) Describe the group of bacteria classified by Lancefield classification and explain the differences that define the classifications.
Q4) Which of the following samples would be expected to be free of microorganisms unless an infection is present?
A) blood
B) fecal stool sample
C) nasopharyngeal swab
D) urethral swab
Q5) Twenty-five individuals with shigellosis are reported within a community.Which of the following pieces of information would be most useful to public health officials who are trying to stop the spread of this infection?
A) whether all individuals are infected with the same strain of bacteria
B) the antibiotic sensitivity of the causative agents
C) the complete health history of infected individuals
D) the day care centers attended by any children of infected individuals
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Explain the relationship between the terms endemic,epidemic,and pandemic.
Q2) Although sporadic outbreaks of measles occur in the United States,the disease is considered nonendemic.What differentiates measles from endemic diseases,such as chickenpox?
A) Endemic diseases exhibit higher numbers of cases than a sporadic outbreak.
B) Diseases that are not endemic lack a reservoir in the area.
C) Endemic diseases do not exhibit sporadic outbreaks.
D) Diseases that are not endemic remain in reservoirs without infecting humans.
Q3) What type of disease is reported by syndromic surveillance,and how does this type of surveillance fit into tracking global outbreaks of disease?
Q4) Which of the following would indicate efforts to control a disease are working?
A) The disease becomes endemic.
B) The disease prevalence increases.
C) The disease incidence decreases.
D) Outbreaks of the disease only occur every other year.
Q5) Which of the following is likely to occur as a result of climate change?
A) Insect vectors will migrate from tropical regions to once-temperate regions.
B) Gastrointestinal infections will decrease in tropical regions.
C) Microbes currently found in temperate regions will move to tropical regions.
D) Extreme weather will decrease and diseases will become less seasonal.
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Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) One benefit of food fermentation is the generation of vitamin
A) A.
B) C.
C) B .
D) D.
Q2) If bacteria and archaea are removed from an ecosystem,which of the following environmental services would be absent?
A) nitrogen fixation
B) capture of energy from sunlight
C) decomposition of dead matter
D) dissimilation of biomass by respiration
Q3) Describe any differences between the primary producers in the ocean versus the primary producers on land.
Q4) Describe the carbon reservoir that cycles the most carbon through living bodies on Earth.
Q5) An end result of mixed-acid fermentation products being converted into a gas in cattle is production of the greenhouse gas ________.
Q6) What are the three factors that control the ways in which food spoils?
Q7) Describe how bacteria such as Lactobacillus species are used to produce yogurt.
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