
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Principles of Marketing introduces the fundamental concepts, strategies, and practices involved in the modern marketing process. Students will explore key topics such as market research, consumer behavior, product development, pricing strategies, distribution channels, and integrated marketing communication. Emphasis is placed on understanding how organizations identify and satisfy customer needs, create value, and build lasting customer relationships in both domestic and global markets. Through case studies and real-world applications, students will develop an understanding of ethical marketing practices and the role marketing plays in business success.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Marketing Research 9th Edition by Tom J. Brown
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Q1) Marketing research is the use of information to identify and define marketing problems.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A store manager for Kroger noticed that several of his regular customers have stopped coming to his store.He also noticed that most of these customers had started shopping at the Walmart Supercenter that had opened about a mile from Kroger a few months ago.The fundamental source of this marketing problem might best be described as
A)a planned change in the marketing environment.
B)serendipity.
C)an unplanned change in the marketing environment.
D)a planned change that occurred at the Kroger store.
E)None of these are correct.
Answer: C
Q3) Marketing research is a $5.2 billion industry in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) The Taco Hacienda chain of fast food restaurants has clearly defined the decision problem it will address in a marketing research project.As it prepares for the Data Capture phase of the project,a good first place to look for data might be
A)from a primary Data Capture initiative,such as a customer survey.
B)from an external source,such as the Fast Food Franchise Association.
C)from the corporate Decision Support System.
D)All of these are appropriate places to begin the Data Capture effort.
E)None of these are appropriate places to begin the Data Capture effort.
Answer: C
Q2) During data analysis,the process of scanning Data Capture forms to ensure they are complete and consistent and that the instructions were followed is called A)analyzing.
B)coding.
C)checking.
D)verifying.
E)editing.
Answer: E
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Q1) It is better to address one or two research problems fully than to try to tackle multiple issues and do a half-baked job on each.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Strategy-oriented decision problems are aimed squarely at A)large organizations.
B)tactical situations.
C)complex problems.
D)making decisions.
E)All of these are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) The best way to avoid the trap of researching the wrong problem is to A)research all possible problems.
B)define the research problem broadly.
C)delay research until the problem is properly defined.
D)All of these are correct.
E)None of these are correct.
Answer: C
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Q1) One of the major difficulties experienced with projective methods arises
A)in the interpretation of the replies.
B)when trying to secure the respondent's cooperation.
C)in the lack of experience of the respondents with these techniques.
D)in the distorted frame of reference of the interviewers.
E)There are no problems with projective methods.
Q2) Almost all marketing research projects should start with a literature search.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT what exploratory research is used for?
A)Better formulating the manager's decision problem
B)Getting a definitive answer
C)Increasing the researcher's familiarity with the problem
D)Clarifying concepts
E)None of these statements are false;they are all true.
Q4) Focus groups are less susceptible to executive and researcher biases than most other exploratory techniques.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast focus and nominal groups
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the modules of a typical Decision Support System (DSS)?
A)Customer information
B)General economic and demographic information
C)Employee information
D)Competitor information
E)Industry information
Q2) A big advantage of the systems approach over the project approach is
A)current information is available when managers need it.
B)systems automatically gather all needed information.
C)The systems approach requires no special software or programming.
D)The project approach yields less accurate data.
E)The systems approach better anticipates future informational needs.
Q3) Sales and cost data are promising internal secondary data for many research problems.In B2B con-texts,the ______ is a gold mine of information.
A)sales invoice
B)packing slip
C)inventory report
D)general ledger
E)accounts payable report
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Q1) Omni-channel retailing recognizes that sources of transaction data that provide purchase insights are available from
A)brick-and-mortar.
B)e-commerce.
C)mobile.
D)in-store pickup.
E)Omni-channel retailing could include transaction data from all of the above.
Q2) A key challenge of Big Data is integration.Which of the following is NOT one of the areas in which companies are challenged with Big Data integration?
A)Integration of a firm's internal transaction data
B)Access to data
C)Analytic skills
D)Retrieval of data
E)Integration of data within and between firms
Q3) Predictive analysis focuses on future-oriented,potential behaviors as opposed to merely classifying past behaviors.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of how standardized marketing information can be used?
A)Profiling customers
B)Measuring product sales and market share
C)Measuring advertising exposure and effectiveness
D)All of these are correct.
E)None of these are correct.
Q2) The main concern of the Starch Readership Service is to provide information on the demographic characteristics of a particular publications readership.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A common segmentation base for firms that takes into account the industry designation or designations of its customers is
A)the Dun & Bradstreet global commercial database.
B)the Standard Industrial Classification system.
C)Nielsen's PRIZM system.
D)the NAICS.
E)the Arbitron rating system.
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Q1) The time required for an adequate market test is often minimal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE?
A)Descriptive studies should be viewed as fact-gathering expeditions,and all information that appears to bear on the problem should be collected so that an accurate description of the situation can be provided.
B)A good descriptive study presupposes much prior knowledge about the phenomenon studied.
C)A key characteristic of descriptive research is its flexibility.
D)Descriptive studies help the researcher determine the who,what,where,and when of the research.
E)All these statements are false.
Q3) A causal research design is typically concerned with
A)the frequency with which something occurs.
B)the discovery of ideas and insights.
C)how two variables vary together.
D)the determination of cause-and-effect relationships.
E)establishing priorities when studying competing explanations of phenomenon.
Q4) Compare and contrast descriptive and causal research designs.
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a demographic or socioeconomic characteristic?
A)A feeling towards a brand
B)Marital status
C)Social class
D)Gender
E)Income
Q2) The following statement best describes the sample used in which type of descriptive design? "We will use a carefully selected sample,selection being based on household size,income level,and television viewing patterns.We must also be concerned with the stability of the sample elements in order to ensure repeated availability for measurement."
A)Advertising evaluation design
B)Longitudinal design
C)Viewership pattern design
D)Latitudinal design
E)Cross-sectional design
Q3) One of the common indices used to measure the short-term success and impact of an ad is "day after recall".
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In terms of observational studies,ethical dilemmas are most likely to arise when observation is
A)structured.
B)disguised.
C)performed by mechanical means.
D)undisguised.
E)unstructured.
Q2) Observational data have the advantage over communication data in which of the following categories?
A)Objectivity,cost,and speed
B)Objectivity and accuracy
C)Objectivity and speed
D)Speed and versatility
E)Cost and versatility
Q3) Which of the following are disadvantages of observation in a contrived setting?
A)Speeds data collection
B)Produces lower-cost research
C)Allows more objective measurements
D)External validity is threatened.
E)Internal validity is threatened.
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Q1) The question "What was your reaction to the Budweiser advertisement you saw on television during the Super Bowl?" is an example of which type of question where the respondents are free to answer in their own words rather than being limited to choosing from among a set of alternatives?
A)Open-ended questions
B)Closed-ended questions
C)Scaled-response questions
D)Ad reaction measurement
E)None of these are correct.
Q2) Which of the following affords the researcher the most sample control with respect to getting cooperation from the respondent?
A)Phone interviews
B)Personal interviews
C)Mail questionnaires
D)Questionnaires published in newspapers
E)Warranty information cards
Q3) Compare and contrast the main methods of administering questionnaires.
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Q1) Which attitude rating scale is good for eliminating the halo effect that is common in scaling?
A)Itemized-ratings scale
B)Semantic-differential scale
C)Graphic-ratings scale
D)Summated-ratings (Likert)scale
E)Comparative-ratings scale
Q2) In a recent survey,those who brushed their teeth often under-reported the activity,while those who brushed their teeth less frequently over-reported their dental hygiene behavior.The possible cause for differences in scores could best be attributed to
A)a true difference in the characteristic being measured.
B)differences due to situational factors.
C)differences due to temporary personal factors.
D)true differences in other relatively stable characteristics of the individuals.
E)differences due to variations in administration.
Q3) Consistency is the hallmark of validity.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The question,"Do you exercise often? Seldom? Sometimes?" is A)leading.
B)concrete.
C)ambiguous.
D)contains an implied alternative.
E)contains an implied assumption.
Q2) An open-ended question can be used to
A)seek factual information from a respondent.
B)allow respondents to reply in their own words.
C)uncover motivations and rich descriptions of feelings and attitudes.
D)All of these are correct.
E)a and c are correct.
Q3) The most versatile type of question format to obtain answers from respondents is the
A)dichotomous question.
B)multiple-choice question.
C)open-ended question.
D)true-false question.
E)multichotomous question.
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Q1) Convenience samples are appropriate for use in which type of research?
A)Descriptive
B)Causal
C)Exploratory
D)All of these are correct.
E)Convenience samples are not appropriate for any type of research.
Q2) A sample in which each target population element has a known,nonzero chance of being included in the sample is called a probability sample.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a probability sample?
A)Quota sample
B)Convenience sample
C)Cluster sample
D)Judgment sample
E)Snowball sample
Q4) In general,populations that are larger in number are easier to locate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast probability and nonprobability sampling.
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Q1) Which method of data collection has traditionally produced the lowest response rates?
A)Personal interviews in homes
B)Telephone surveys
C)Mail surveys
D)Personal interviews in shopping malls
E)All of these produce roughly equivalent response rates.
Q2) The lower the response rate,the more likely it is that nonresponse error will affect research results.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Errors introduced into the study during data processing are
A)Type I errors.
B)nonobservation errors.
C)sampling errors.
D)total errors.
E)office errors.
Q4) Higher response rates usually suggest fewer problems with nonresponse bias.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Item nonresponse is a source of nonsampling error that arises when a respondent agrees to an interview but refuses,or is unable,to answer specific questions.
A)True B)False
Q2) In descriptive research,most of the items included in a questionnaire are likely to be open-ended.
A)True B)False
Q3) The editing process involves
A)the inspection of the data received from each sample element.
B)the correction of the data received from each sample element.
C)the transformation of the raw data received from each sample element into symbols.
D)All of these are correct.
E)the inspection and correction of the data received from each sample element.
Q4) The most difficult questions to code are questions using the Likert scales. A)True B)False
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Q1) A sampling interval is a projection of the range within which a population parameter will lie at a given level of confidence based on a statistic obtained from an appropriately drawn sample.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Frequency analysis consists of counting the number of cases that fall into the various response categories.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For which of the following types of measures does the mean NOT provide a meaningful value?
A)Ratio
B)Equal-interval scales
C)Interval
D)Ordinal
E)Continuous measures
Q4) In very few cases,it's important to report standard deviations along with mean values.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is a technique that measures the closeness of the relationship between two or more variables by considering their joint variation?
A)Correlation analysis
B)Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
C)Multiple regression analysis
D)z-test
E)F-test
Q2) Which statistical technique should you use when you are attempting to answer the question: "Is there a significant relationship between the customers' disposable income (measured in dollars)and their repeat-buying behavior (measured by the number of rebuys in a twelve-month period)?"
A)Multiple regression analysis
B)Chi-Square test
C)Simple regression analysis
D)Pearson correlation coefficient
E)None of these are correct.
Q3) Compare and contrast the use of analysis of variance (ANOVA)versus conducting a series of t-tests to examine differences across groups.
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Q1) An analyst wishing to compare the monthly consumption of ABC ice cream against the four other leading brands during the last three years should probably use a A)line chart.
B)pie chart.
C)bar chart.
D)pictogram.
E)stratum chart.
Q2) An oral report that includes a graphical presentation should be used
A)as often as possible as it is the best method.
B)to interpret results.
C)to vividly present the research findings.
D)only if graphs serve the purpose better than text or tables.
E)All of these apply to oral reports with graphical presentations.
Q3) When presenting the oral research report,the conclusions should always be stated after the results have been presented.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the major considerations for preparing a successful oral report.
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Q1) Tables,charts,and exhibits of other kinds can't replace text completely.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A written report may be considered incomplete because it
A)is too brief.
B)includes interesting but not vital information.
C)is too long.
D)includes statistical calculations unfamiliar to the reader.
E)All of these are sources of report incompleteness.
Q3) Using a good outline can help you achieve clarity,accuracy,and completeness in your report.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Accuracy in a report refers to
A)mathematical accuracy.
B)grammatical accuracy.
C)correct terminology.
D)mathematical and grammatical accuracy.
E)All of these are correct.
Q5) Distinguish between a conclusion and a recommendation.
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