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Principles of Management provides an introduction to the fundamental concepts and practices that form the backbone of effective management within organizations. The course explores essential management functions, including planning, organizing, leading, and controlling, and examines the roles and responsibilities of managers at various levels. Students will gain insight into decision-making processes, organizational structures, strategic management, leadership styles, motivation techniques, and communication strategies. By combining theoretical frameworks with real-world case studies, the course equips learners with the knowledge and skills necessary to analyze, assess, and apply management principles in a dynamic business environment.
Recommended Textbook
Management 12th Edition by Richard
L. Daft
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3213 Verified Questions
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184 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is concerned with defining goals for future organizational performance. Answer: Planning
Q2) Most top executives routinely work at least 12 hours a day and spend 50 percent or more of their time traveling.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What are technical skills? At what level are they most important and why?
Answer: Technical skill is the understanding of and the proficiency in the performance of specific tasks. Technical skills also include specialized knowledge, analytical ability, and the competent use of tools and techniques to solve problems in that specific discipline. Many managers get promoted to the first management job by having excellent technical skills.
Q4) Identify the four functions of management.
Answer: Planning, organizing, Leading, and controlling.
Q5) A human resource manager would be considered a staff manager.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The Hawthorne studies led to the early conclusion that positive human relations can lead to significantly higher performance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Frederick W. Taylor developed Systems Thinking and emphasized the fourteen principles of management that should guide managerial behavior.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of these refers to the management thinking and practice that emphasizes satisfaction of employees' basic needs as the key to increased worker productivity?
A) Scientific management perspective
B) Human resource perspective
C) Management science perspective
D) Behavioral sciences approach
E) Human relations movement
Answer: E
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Q1) Which of the following cultures is suited to organizations that are concerned with servicing specific customers in the external environment but without the intense need for flexibility and rapid change?
A) Adaptability culture
B) Clan culture
C) Achievement culture
D) Consistency culture
E) None of these
Answer: C
Q2) Based on the notion that organizations are dealing with a very turbulent and uncertain external environment, more organizations are requiring _____ to perform boundary-spanning activities.
A) top leaders
B) middle managers
C) line managers
D) all employees
E) suppliers
Answer: D
Q3) An object, act, or event that conveys meaning to others is known as a(n) _____. Answer: symbol
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Q1) All of the following are cultural dimensions as defined by the GLOBE Project, except _____.
A) assertiveness
B) gender differentiation
C) social collectivism
D) humane orientation
E) masculinity
Q2) Ethnocentrism refers to a natural tendency of people to regard their own culture as superior and to downgrade or dismiss other cultural values.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a(n) _____, people use communication primarily to exchange facts and information.
Q4) Direct investing means that the company is involved in managing the productive assets, which distinguishes it from other entry strategies that permit less managerial control.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the three examples of direct investing mentioned in your text.
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Q1) List three examples of primary stakeholders.
Q2) Of the following, which may whistle-blowers suffer?
A) Job loss
B) Ostracism by coworkers
C) Transfer to lower-level position
D) Hostile work environment
E) All of the above
Q3) Organizations that are _____ responsible consider the effects of their actions on all stakeholder groups and may invest in a number of philanthropic causes that benefit stakeholders.
Q4) _____ is economic development that generates wealth and meets the needs of their current generation while focusing on future generations.
A) Ethical management
B) Activist strategy
C) Sustainability
D) Market strategy
E) Future management
Q5) List the four approaches that are used to describe values for guiding ethical decision making. Briefly describe each.
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Q1) _____ is an arrangement by which the owner of a product or service allows others to purchase the right to distribute the product or service with help from the owner.
Q2) Celine has an unwavering belief in her new start-up company. She possesses intense focus and takes unconventional risks to make her new company successful. These examples most closely relate to which personality trait of entrepreneurs?
A) Need to achieve
B) Patience
C) Tolerance for ambiguity
D) High energy level
E) Self-confidence
Q3) The drawbacks of proprietorship include unlimited liability and difficulty in obtaining financing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ is the psychological characteristic that allows a person to be untroubled by disorder and uncertainty.
Q5) A(n) _____ is an unincorporated business owned by two or more people.
Q6) What is a business incubator? How can it help a business?
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Q1) Building good relationships with suppliers and partners would be considered internal business process goals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The planning process starts with:
A) a formal mission that defines the organization's purpose.
B) tactical planning.
C) strategic planning.
D) operational planning.
E) controlling performance.
Q3) Which of these are true about contingency plans?
A) They are developed to achieve a set of goals that are unlikely to be repeated in the future.
B) They are used to provide guidance for tasks performed repeatedly within the organization.
C) They define company responses to specific situations, such as emergencies or setbacks.
D) They are most important in the organizations.
E) None of these
Q4) _____ describes the organization's reason for existence.
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Q1) Vertical integration means a firm expands into businesses that either produce the supplies needed to make products or that distribute and sell those products to customers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Swift Stock is following which strategy, according to Porter, through the .com subsidiary?
A) Stability
B) Cost leadership
C) Focus
D) Differentiation
E) Retrenchment
Q3) The acquisition of a business that is related to current product lines or that takes the corporation into new areas is called _____.
Q4) Top managers and chief executives have the final responsibility for strategic planning.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the three global corporate strategies.
Q6) List the four components of a SWOT analysis.
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Q1) A(n) _____ approach describes how managers actually make decisions, not how they should.
Q2) At the start of every shift, Carl, a delivery truck driver, plans out his route based on the addresses that he will be visiting to drop off packages. This can best be described as what kind of decision?
A) Programmed
B) Nonprogrammed
C) Wicked
D) Administrative
E) Intuitive
Q3) Administrative and political decision making procedures and intuition have been associated with high performance in unstable environments in which decisions must be made rapidly and under more difficult conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The administrative model of decision making describes how managers actually make decisions in difficult situations.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Aspects of both functional and divisional structures simultaneously in the same part of the organization are combined in the virtual network approach.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List the advantages of the virtual network structure.
Q3) One major disadvantage of the virtual network approach is the lack of hands-on control.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following structures is the leanest of all organization forms because little supervision is required?
A) Functional approach
B) Virtual network approach
C) Team approach
D) Matrix approach
E) Divisional approach
Q5) A(n) _____ is a person who is responsible for coordinating the activities of several departments for the completion of a specific project.
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Q1) _____ schedule materials to arrive at a company just as they are needed on the production line.
A) Mass customization system
B) LIFO system
C) First-in-First-out system
D) Just-in-time inventory system
E) Last-in-First-out
Q2) _____ symbolizes to all employees that the change is important for the organization.
Q3) The adoption of a new idea or behavior by an organization is known as organizational _____.
A) change.
B) development.
C) structure.
D) intervention.
E) responsibility.
Q4) Describe the five characteristics of creative people and organizations.
Q5) _____ change is related to the organization's production process, i.e., how the organization does its work.
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Q6) A(n) _____ is a change in the organization's product or service outputs.
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Q1) _____ is the second step in attracting individuals who show signs of becoming valued, productive, and satisfied employees.
A) Selecting the candidate
B) Choosing recruiting procedures
C) Applying the matching model
D) Human resource planning
E) Initiating change
Q2) Unfortunately, today's organizations offer universal, "one-size-fits-all" benefits packages, rather than pay-for-performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ is a systematic process of gathering and interpreting information about the essential duties.
A) A job analysis
B) A job listing
C) A job requirement
D) A job description
E) A realistic job preview
Q4) What are the three primary goals of human resource management (HRM)?
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Q1) A rigid, exaggerated, irrational belief associated with a particular group of people defines prejudice.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Although she loves her job, Gloria is contemplating leaving it to focus her energy on parenting her three children. This would demonstrate which factor affecting women's careers?
A) Female advantage
B) Opt-out trend
C) Glass ceiling
D) Glass wall
E) Opaque ceiling
Q3) _____ is the belief that groups and subcultures are inherently equal.
Q4) Organizations must find ways to eliminate the glass ceiling effect. One effective way to do this has been:
A) through targeted recruitment.
B) through affirmative action.
C) to develop mentoring relationships.
D) top management speeches.
E) to hire only white males.

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Q1) Canyon River, Inc. is looking for an individual who has a broad range of interests and is imaginative, creative, artistically sensitive, and willing to consider new ideas. Which of these factors are they emphasizing in their search?
A) Agreeableness
B) Conscientiousness
C) Emotional stability
D) Openness to experience
E) Extroversion
Q2) Which of the following is a way for managers to promote organizational committment?
A) Making work difficult
B) Punishing poor performance
C) Creating more rules
D) Giving more rewards
E) Being honest
Q3) Locus of control refers to an individual's belief that he or she can successfully accomplish a specific task or outcome.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is the basic difference between consideration behavior and initiating structure behavior?
Q2) A(n) _____ leader is distinguished by a special ability to bring about innovation and change.
Q3) The type of power that results from the leader's legitimate authority, based upon his or her position within the organization, is called coercive power.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a model of leadership that describes the relationship between leadership styles and specific organizational situations?
A) Contingency approach
B) Behavioral approach
C) Trait approach
D) Organizational approach
E) None of these
Q5) Differentiate between a substitute and a neutralizer.
Q6) The ability to influence people toward the attainment of goals is known as _____.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physiological needs are the most basic human physical needs, which are reflected in the workplace as needs for adequate heat, air, and base salary to ensure survival.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Factors that influence job satisfaction based on fulfillment of high-level needs such as achievement, recognition, and opportunity for growth are called motivators.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Empowering employees means giving them four elements that enable them to act more freely to accomplish their jobs: information, knowledge, power, and rewards.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A high need for power often is associated with successful attainment of top levels in the organizational hierarchy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe social learning theory and its three elements.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sender must encode the message and select a communication channel after developing the message.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Research has found that communication channels differ in their capacity to convey information.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ refers to the messages and information sent from top management down to subordinates.
Q4) The grapevine is an important means of communication that exists in companies. Most of the information passed through the grapevine is:
A) personal information.
B) vicious gossip.
C) business-related.
D) destructive because it is not accurate.
E) none of these.
Q5) Without _____, the communication is one-way.
Q6) Briefly describe the communication process.
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Q1) Virtual and global teams are particularly prone to communication breakdowns.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Social facilitation is the tendency for the presence of others to influence an individual's motivation and performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Although diversity contributes to higher levels of agreement in a team setting, it also results in reduced creativity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As one of the four common ways in which norms develop in teams, _____ are used by leaders or team members to initiate norms by articulating them to the team.
Q5) One of the primary advantages of virtual teams is the ability to rapidly assemble the most appropriate group of people to complete a project, solve a problem, or exploit a specific strategic opportunity.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The fourth step in the control process is comparing actual activities to performance standards.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Managers focus on the various elements of the scorecard to set targets, evaluate performance, and guide discussion about what further actions need to be taken.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Contingency factors that can influence the success of a TQM program in a positive way include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) tasks make high skill demands on employees.
B) TQM serves to enrich jobs and motivate employees.
C) problem-solving skills are improved for all employees.
D) participation and teamwork are used to tackle significant problems.
E) managers wait for big, dramatic innovations.
Q4) The _____ lists planned investments in major assets such as buildings, trucks, and heavy machinery, often involving expenditures over more than a year.
Q5) List the four steps in the feedback control model.
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