Principles of Management
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Management introduces students to the fundamental concepts and practices necessary for effective management in contemporary organizations. This course explores the core functions of management planning, organizing, leading, and controlling while emphasizing decision-making, strategy formulation, organizational structure, motivation, communication, and team dynamics. Students examine the ethical, social, and global responsibilities of managers and analyze case studies to apply theoretical principles to real-world situations. By the end of the course, students will develop a foundational understanding of management roles and acquire essential skills for future leadership positions.
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MGMT6 New Engaging Titles from 4LTR Press 6th Edition by Chuck Williams
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Chapter 1: Management
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Q1) An accountant with ____ has the ability to create a budget, compare the budget to the actual income statement, and determine unnecessary expenses.
A) technical skill
B) human skill
C) conceptual skill
D) motivational skill
E) interpersonal skill
Answer: A
Q2) Middle managers are typically responsible for coordinating and linking groups, departments, and divisions within a company.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The motivation to manage tends to be higher among managers at higher levels in the organization than it is among managers at lower levels in the organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 1: Management: Part A
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Q1) Companies look for a total of four sets of skills in individuals to identify potential managers. These desired skills are technical skills, human skills, conceptual skills, and motivation to manage.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) According to Mintzberg, which of the following lists the three major roles managers fulfill while performing their jobs?
A) interpersonal roles, informational roles, and decisional roles
B) informational roles, ethical roles, and action roles
C) corporate roles, coordination roles, and informational roles
D) decisional roles, informational roles, and organizational roles
E) interpersonal roles, intrapersonal roles, and departmental roles
Answer: A
Q3) First-line managers are the only managers who do not supervise other managers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 1: Management: Part B
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Q1) Upper-level managers may actually spend more time dealing with people than lower-level managers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which skills increase in their importance to success as managers rise through the managerial ranks?
A) human skills and decisional skills
B) informational skills and the motivation to manage
C) conceptual skills and the motivation to manage
D) conceptual skills, technical skills, and human skills
E) human skills and informational skills
Answer: C
Q3) The four classical functions of management are (1) making things happen, (2) meeting the competition, (3) organizing people, projects, and processes, and (4) leading.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 2: History of Management
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Q1) Discuss Mary Parker Follett's methods of dealing with conflict. What did she say about the value of each method?
Q2) Who is responsible for the fact that most products are manufactured using standardized, interchangeable parts.
A) Henri Fayol
B) Eli Whitney
C) Chester Barnard
D) Frederick Taylor
E) Elton Mayo
Q3) After the Industrial Revolution, jobs mostly occurred in large, formal organizations where hundreds of people worked under one roof.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to the systems approach to management, an open system can function without interacting with its environment.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How did the Industrial Revolution change jobs and organizations?
Q6) When will people generally be indifferent to managerial directives or orders?
Page 6
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Chapter 2: History of Management: Part A
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Q1) The Gantt chart:
A) was a precursor to the organizational chart
B) is a chart that shows when and where tasks need to be completed so that a job can be completed in a timely fashion
C) was an early method for breaking jobs down into their smallest common denominator
D) was a major tool of scientific managers and is not widely used today
E) is a method for continuous training of front-line employees
Q2) Frank and Lillian Gilbreth studied the psychology of groups.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nearly all organizations should be viewed as ______ that interact with their environments and depend on them for survival.
A) covert systems
B) open systems
C) synergistic subsystems
D) closed systems
E) entropic subsystems
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Chapter 2: History of Management: Part B
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Q1) A systems view of management allows managers to:
A) deal with the complex environment in which their companies operate
B) manage employee attendance
C) communicate efficiently
D) store and retrieve all types of information
E) eliminate production bottlenecks
Q2) Frank and Lillian Gilbreth are important to management because they:
A) used motion studies to eliminate unnecessary or repetitive motions from the work process
B) proved the effectiveness of nonfinancial motivators in convincing workers to strive for organizational goals
C) realized how the principles of sociology applied to worker performance
D) viewed the organization as a system that influenced its environment and that was influenced by its environment
E) identified the four functions managers perform
Q3) Management ideas and practices have actually been used from the earliest times of recorded history.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures
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Q1) Technology is the ____ used to transform inputs (raw materials, information, etc.) into outputs (products or services).
A) knowledge, tools, and techniques
B) knowledge and machinery
C) plans and machinery
D) tools and techniques
E) strategy and tactics
Q2) Refer to Dofasco. The slump in the automobile industry would be part of Dofasco's ____ environment.
A) indirect
B) general
C) competitive
D) primary
E) political/legal
Q3) When used together, the combination of behavioral substitution, behavioral addition, and changing visible artifacts is extremely likely to achieve the desired changes in organizational culture.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Q1) Technology is the __________ used to transform inputs (raw materials, information, etc.) into outputs (goods or services).
A) knowledge, tools, and techniques
B) knowledge and machinery
C) plans and machinery
D) tools and techniques
E) strategy and tactics
Q2) Changes in any sector of the general environment:
A) will typically not impact most organizations
B) tend to slow down how quickly an organization moves through the environmental cycle
C) inhibit the innovation process
D) influence customers first and then suppliers
E) will eventually affect most organizations
Q3) Managers can use behavioral addition and behavioral substitution to:
A) create benchmarks
B) assess the threats and opportunities in the internal environment
C) develop new products
D) locate new markets for existing products
E) modify corporate culture
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Q1) __________ is used to refer to a company's practice of identifying and addressing customer trends and problems after they occur.
A) Consumer confidence forecasts
B) Competitive analysis
C) Reactive customer monitoring
D) Proactive customer monitoring
E) Continuous data mining
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of successful organizational cultures?
A) adaptability
B) consistency
C) involvement
D) a clear vision
E) all of these
Q3) The first step managers use to make sense of their changing environments is:
A) environmental scanning
B) perceptual re-engagement
C) modifying budgets
D) downsizing
E) benchmarking
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility
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Q1) In May 2005, U.S. Attorney Michael J. Sullivan announced that the United States had settled civil claims arising out of a suit that alleged Oracle Corporation had violated the False Claims Act in connection with billing the federal government for software training services. The U.S. government learned about the overcharging from a former Oracle vice president. The vice president acted as a(n) ____.
A) whistleblower
B) ethical ombudsman
C) secondary stakeholder
D) covert stakeholder
E) secondary shareholder
Q2) Stakeholders are people or groups with an interest in a company's actions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) People at the postconventional level of moral development make moral decisions based on selfish reasons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the four steps managers can take to increase ethical decision making in their organizations?
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part A
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Q1) The stakeholder model holds that the only social responsibility that businesses have is to maximize profits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Workplace deviance can be categorized by how deviant the behavior is and:
A) how the behavior was motivated
B) where the motivation occurred
C) the target of the deviant behavior
D) the intent of the violator
E) organizational norms
Q3) What is the term used to describe the degree of concern people have about an ethical issue?
A) Ethical intensity
B) Social consensus
C) Temporal immediacy
D) Magnitude of consequences
E) Ethical valence
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part B
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Q1) What is social responsibility?
A) a business's obligation to pursue policies, make decisions, and take actions that benefit society
B) a business tactic used to create relationship bonds with customers
C) what companies are obliged legally to do to protect their external environments
D) a business's responsibility to its shareholders
E) the fact businesses are responsible for monitoring their social environments so they can satisfy the needs of their customers
Q2) According to Milton Friedman, which of the following is a position opposing the stakeholder model of corporate social responsibility?
A) Organizations can act effectively as moral agents for all company shareholders.
B) The time, money, and attention diverted to social causes undermine market efficiency.
C) It is socially responsible for companies to divert their efforts to social causes.
D) The marketplace will ultimately determine the importance of social causes.
E) All of these positions are in accordance with the beliefs of Milton Friedman.
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making
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Q1) According to the S.M.A.R.T. guidelines, goals should be ____.
A) Aggregated
B) Reliable
C) Timely
D) Motivated
E) all of these
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the rules for effective brainstorming?
A) The more ideas, the better.
B) Select an open-minded group leader.
C) All ideas are acceptable.
D) Criticism is not allowed.
E) Use other members' ideas to come up with more ideas.
Q3) ____ are a type of operational plan.
A) Single-use plans
B) Contingency plans
C) Short-term strategies
D) Mission modifications
E) Benchmarks
Q4) Identify three ways of increasing goal commitment. Which one is most commonly used by managers?
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part A
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Q1) Both absolute comparisons and relative comparisons are methods for identifying decision criteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements explains why groups can produce better solutions than individuals in decision-making situations?
A) Formal groups have no group norms.
B) Groups cannot experience information overload.
C) Groups become committed to solutions they help choose.
D) Groups take additional time to carefully evaluate all options.
E) All of these are reasons why groups can produce better solutions than individuals in a decision-making situation.
Q3) Management by objectives (MBO) is a management technique often used to develop and carry out_______plans.
A) single-use
B) standing
C) operational
D) tactical
E) hierarchical
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part B
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Q1) Top management is responsible for developing long-term __________ that make clear how the company will serve customers and position itself against competitors in the next two to five years.
A) standing plans
B) tactical plans
C) operational plans
D) strategic plans
E) mission statements
Q2) __________ can help organizations to maintain flexibility as they plan.
A) Environmental munificence
B) Options-based planning
C) Formalization
D) Liaisons
E) Group cohesiveness
Q3) Managers can monitor __________ to track progress toward goal achievement.
A) action plans and their implementation
B) proximal and distal goals
C) one-way and two-way evaluative techniques
D) framing and non-framing goals
E) open-ended and close-ended techniques
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy
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Q1) Companies often choose a stability strategy when their external environment doesn't change much or after they have struggled with periods of explosive growth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most companies compete directly with all the firms in their industry.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a situational analysis, a strategic group is a group of ____ that top managers choose for comparing, evaluating, and benchmarking their company's strategic threats and opportunities.
A) non-industry specific companies
B) expert managers
C) trade journals and other relevant periodicals
D) other firms within an industry
E) consulting firms that use the Delphi technique
Q4) Explain how the concept of strategic group (and its two sub-types) is used in a situational analysis as part of an environmental scanning activity to identify specific opportunities and threats that can either improve or harm the company's ability to sustain its competitive advantage.
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part A
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Q1) An analysis of an organization's external environment begins with an assessment of the company's distinctive competencies and core capabilities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The purpose of __________ strategies is to choose an industry-level strategy that is best suited to changes in the organization's external environment.
A) positioning
B) differentiation
C) growth
D) adaptive
E) diversification
Q3) There are four conditions that must be met if a firm's resources are to be used to achieve a sustainable competitive advantage. The resources must be valuable, rare, imperfectly imitable, and nonsubstitutable.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part B
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Q1) Which of the following is a mechanism used to examine external threats and opportunities facing a firm as well as its internal strengths and weaknesses?
A) organizational scanning
B) internal marketing
C) shadow-strategy task forces
D) benchmarking
E) a situational analysis
Q2) In any organization, the __________ are the less visible, internal decision-making routines, problem-solving processes, and organization cultures that determine how efficiently inputs can be turned into outputs.
A) imperfectly imitable resources
B) valuable resources
C) distinctive competencies
D) core capabilities
E) sources of innovation
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20
Chapter 7: Innovation and Change
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Q1) Technological innovation not only makes it possible to duplicate the benefits obtained from a company's distinctive advantage but also quickly creates an opportunity to turn a company's competitive advantage into a competitive disadvantage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) It is appropriate to use a(n) ____ approach to manage innovation in more certain environments during periods of incremental change, in which the goals are lower costs and incremental improvements in the performance and function of the existing technological design.
A) experiential
B) compression
C) prototypical
D) milestones
E) reinforcement
Q3) Explain how the concept of innovation streams relates to the concept of sustainable competitive advantage. Give an example of how this occurs in the business world.
Q4) Briefly describe the typical pattern of technology cycles that occurs during technological innovation.
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part A
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Q1) The General Electric workout is a special kind of:
A) activity-oriented change
B) results-driven change
C) generational change
D) vision-driven change
E) resources-driven change
Q2) The __________ approach to managing innovation assumes that innovation is a predictable process made up of a series of steps and that compressing the time it takes to complete those steps can speed up innovation.
A) compression
B) milestones
C) dialectical
D) generational
E) prototypical
Q3) Organizational decline is typically reversible at any of its five stages.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part B
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Q1) A technology __________ begins with the "birth" of a new technology and ends when that technology reaches its limits and "dies" as it is replaced by a newer, substantially better technology.
A) process
B) pattern
C) cycle
D) hierarchy
E) continuum
Q2) Which of the following is one of the three steps in the basic process of managing organizational change outlined by Kurt Lewin?
A) unfreezing
B) organizational dialogue
C) change definition
D) incremental change
E) change mentoring
Q3) The same techniques for managing innovation work equally as well after technological discontinuities as during periods of incremental change.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 8: Global Management
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Q1) Several Arab countries boycott Coca-Cola products because the soft-drink company maintains product distributors in Israel. This boycott is an example of ____.
A) geocentrism
B) nationalism
C) nationalization
D) a trade barrier
E) acculturation
Q2) Direct foreign investment is an increasingly important and common method of conducting global business.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The criteria for choosing an office/manufacturing location are different from the criteria for entering a foreign market.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the basic provisions of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)?. Give three examples of how it benefits U.S. industries.
Q5) Briefly describe a regional trade agreement and a worldwide trade agreement.
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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part A
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Q1) A country or region that has an attractive business climate for companies that want to go global has:
A) a large population of unskilled workers
B) an effective and cost-efficient place to build an office or manufacturing site
C) a small youth population
D) natural boundaries
E) all of these
Q2) Which of the following represents the correct sequence for the phase model of globalization?
A) exporting; wholly owned affiliates; cooperative contracts; strategic alliances
B) exporting; cooperative contracts; wholly owned affiliates; strategic alliances
C) exporting; cooperative contracts; strategic alliances; wholly owned affiliates
D) exporting; strategic alliances; cooperative contracts; wholly owned affiliates
E) home country sales; exporting; job ventures; strategic alliances, and direct investment
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25
Chapter 8: Global Management: Part B
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Q1) One of the major questions that a company must typically answer once it has decided to go global is:
A) How many additional employees will the company need?
B) To what extent should the company standardize or adapt business procedures?
C) To what extent should a company abide by global or regional trade agreements?
D) Will the organization's mission statement need to be changed?
E) How many new shareholders will be influenced by global activities?
Q2) Two factors help determine the growth potential of foreign markets. They are foreign competition and:
A) communications and transportation systems
B) purchasing power
C) political stability
D) creative differences
E) product diffusion rate
Q3) The two general kinds of trade barriers are:
A) government import standards and industry import standards
B) qualitative and quantitative barriers
C) voluntary and involuntary barriers
D) nationalistic and geocentric barriers
E) tariff barriers and nontariff barriers
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations
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Q1) ____ departmentalization is notorious for confusion and conflict between project managers in different areas of the organization.
A) Matrix
B) Functional
C) Customer
D) Product
E) Geographic
Q2) With ____ departmentalization, most employees report to two bosses.
A) geographic
B) matrix
C) product
D) customer
E) functional
Q3) The two disadvantages associated with product departmentalization are costly duplication and difficulties with cross-departmental coordination.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the primary disadvantages of job specialization? How can job redesign be used to overcome them?
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part A
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Q1) The two disadvantages associated with product departmentalization are costly duplication and difficulties with cross-departmental coordination.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n) __________ organization is an organization that is characterized by specialized jobs and responsibilities, precisely defined, unchanging roles, and a rigid chain of command based on centralized authority and vertical communication.
A) modular
B) departmentalized
C) standardized
D) organic
E) mechanistic
Q3) Job enlargement and job enrichment mean essentially the same thing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Specialized jobs are generally inefficient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part B
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Q1) __________ means increasing the number of tasks in a particular job and giving workers the power to make decisions about their own work.
A) Job enrichment
B) Job rotation
C) Job specialization
D) Job enlargement
E) Job design
Q2) __________ is the vertical and horizontal configuration of departments, authority, and jobs within a company.
A) Departmental mapping
B) Organizational charting
C) Organizational structure
D) Organizational configuration
E) Functionalization
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams
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Q1) Since teams should be an end in themselves, it is appropriate to use them in most situations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the autonomy continuum (which shows how five kinds of teams differ in terms of autonomy), the correct sequence, from low team autonomy to high team autonomy, is ____.
A) employee involvement teams, traditional work groups, semi-autonomous work groups, self-managing teams, and self-designing teams
B) traditional work groups, employee involvement teams, self-managing teams, semi-autonomous work groups, and self-designing teams
C) traditional work groups, employee involvement teams, self-designing teams, and self-managing teams
D) traditional work groups, employee involvement teams, semi-autonomous work groups, self-managing teams, and self-designing teams
E) employer-mandated teams, traditional work groups, employee involvement teams, project teams, and self-managing teams
Q3) Explain what managers can do to manage conflict in teams effectively.
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part A
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Q1) __________ describes the average level of ability, experience, personality, or any other factor on a team.
A) Team diversity
B) Group synergy
C) Team level
D) Team conformity
E) Team performance
Q2) __________ is a compensation system in which companies share the financial value of performance gains, such as productivity, cost savings, or quality, with their workers.
A) Skill-based pay
B) Gainsharing
C) A draw account
D) Profit sharing
E) Optional equity
Q3) In the decision-making process, teams can do a much better job than individuals in defining the problem and generating alternative solutions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part B
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Q1) Which of the following size teams usually provides the best performance?
A) 2 to 3
B) 6 to 9
C) 15 to 20
D) more than 20
E) All sizes tend to perform equally well.
Q2) In the decision-making process, teams can do a much better job than individuals in defining the problem and generating alternative solutions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Structural accommodation means giving teams the ability to change organizational structures, policies, and practices if it helps them meet their stretch goals.
A)True
B)False
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32
Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems
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Q1) To which of the following aspects of the human resource management process does U.S. Federal employment law apply?
A) selection decisions
B) compensation decisions
C) performance appraisals
D) training and development activities
E) all of these
Q2) Which of the following is a direct (rather than indirect) measure of job applicants' capability to do the job?
A) creativity tests
B) cognitive ability tests
C) personality tests
D) achievement tests
E) work sample tests
Q3) Before beginning to recruit, organizations must ____.
A) advertise for job candidates
B) create a job description
C) conduct a job analysis
D) create a job specification
E) match salaries to industry averages
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part A
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Q1) Which of the following type of tests accurately predicts job performance in almost all kinds of jobs?
A) specific ability tests
B) cognitive ability tests
C) personality tests
D) achievement tests
E) work sample tests
Q2) __________ is the loss of high-performing employees who voluntarily choose to leave a company.
A) De-employment
B) Dysfunctional turnover
C) Reactive turnover
D) Regressive turnover
E) A "brain leak"
Q3) The only time that gender, age, religion, etc. can be used to make employment decisions is when they are considered a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ).
A)True
B)False
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34
Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part B
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Q1) __________ is the loss of high-performing employees who voluntarily choose to leave a company.
A) De-employment
B) Dysfunctional turnover
C) Reactive turnover
D) Regressive turnover
E) A "brain leak"
Q2) A __________ is a purposeful, systematic process for collecting information on the important work-related aspects of a job.
A) job analysis
B) task evaluation
C) job specification
D) job validation
E) job description
Q3) Background checks can be used to verify the truthfulness and accuracy of information that applicants provide about themselves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work Force
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Q1) Refer to Wal-Mart. The addition of the corporate compliance department reflects the implementation of a(n) ____.
A) discrimination and fairness paradigm
B) access and legitimacy paradigm
C) learning and effectiveness paradigm
D) cultural stereotype paradigm
E) personal integration paradigm
Q2) For which of the following positions would the hiring organization be most likely to require someone who has high degree of emotional stability?
A) car mechanic
B) landscape designer
C) 911 operator
D) electrician
E) meteorologist
Q3) The three different methods or paradigms for managing diversity are the discrimination and fairness paradigm, the access and legitimacy paradigm, and the learning and effectiveness paradigm.
A)True
B)False
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Page 36
Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
Force: Part A
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Q1) A key difference between affirmative action and diversity is that:
A) diversity requires a wider span of management
B) diversity has a broader focus
C) diversity is legally mandated in all private companies
D) affirmative action is legally mandated in all private companies
E) affirmative action does not alter organizational structures, and diversity does
Q2) Research has shown that performance capabilities decline with age.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ consists of differences communicated through verbal and nonverbal behaviors, such as personality and attitudes that are learned only through extended interaction with others.
A) Organizational plurality
B) Behavioral diversity
C) Surface-level diversity
D) Deep-level diversity
E) Ego-driven heterogeneity
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Page 37
Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
Force: Part B
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Q1) Organizational plurality is consistent with:
A) the paradigm of commonality
B) the determination and fairness paradigm
C) the learning and effectiveness paradigm
D) the access and legitimacy paradigm
E) none of these
Q2) Conscientiousness is:
A) the degree to which someone is organized, hardworking, responsible, and achievement oriented
B) the degree to which someone is curious
C) the degree to which someone is active and gregarious
D) the degree to which someone is cooperative, flexible, good-natured, tolerant, and trusting
E) defined by none of these
Q3) Affirmative action is required by law for all private employers, and diversity is voluntary.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Motivation
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41976
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Q1) According to the expectancy theory, ____ affect the conscious choices that people make about their motivation.
A) equity, value-added, and instrumentality
B) valence, expectancy, and instrumentality
C) expectancy, reinforcement, and instrumentality
D) instrumentality, equity, and expectancy
E) expectancy, equity, and reinforcement
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a type of reinforcement contingency?
A) negative reinforcement
B) punishment
C) extinction
D) overreward
E) positive reinforcement
Q3) Identify the four things that the basic model of work motivation suggests managers can use to motivate employees. Explain how each of these strategies might be used to motivate a 55-year-old tenured professor whose teaching performance has become very weak over the past three years. Briefly explain the relevance of the industrial psychology formulation of the relationship between performance and motivation to the analysis you provide. Be sure to clarify any assumptions that you are making.
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Page 39
Chapter 13: Motivation: Part A
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Q1) Which of the following is a basic component of equity theory?
A) valences
B) reinforcement
C) referents
D) instrumentality
E) expectancy
Q2) Once lower-order needs are satisfied, it is difficult to predict which higher-order needs will motivate behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In general, extrinsic rewards are more important to workers than intrinsic rewards.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Punishment is also called avoidance learning.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Overreward frequently causes inequity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part B
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Q1) Which of the following is a basic component of equity theory?
A) valences
B) reinforcement
C) referents
D) instrumentality
E) expectancy
Q2) According to the expectancy theory, __________ affect the conscious choices that people make about their motivation.
A) equity, value-added, and instrumentality
B) valence, expectancy, and instrumentality
C) expectancy, reinforcement, and instrumentality
D) instrumentality, equity, and expectancy
E) expectancy, equity, and reinforcement
Q3) On the basis of research evidence, the two basic needs categories are:
A) tangible and intangible needs
B) physiological and psychological needs
C) higher-order and lower-order needs
D) extrinsic and intrinsic needs
E) realized and unrealized needs
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Page 41
Chapter 14: Leadership
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normative decision theory helps leaders decide how much employee participation should be used when making decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Malcolm Thompson was brought in as the CEO of Novalux, a company involved in laser research, to save the company's promise of innovation. It's what he loves: turning ideas into companies, then shaping those businesses to meet evolving challenges. "You're never done," he says. "It always looks like you're near the finish line, but there are always new opportunities along the road-and new obstacles you'd never thought of. That's part of the exploration-constantly looking at the next problem and the next solution." Apparently, Thompson is an example of a(n) ____.
A) leadership substitute
B) trait leader
C) leadership neutralizer
D) visionary leader
E) transactional leader
Q3) What are the two key leader behaviors that are central to successful leadership? How does each typically influence subordinates?
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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part A
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Q1) The most important situational factor in Fieldler's Contingency Theory is:
A) Task structure
B) Procedural power
C) Leader relations
D) Position power
E) Leader-member relations
Q2) Transactional leaders:
A) reward followers for good behavior and punish followers for poor behavior
B) help followers see how their jobs fit with the organization's vision
C) pay special attention to individual needs by creating learning opportunities
D) motivate followers by providing them with meaningful and challenging work
E) are accurately described by all of these
Q3) According to the path-goal theory of leadership, __________ means setting challenging goals, having high expectations of employees, and displaying confidence that employees will assume responsibility and put forth extraordinary effort.
A) directive leadership
B) supportive leadership
C) participative leadership
D) achievement-oriented leadership
E) empowerment leadership
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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part B
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Q1) Relatively stable characteristics such as abilities, psychological motives, or consistent patterns of behavior, form the basis for the __________ of leadership.
A) situational theory
B) behavioral theory
C) trait theory
D) expectancy theory
E) path-goal theory
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the four leadership styles identified in the path-goal theory of leadership?
A) directive
B) supportive
C) participative
D) charismatic
E) achievement-oriented
Q3) According to the normative decision theory, using the right degree of employee participation improves the quality of decisions and the extent to which employees accept and are committed to decisions.
A)True
B)False
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Page 44
Chapter 15: Managing Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Horizontal communication flows among managers and workers who are at the same organizational level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nonverbal communication is less informative than verbal communication. .
A)True
B)False
Q3) A company decided to solicit ____ from the company's best customers. From the information gathered, the company learned that it needed to modify its invoice form and that the sales staff needed to engage in more follow up.
A) empathetic feedback
B) participative feedback
C) solicited feedback
D) constructive feedback
E) motivational feedback
Q4) As a general rule, managers prefer written communication methods over oral communication methods.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part A
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Q1) Managers with better listening skills are rated as better managers by their employees and are much more likely to be promoted.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ is a kind of one-on-one communication used by managers to improve an employee's on-the-job performance or behavior.
A) Downward guidance
B) Coaching
C) Counseling
D) Leading
E) Supportive supervision
Q3) In nonverbal communication, the term __________ refers to movements of the body and face.
A) kinesics
B) proxemics
C) paralanguage
D) pseudo-language
E) semiotics
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the best ways for top managers to hear what others feel and think is through:
A) company hotlines
B) surprise visits
C) survey feedback
D) frequent informal meetings
E) participative management
Q2) In the __________ type of grapevine communication network, one "highly connected" individual shares information with many other managers and workers.
A) star chain
B) gossip chain
C) cluster chain
D) leader chain
E) linear
Q3) In the perceptual process, apprehension is the process of remembering interpreted information.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ control is a method of gathering information about performance deficiencies before they occur.
A) Feedback
B) Stasis
C) Preemptive
D) Feedforward
E) Concurrent
Q2) Companies may determine standards by ____.
A) benchmarking other companies
B) implementing vertical loading
C) using outsourcing
D) taking corrective action
E) doing all of these
Q3) List the steps in the basic control process and how you would respond to the statement, "Control is a process that should be employed intermittently?"
Q4) Feedforward control provides information about performance deficiencies by monitoring inputs, not outputs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Control: Part A
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Q1) Normative controls should be used when:
A) cause-and-effect relationships are clear
B) workers have been taught self-control skills
C) responsibility for task accomplishment is given to autonomous work groups
D) it is necessary to standardize all operations
E) organizational culture, values, and beliefs are strong
Q2) In terms of the basic methods of control, __________ control is an improvement over __________ control because it attempts to eliminate or shorten the delay between performance and feedback about the performance.
A) feedback; concurrent
B) concurrent; feedback
C) feedback; feedforward
D) feedforward; feedback
E) concurrent; stasis
Q3) The only dimension needed to measure quality is its conformance to expectations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Concertive control produces less stress for workers than bureaucratic control.
A)True
B)False
Page 49
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Chapter 16: Control: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normative controls should be used when:
A) cause-and-effect relationships are clear
B) workers have been taught self-control skills
C) responsibility for task accomplishment is given to autonomous work groups
D) it is necessary to standardize all operations
E) organizational culture, values, and beliefs are strong
Q2) In the traditional control systems used at most companies, __________ measures are used to assess performance and influence behavior.
A) objective control
B) customer
C) value/quality
D) quality/profit
E) concertive control
Q3) __________ is the extent to which it is possible to implement each step in the control process.
A) Control feasibility
B) Cybernetic feasibility
C) A quasi-control assessment
D) A balanced scorecard assessment
E) Information management
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Chapter 17: Managing Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first airline that used technology to allow passengers to buy their plane tickets and reserve their seats online had a first-mover advantage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Data mining typically splits a data set in half, finds patterns in one half, and then tests the validity of those patterns by trying to find them again in the second half of the data set.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Three kinds of information technology are used by executives, managers, and workers inside the company to access and share information. They are ____.
A) executive information systems, portals, and intranets
B) local area networks, extranets, and management information systems
C) intranets, local area networks, and portals
D) expert systems, decision support system, and virtual private networks
E) Internet-accesses, SSL encryption, and intranets
Q4) Compare and contrast executive information systems, decision support systems, and expert systems.
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part A
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Q1) The goal of an executive information system (EIS) is to:
A) replace the need for intuition in decision making
B) create a link among authorized data and network users
C) protect organizational data from hackers
D) provide accurate, complete, relevant, and timely information to managers
E) do none of these
Q2) Data mining is the:
A) automated, electronic capture of data
B) process of hypothesis testing in large databases
C) process of verifying known relationships in large amounts of data
D) process of discovering unknown patterns and relationships in large amounts of data
E) method used to identify and eliminate perishable data
Q3) Which of the following statements about knowledge is true?
A) Data and information are the same as knowledge.
B) Knowledge resides in information.
C) Knowledge is the understanding that one gains from information.
D) Knowledge is easier to acquire than data and information.
E) All of these statements about knowledge are true.
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part B
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the characteristics and costs of useful information is true?
A) Raw data become information as soon as the facts and figures are manipulated.
B) For information to be useful, it has to be malleable, concrete, reliable, and timely.
C) Obtaining good information incurs negligible costs in terms of acquisition, processing, storage, retrieval, and communication.
D) Useful information does not come cheaply.
E) All of these statements about the characteristics and costs of useful information are true.
Q2) A(n) __________ is a private company network that allows employees to easily access, share, and publish information using Internet software.
A) LAN portal
B) private company network (PCN)
C) intranet
D) electronic data sharing system
E) information network
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing Operations
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Q1) Which of the following quality characteristics can be applied to both goods and services?
A) reliability
B) serviceability
C) durability
D) homogeneity
E) tangibility
Q2) The purpose of ____ is to recognize U.S. companies for their achievements in quality and business performance and to raise awareness of how quality and performance excellence can be used to create a competitive edge.
A) ISO 9000 certification
B) the Baldrige Award
C) the Herzberg Award for Excellence
D) Kanban certification
E) the Gantt Award
Q3) Inventory is defined as the number of finished products that a company has in its possession either in the factory, in warehouses, or on delivery vehicles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing Operations: Part A
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Q1) Which of the following shows the correct relationship for productivity, outputs, and inputs?
A) productivity = (inputs/outputs)
B) productivity = [(inputs outputs)/100]
C) outputs = (productivity/inputs)
D) productivity = (outputs/inputs)
E) inputs = (productivity/outputs)
Q2) It costs ten times as much to find a new customer as it does to keep an existing customer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The two types of productivity are:
A) partial productivity and complete productivity
B) multifactor productivity and partial productivity
C) individual productivity and departmental productivity
D) departmental productivity and organizational productivity
E) organizational productivity and industry productivity
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
Operations: Part B
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Q1) The term __________ refers to restoring customer satisfaction to strongly dissatisfied customers.
A) service recovery
B) service enhancement
C) customer focus
D) customer reengineering
E) relationship marketing
Q2) The three principles that characterize TQM are continuous improvement, teamwork, and:
A) third party certification
B) delegation
C) participative management
D) customer focus and satisfaction
E) distinctive competence
Q3) Which of the following is the most flexible manufacturing operation?
A) project manufacturing
B) continuous-flow production
C) line-flow production
D) batch production
E) job shops
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