Principles of Management
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Management introduces students to the foundational concepts and practices necessary for effective management within organizations. The course covers essential topics such as planning, organizing, leading, and controlling, and explores the roles and responsibilities of managers in a dynamic business environment. Students will examine classical and contemporary management theories, decision-making processes, strategic planning, organizational structure, leadership styles, motivation, team dynamics, and ethical considerations. Emphasis is placed on developing analytical, problem-solving, and communication skills to prepare students for successful management careers in various sectors.
Recommended Textbook
Organizational Behavior 12th Edition by
John R. Schermerhorn
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introducing Organizational Behavior
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Q1) A manager who is using spreadsheet software to prepare a departmental budget is using which managerial skill according to Katz?
A)Supervisory
B)Conceptual
C)Creative
D)Technical
E)Human
Answer: D
Q2) An effective manager is one whose organizational unit,group,or team consistently achieves its goals despite the fact that its members are uncommitted and unenthusiastic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) According to Katz,in trying to work out an acceptable solution to a problem,managers who rely on their understanding of other people and who empathize with others' feelings are using which managerial skill?
Answer: Human
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3
Chapter 2: Individual Differences,Values,and Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following statements about problem-solving styles is NOT accurate?
A)Information gathering involves getting and organizing data for use.
B)Sensation-type individuals and intuitive-type individuals represent two forms of information gathering.
C)Evaluation involves making judgments about how to deal with information once it has been collected.
D)Two forms of evaluation are feeling and thinking.
E)Problem-solving styles are most frequently measured by the Morrison-Bellarmine Type Index.
Answer: E
Q2) People with an intuitive-thinking style of problem solving tend to be speculative,objective,impersonal,and idealistic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Eustress has a negative impact on both attitudes and performance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Emotions,Attitudes,and Job Satisfaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ are generalized positive and negative feelings or states of mind. Answer: Moods
Q2) __________ is the loyalty of an individual to the organization.
Answer: Organizational commitment
Q3) "I was really angry when my professor criticized my presentation." This is an example of a(n)__________.
A)emotion
B)mood
C)cognition
D)display rule
E)citizenship behavior
Answer: A
Q4) The Affective Events Theory ties together and extends people's emotional reactions on-the-job and how these reactions influence those people.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) The spillover of job satisfaction onto family lives is also known as __________. Answer: the at-home effect
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Chapter 4: Perception,Attribution,and Learning
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Q1) The __________ is the tendency to deny personal responsibility for performance problems but to accept personal responsibility for performance success.
A)fundamental attribution error
B)central attribution error
C)indigenous bias
D)inward attribution error
E)self-serving bias
Q2) Impression management is a person's systematic attempt to influence how others perceive us and flattering others to favorably impress them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A person's belief that he or she can perform adequately in a situation is known as
A)self-efficacy
B)social learning
C)OB modification.
D)the self-serving bias
E)the self-fulfilling prophesy
Q4) __________ is the process of creating explanations for events.
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Chapter 6: Motivation and Performance
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Q1) Job enlargement is designed to increase job breadth by having the worker perform more and different tasks,but all at the same level of responsibility and challenge.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The potential disadvantages of job simplification include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)loss of efficiency in the face of lower quality.
B)reduction in the skills required to perform a job.
C)higher turnover rates.
D)higher absenteeism rates.
E)demand for higher wages to compensate for unappealing jobs.
Q3) An organization that is able to employ two persons as one by having one person work mornings and the other person work afternoons on the same job is reaping the benefits of __________.
Q4) A(n)__________ is a method of performance appraisal that records incidents of each subordinate's behavior that led to either unusual success or failure in a given performance aspect.
Q5) __________ give the right to purchase shares at a fixed price in the future.
Q6) __________ in performance appraisal compares each person with every other.
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Chapter 7: Teams in Organizations
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Q1) Which one of the following characteristics truly differentiates self-managing teams from the more traditional work group?
A)Team members typically work in isolation from the rest of the company.
B)Team members are typically asked to work on more challenging tasks than traditional work groups.
C)Team members assume duties otherwise performed by a manager or first-line supervisor.
D)Team members are typically paid more than the team members of traditional work teams.
E)Team members are typically more experienced than the team members of traditional work teams.
Q2) Teams that make or do things are functional groups and work units that perform ongoing tasks such as marketing departments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ are functional groups and work units that perform ongoing tasks,such as marketing or manufacturing.
Q4) A(n)__________ is set up to deal with a specific problem or opportunity.
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Chapter 8: Teamwork and Team Performance
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the problems that face new group members?
A)Participation
B)Goals
C)Lack of originality
D)Control
E)Process
Q2) When groupthink occurs in highly cohesive groups,poor decisions may result from the members' unwillingness to criticize one another's ideas and suggestions,overemphasis on agreement,desire to hold the group together,underemphasis on critical discussion,and desire to avoid unpleasant circumstances.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Specific objectives provide a clear focus for solving problems and resolving conflicts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) High-performance teams turn a general sense of purpose into specific performance objectives.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Decision-Making and Creativity
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Q1) Creativity is more likely to occur when a person has a lot of task expertise.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Examples of __________ decisions include reordering inventory automatically when stock falls below a predetermined level and issuing a written reprimand to someone who violates a specific work procedure.
A)uniform
B)standardized
C)programmed
D)fixed
E)nonprogrammed
Q3) The lack-of-participation error occurs in which phase of the rational decision model?
A)evaluating results
B)identifying alternatives
C)implementing preferred course of action
D)choosing a preferred course of action
E)recognizing the problem
Q4) __________ is the ability to know or recognize quickly and readily the possibilities of a given situation.
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Chapter 10: Conflict and Negotiation
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Q1) __________ conflicts occur when the communication of task expectations is unclear or upsetting in some way,such as a team member receiving different expectations from the leader and other members.
A)Vertical
B)Horizontal
C)Line-staff
D)Task
E)Role ambiguity
Q2) Suppose that a manager responds to a disagreement between subordinates by saying: "I don't want to get in the middle of your personal disputes." This manager is using which conflict management style?
A)Avoidance
B)Authoritative command
C)Accommodation
D)Collaboration
E)Unassertiveness
Q3) Approach-approach conflict,avoidance-avoidance conflict,and approach-avoidance conflict are different types of __________.
Q4) Principled negotiation is another name for __________.
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Chapter 11: Communication and Collaboration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonverbal communication can take place through the physical arrangement of space.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to two-way communication?
A)Two-way communication goes from sender to receiver and back again.
B)Two-way communication is characterized by the normal interactive conversation in our daily experiences.
C)Research indicates that two-way communication is often less effective than one-way communication.
D)Two-way communication is more time consuming than one-way communication.
E)Two-way communication is more costly than one-way communication.
Q3) __________ is the ability to help the source of a message say what he or she really means.
A)Ordered listening
B)Expressive listening
C)Trained listening
D)Formal listening
E)Active listening
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Chapter 12: Power and Politics
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Q1) __________ can be enhanced when managers are able to demonstrate to others that their work units are highly relevant to organizational goals and are able to respond to urgent organizational needs.
A)Statutory power
B)Personal power
C)Position power
D)Hierarchical power
E)Bureaucratic power
Q2) __________ is the process by which managers help others to acquire and use the power needed to make decisions affecting themselves and their work.
Q3) What are the two traditions in organizational politics? Suggested
Q4) __________ is an avoidance strategy in the politics of self-protection wherein the manager or employee treats customers,clients,or subordinates as numbers,things or objects.
Q5) Coercive power is the extent to which a manager can use extrinsic and intrinsic rewards to control other people.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Leadership Essentials
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Q1) Cognitive resource theory views nondirective leader behavior as most helpful for performance when the leader is competent,relaxed,and supported.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Robert Blake and Jane Mouton developed the "leadership grid" approach,which emphasizes combinations of concern for production and concern for people.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Current assessments of path-goal theory by well-known scholars have pointed out that most aspects have been thoroughly validated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In leader match training,leaders are trained to diagnose the situation to match their high or low LPC scores with situational control.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss Fiedler's leadership contingency view. Suggested
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Chapter 14: Leadership Challenges and Organizational Change
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Q1) Through a force-coercion change strategy,a change agent acts unilaterally to "command" change through the formal authority of his or her position,to induce change via an offer of special rewards,or to bring about change via threats of punishment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Rehearsal of desired behaviors before actual performance can be useful in moving behaviors toward goal attainment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________is the first step toward behavioral change.
Q4) Research indicates that leadership is restricted to the vertical influence of a single individual in an organization.
A)True B)False
Q5) When considering the targets of change,it must be recognized that changes in any one target are likely to require or involve changes in the other targets.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Organizational Culture and Innovation
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Q1) The __________ culture includes the unique stories,ceremonies,and corporate rituals that make up the history of the firm or a group within it.
A)latent
B)shared
C)common
D)observable
E)implicit
Q2) A cultural artifact is any object,act,or event that serves to transmit cultural meaning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A new study has indicated that __________ rather than national policy makes the biggest difference with radical product innovation.
Q4) An organization with a "strong culture" possesses a broadly and deeply shared value system that can provide a strong corporate identity,enhance collective commitment,provide a stable social system,and reduce the need for formal and bureaucratic controls.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 16: Organizational Goals and Structures
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Q1) A typical __________ shows the various positions,the position holders,and the lines of authority that link them together.
Q2) Staff units are groups that assist the line units by providing specialized expertise and services to the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Organization charts can be important to the extent that they accurately represent the "chain of command."
A)True
B)False
Q4) The __________ refers to the particular group toward which an organization targets its societal contributions.
A)social target
B)contribution account
C)primary beneficiary
D)secondary beneficiary
E)tertiary beneficiary
Q5) The number of individuals reporting to a supervisor is called the __________.
Q6) __________ are diagrams that depict the formal structures of organizations.
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Chapter 17: Strategy,Technology,and Organizational Design
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Q1) The owners,suppliers,distributors,government agencies,and competitors with which an organization must interact to grow and survive constitute its __________ environment.
A)comprehensive
B)specific
C)internal
D)indigenous
E)general
Q2) The strengths of the simple design are simplicity,flexibility,and responsiveness to the desires of a central manager.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One subtle example of cascading leadership is known as __________ where middle-level leaders try to mimic what they think the top-level leader would do in their situation.
Q4) __________ learning involves capturing the lessons of others' experiences.
Q5) _________ is the copying of the successful practices of others.
Q6) __________ are announced cooperative agreements or joint ventures between two independent firms.
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Q7) __________ is leadership of a quasi-independent unit,department,or organization.
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