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Principles of Management Chapter Exam Questions - 2016 Verified Questions

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Principles of Management

Chapter Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Principles of Management introduces students to the foundational concepts and practices essential for effective management in contemporary organizations. The course covers the core functions of management planning, organizing, leading, and controlling while exploring key topics such as decision-making, motivation, team dynamics, organizational structure, and strategic management. Through real-world examples and case studies, students learn how managers drive organizational success, adapt to change, and foster innovation in a global business environment. This course provides essential skills and knowledge for students aspiring to develop their leadership potential and succeed in managerial roles.

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Organizational Behavior 17th Edition by

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Chapter 1: What Is Organizational Behavior?

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Q1) While sociology focuses on the individual, psychology studies people in relation to their social environment or culture.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) Which of the following is an example of a position in a service job?

A)human resource executive

B)administrative executive

C)flight attendant

D)environmental campaigner

E)production line worker

Answer: C

Q3) Compare and contrast the fields of psychology, social psychology, and sociology.

Answer: All three fields deal with human behavior.While psychology focuses on the individual, sociology studies people in relation to their social environment or culture.Social psychology blends concepts from both psychology and sociology, though it is generally considered a branch of psychology.It focuses on people's influence on one another.Thus, it could be said that social psychology falls between the extremes of the individual focus of psychology and the large group focus of sociology.

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Chapter 2: Diversity in Organizations

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Q1) What is the significance of "reasonable accommodations" for diversity management in workplaces?

Answer: With the passage of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)in 1990, the representation of individuals with disabilities in the U.S.workforce rapidly increased.According to the ADA, employers are required to make reasonable accommodations so their workplaces will be accessible to individuals with physical or mental disabilities.Some jobs obviously cannot be accommodated to some disabilities.For example, the law and common sense recognize that a blind person could not be a bus driver.However, the increasing presence of computer technology and other adaptive devices is shattering many traditional barriers to employment, making it easier for the disabled to enter the workforce.

Q2) Which of the following refers to a kind of discrimination that refers to overt threats or bullying directed at members of specific groups of employees?

A)intimidation

B)impact bias

C)inequity aversion

D)framing effect

E)benefaction

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Attitudes and Job Satisfaction

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Q1) Which of the following is most likely to be related to reduced absences and lower resignation rates?

A)high job involvement

B)high cognitive dissonance

C)low psychological empowerment

D)low organizational commitment

E)high emotional contagion

Answer: A

Q2) Any incompatibility between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes results in ________.

A)organizational dissonance

B)cognitive dissonance

C)attitudinal clarification

D)positivity offset

E)affective reactance

Answer: B

Q3) "Exit" is a passive and constructive response to dissatisfaction.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 4: Emotions and Moods

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Q1) Sally works as a customer care executive at a telecom office in Ohio. She often needs to interact with a regular customer and she finds him extremely annoying. However, because of the nature of her work, she conceals her emotions well and politely talks to him and clarifies all his questions. Which of the following is being experienced by Sally?

A)illusory correlation

B)emotional dissonance

C)positive affect

D)emotional selection

E)positivity offset

Q2) ________ are caused by a specific event, are very brief, and are accompanied by distinct facial expressions.

A)Emotions

B)Perceptions

C)Attitudes

D)Moods

E)Reactions

Q3) How can managers influence moods? Explain.

Q4) Discuss the affective events theory.

Q5) What impact do social activities have on one's moods?

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Chapter 5: Personality and Values

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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about people with positive core self-evaluations?

A)They are committed to their goals and set ambitious goals.

B)They view themselves as powerless over their environment.

C)They tend to question their capabilities and capacities.

D)They lack persistence to achieve goals.

E)They tend to be disliked by superiors and co-workers.

Q2) Research suggests that personality traits better predict behavior in weak situations than in strong ones.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What does the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classification of "E or I" stand for?

A)enthusiastic/ingenious

B)emotional/impulsive

C)extraverted/introverted

D)emotive/illustrative

E)empathetic/innovative

Q4) Discuss with examples terminal values and instrumental values as identified by the Rokeach Value Survey.

Q5) Briefly describe the five key traits in the Big Five model.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Perception and Individual Decision Making

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Q1) ________ bias indicates the tendency of an individual to attribute his or her own successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors.

A)Status quo

B)Self-serving

C)Distinction

D)Congruence

E)Anchoring

Q2) ________ refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence it's wrong.

A)Escalation of commitment

B)Fundamental attribution error

C)Randomness error

D)Risk aversion

E)Availability bias

Q3) Women are more likely than men to overanalyze problems before making a decision and to rehash a decision once made.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Explain the effect of gender on decision making.

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Chapter 7: Motivation Concepts

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Q1) Self-determination theory proposes that in addition to being driven by a need for autonomy, people seek ways to achieve ________.

A)competence and positive connections

B)high rewards

C)recognition and status

D)career growth

E)power and control

Q2) To get the best results while using reinforcement theory, rewards should be ________.

A)small and given only once

B)large and given at irregular intervals

C)given prior to the desired behavior response

D)given immediately following the desired behavior

E)presented publicly with a large number of witnesses

Q3) Underpayment and overpayment, according to equity theory, tend to produce similar reactions to correct the inequities.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Discuss distributive justice, procedural justice, and interpersonal justice.

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Chapter 8: Motivation: From Concepts to Applications

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Q1) The major advantage of flextime is that it can be used for all categories of jobs.

A)True

B)False

Q2) An MNC in a developing country is operating amidst severe space constraints, and the infrastructural conditions in the city are bad, causing a lot of lost man-hours. Anticipating rapid growth in the months to come, the company has created a recruitment plan based on its revenue expectations. However, it wants to manage this expansion without undertaking an expensive physical expansion. Which of the following could be a solution for the company?

A)profit sharing

B)groupshifting

C)telecommuting

D)gainsharing

E)codetermining

Q3) Compare and contrast the benefits of intrinsic rewards, such as recognition, and extrinsic rewards, such as pay, as forms of motivation.

Q4) What are the various dimensions of the job characteristics model?

Q5) Differentiate between bonuses and gainsharing plans.

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Chapter 9: Foundations of Group Behavior

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Q1) Tabby Tolman is a project coordinator at Tristar Solutions. Whenever a new project comes her way, she holds a project meeting and follows it up with repeated meetings to address any concerns the team members may have and to monitor their progress. However, with the peak of the business season arriving, she has been holding just one project initiation meeting for every project to save on time. She has become increasingly worried about the team's progress with no inputs coming from the members, and she has had no time to check with them. With two weeks left to go for a high priority project of a month's duration, she has now begun to see some work coming through and is relieved. This development reflects that the group is at the stage of ________.

A)forming

B)inertia following the first meeting

C)second phase of inertia before the group's last meeting

D)storming

E)transition following the halfway mark in the timeline

Q2) How can norms be used to reduce deviant workplace behavior?

Q3) Describe the punctuated-equilibrium model.

Q4) A company's dress code policy comes under the performance norms.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Understanding Work Teams

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Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding a culturally diverse team?

A)Elements of diversity do not interfere with team processes.

B)Culturally homogeneous teams have more difficulty learning to work with each other and solving problems than culturally heterogeneous teams.

C)Generally, newly formed culturally diverse teams underperform as compared to newly formed culturally homogeneous teams.

D)Cultural diversity within a team is not advisable for those tasks that call for a variety of viewpoints.

E)Culturally diverse teams are more affected by surface-level diversity than by deep-level diversity.

Q2) Which of the following is most likely to increase team efficacy?

A)providing vast and generic goals

B)helping the team achieve small successes

C)creating a team such that it has diverse members

D)ensuring that team goals are substantially difficult

E)reducing the number of members on a team drastically

Q3) The team effectiveness model identifies three categories of key components making up effective teams. What are these three categories? Give examples of each category.

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Chapter 11: Communication

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Q1) Low-context cultures primarily rely on ________ in communicating with others.

A)formal titles

B)spoken and written words

C)situational cues

D)status differences

E)nonverbal cues

Q2) Describe and discuss specific problems related to cross-cultural communication. Include cultural barriers and cultural context.

Q3) Describe the various forms of nonverbal communication.

Q4) Which of the following is a disadvantage of downward communication?

A)communication apprehension

B)inferiority complex

C)inability to convey feedback

D)one-way nature

E)fear of authority chain

Q5) Social networking is not tool for prospective employees, hiring managers, employees, and human resource divisions.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Leadership

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Q1) Transformational leaders enhance performance of employees by ________.

A)restricting creativity among employees

B)focusing on short-term goals for employees

C)building consensus among employees

D)establishing goals, roles, and requirements

E)abdicating all responsibility to employees

Q2) According to the attribution theory of leadership, a person aiming to be a leader has to ________.

A)gain sufficient experience to be a leader

B)possess qualities like charisma and intelligence

C)make changes on ground before leading people

D)possess many significant actual accomplishments

E)shape the perception that he or she could be a leader

Q3) Which of the following is a neutralizer of leadership?

A)indifference to rewards

B)experience and training

C)explicit formalized rules

D)cohesive work groups

E)highly structured task

Q4) How do substitutes and neutralizers challenge the effectiveness of leadership?

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Chapter 13: Power and Politics

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Q1) The two general groupings into which power may be categorized are ________.

A)informational and personal

B)formal and informal

C)informal and legitimate

D)formal and personal

E)direct and indirect

Q2) Political behaviors usually ________.

A)lie outside of an individual's specified job requirements

B)are counterproductive to individual goals

C)are seen only in large organizations

D)are sanctioned by organizational leaders

E)are expected as part of each job requirement

Q3) Which of the following types of power is most likely to be negatively related to employee satisfaction and commitment?

A)expert power

B)reward power

C)legitimate power

D)coercive power

E)referent power

Q4) Contrast leadership and power.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Conflict and Negotiation

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Q1) Relationship conflicts are almost always dysfunctional.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following conflict management techniques involves designating a critic to purposely argue against the majority positions held by the group?

A)altering the structural variables

B)altering the human variable

C)bringing in outsiders

D)exercising authoritative command

E)appointing a devil's advocate

Q3) The two general approaches to negotiation are ________ bargaining and ________ bargaining.

A)emotional; rational

B)affective; reflective

C)distributive; integrative

D)formal; informal

E)legal; restrictive

Q4) What are the various causes of conflict?

Q5) What is BATNA? Discuss the significance of BATNA.

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Chapter 15: Foundations of Organization Structure

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Q1) Elena is the senior manager of a scientific operations team at a well-known clinical research organization. The organization delivers more than 4,000 solutions across more than 18 therapeutic areas. Being a perfectionist, Elena has reached her present position through hard work and dedication. Given that she has also worked effectively with teams in the past, she has recently been assigned to lead a team working on a new project which is critical to the company. Elena refuses to allocate any tasks to her team and decides to put in extra hours and weekends to complete the groundwork herself. Based on the information presented here, which of the following would best explain this contradiction?

A)Elena feels she will not be able to guide her team well on the project.

B)Elena is not very sociable with her colleagues.

C)Elena feels that by delegating work, she will complicate her working relationship with the team.

D)Elena feels that this project is vital to the team's success.

E)Elena is reluctant to delegate work as she lacks confidence in her team's abilities.

Q2) Explain the concept of the boundaryless organization and how boundaryless organizations are useful in breaking down cultural barriers in a global workplace.

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Chapter 16: Organizational Culture

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Q1) Apprenticeship and mentoring programs are examples of random socialization.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What are the characteristics of a spiritual organization?

Q3) A positive organizational culture emphasizes building on employee strengths, rewards more than it punishes, and emphasizes individual vitality and growth.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Identify the correct order of stages in the socialization process.

A)encounter, metamorphosis, post-encounter

B)prearrival, arrival, evaluation

C)prearrival, arrival, post-arrival

D)prearrival, encounter, metamorphosis

E)metamorphosis, preencounter, arrival

Q5) Top management has a major impact on the organization's culture by ________.

A)establishing norms that filter down through the organization

B)ensuring a proper match of personal and organizational values

C)socializing new applicants in the pre-hiring phase

D)providing a framework for metamorphosis of new hires

E)properly rewarding employees' initiatives

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Human Resource Policies and Practices

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Q1) Between the late 1960s and the mid-1980s, the use of written tests declined because they were characterized as ________.

A)unprofessional

B)discriminatory

C)unreliable

D)invalid

E)mathematically flawed

Q2) Which performance evaluation method requires no complex forms or extensive training to complete?

A)written essays

B)critical incidents

C)graphic rating scales

D)behaviorally anchored rating scales

E)assessment center rating

Q3) Provide some suggestions for improving performance evaluations.

Q4) Briefly explain any three types of written tests that are typically used in the employee selection process.

Q5) Define initial selection and identify the devices used during the initial selection stage.

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Chapter 18: Organizational Change and Stress Management

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Q1) Which of the following is one of the three steps in the Lewin's three-step change model?

A)analysis

B)movement

C)evaluation

D)dreaming

E)designing

Q2) Which of the following types of jobs is least likely to create stress and reduce satisfaction?

A)jobs that make multiple and conflicting demands

B)jobs that provide a high level of feedback

C)jobs that lack clarity about the employee's duties

D)jobs that provide the employees less control over the pace of their work

E)jobs that provide a low level of variety

Q3) Define change agent and describe where change is most likely to come from. Compare who is most likely to be an agent of change and who is most likely to resist change. Explain your answer.

Q4) Short tenure in management is associated with innovation.

A)True

B)False

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