Principles of Human Anatomy
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Principles of Human Anatomy explores the fundamental concepts of human anatomical structure and function. This course covers the major organ systems, including musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, nervous, respiratory, digestive, urinary, reproductive, and integumentary systems. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and visual aids, students learn the organization of the human body from the cellular to the system level, emphasizing the relationships between structure and physiological processes. Critical thinking and practical skills are developed through anatomical terminology, dissection, and analysis of human models, providing a solid foundation for advanced study in health and biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 5th Edition by Elaine
N. Marieb
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26 Chapters
3257 Verified Questions
3257 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Steve was injured in a football accident. X-ray examination showed a fracture underlying his left brachial deformity. What part of his body was injured?
Answer: His left upper arm
Q2) Why are the abdominopelvic cavity organs the most vulnerable to blunt deceleration in an automobile accident with seat belts?
Answer: The walls of the abdominal cavity are formed only by trunk muscles and are not reinforced by bone. The pelvic organs receive a somewhat greater degree of protection from the bony pelvis.
Q3) Sara is giving birth to her first child. She is concerned that her labor is taking longer than she thought it would. Why does giving birth usually take time for the contractions to proceed to the point when the child is born?
Answer: Childbirth is based on the increasing levels of oxytocin that cause the uterine contractions. Under positive feedback, oxytocin levels increase which results in increasing strong contractions by the upper uterus that will ultimately result in the birth of the child. But this positive feedback needs numerous contraction cycles to overcome the muscular resistance to stretching in the lower uterus in order for the head to pass.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the difference between potential and kinetic energy.
Answer: Potential energy is inactive stored energy that has potential to do work. Kinetic energy is energy in action.
Q2) Which statement about enzymes is False?
A) Enzymes require contact with substrate in order to assume their active form.
B) Enzymes have the ability to accelerate reactions as much as a billion-fold.
C) Enzymes may use coenzymes derived from vitamins or cofactors from metallic elements.
D) Enzymes may be damaged by high temperature.
Answer: A
Q3) About 60% to 80% of the volume of most living cells consists of organic compounds.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) How can phospholipids form a film when mixed in water?
Answer: Phospholipids have both polar and nonpolar ends. The polar end interacts with water, leaving the nonpolar end oriented in the opposite direction.
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4
Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which stage of mitosis do the identical sets of chromosomes uncoil and resume their chromatin form?
A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
Answer: D
Q2) What processes maintain a steady state "resting" membrane potential?
Answer: Both diffusion and active transport mechanisms operate within the cell membrane to maintain a resting membrane potential.
Q3) A red blood cell placed in pure water would ________.
A) shrink
B) swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached
C) neither shrink nor swell
D) swell and burst
Answer: D
Q4) Provides the energy needed for synthesis reactions.
Answer: D
Q5) Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disintegrate.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium ciliated variety ________.
A) lines most of the respiratory tract
B) aids in digestion
C) possesses no goblet cells
D) is not an epithelial classification
Q2) Cartilage has good regenerative capacity, while most epithelial tissues do not.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Provides tensile strength with the ability to absorb compressive shock.
Q4) ________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane.
A) Stratified cuboidal
B) Stratified columnar
C) Transitional
D) Pseudostratified columnar
Q5) Found lining the digestive and respiratory tracts.
Q6) Cardiac muscle.
Q7) Explain why an open wound would need a bed of granulation tissue for wound healing to occur.
Q8) Explain what is meant by epithelial tissue being avascular but innervated.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Waldorf family was caught in a fire but escaped. Unfortunately, the father and daughter suffered burns. The father had second-degree burns on his entire chest, abdomen, and both arms, and third-degree burns on his entire left lower extremity. The daughter suffered first-degree burns on her whole head and neck and second-degree burns throughout both lower extremities.
a. What percentage of the father's body was covered by burns?
b. What percentage of the daughter's body received first-degree burns?
c. What part of the daughter's body has both the dermis and epidermis involved?
d. The father experiences a good deal of pain in the area of the chest and abdomen, but little pain in the leg. Why?
Q2) Ceruminous glands are modified merocrine glands.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Robert, a surfer, has a mole that has changed its shape and size. His doctor, applying the ABCD(E) rule, diagnosed a melanoma. What do the letters ABCD(E) represent?
Q4) Why is skin not considered an absolute heat barrier for the body?
Q5) Billions of consumer dollars are spent for deodorants and antiperspirants each year. Explain the production of body odors frequently associated with axillary skin.
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cartilage has a flexible matrix that can accommodate mitosis of chondrocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cranial bones develop ________.
A) from cartilage models
B) within fibrous membranes
C) from a tendon
D) within osseous membranes
Q3) Johnny fractured the lower third of his right tibia in a skiing accident. The soft tissues in the area were severely damaged and their surgical removal was necessary. After prolonged immobilization, it was found that Johnny was healing very poorly. The explanation offered by the orthopedic surgeon was that vascularization of the fracture site was still inadequate and good healing was absolutely dependent upon an adequate blood supply. Describe how a long bone receives its blood supply and trace the path of nutrient delivery to the osteocytes.
Q4) Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________.
A) fat
B) blood-forming cells
C) elastic tissue
D) Sharpey's fibers
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest and strongest bone of the face is the maxilla.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Occipitomastoid suture.
Q3) Lordosis affects the thoracic vertebrae.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The pituitary gland is housed in a saddlelike depression in the temporal bone called the sella turcica.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The term vertebrochondral ribs refers to ribs that attach to each other before they attach to the sternum.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The hyoid bone is unique because it ________.
A) is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone
B) is composed of three bones joined together
C) is the only bone formed by the fusion of right and left halves
D) is the only irregular bone found in the neck
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are epiphyseal plates considered temporary joints?
Q2) Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to keeping the articular surfaces of diarthroses in contact?
A) structure and shape of the articulating bone
B) arrangement and tension of the muscles
C) strength and tension of joint ligaments
D) number of bones in the joint
Q3) What are menisci?
A) cavities lined with cartilage
B) small sacs containing synovial fluid
C) semilunar cartilage pads
D) tendon sheaths
Q4) After reading a medical report, you learn that a 45-year-old female has the following symptoms: inflammation of synovial membranes, accumulation of synovial fluid, pain and tenderness about the joints, pannus formation, and some immobility at certain joints. On the basis of these symptoms, what would the patient probably have?
Q5) Often people who exercise prudently seem to have fewer bouts with osteoarthritis. Will exercise prevent arthritis? If so, how?
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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thicker filaments are the ________ filaments.
Q2) Which of the following statements is False or incorrect?
A) Cardiac muscle contracts when stimulated by its own autorhythmic muscle cells.
B) Under normal resting conditions, cardiac muscle tissue contracts and relaxes about 75 times per minute.
C) Cardiac muscle fibers depend mostly on anaerobic cellular respiration to generate ATP.
D) Cardiac muscle fibers can use lactic acid to make ATP.
Q3) In the synaptic cleft of a neuromuscular junction, an enzyme called ________ is always present.
Q4) Lynn has been waking up each night with intense pain in her calves. She does not feel that it is serious enough to seek medical attention but would like to know what is causing the pain. What would you tell her concerning this problem? She has been playing tennis all summer for several hours each day. Could this have anything to do with the night pain?
Q5) Abundant in muscles used to maintain posture.
Q6) How do the three muscle types respond to being stretched?
Q7) 25 meter swim
Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the components of a lever system? Describe the role of each component.
Q2) Levator scapulae.
Q3) An elderly woman, with extensive osteoarthritis of her left hip joint, entered the hospital to have a total hip joint replacement (prosthesis implantation). After surgery, her left hip had to be maintained in abduction to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis while healing was occurring. Physical therapy was prescribed to prevent atrophy of the adductor muscles during the interval of disuse. Name the adductor muscles and describe the action of each that was being prevented while the hip was adducted.
Q4) Sternocleidomastoid
Q5) How does an antagonist differ from a prime mover? How is it the same?
Q6) The ________ extends the great toe.
Q7) In order to propel food down to the esophagus, the pharyngeal constrictor muscles are used.
A)True B)False
Q8) How can a lever system work at a disadvantage but still be of use to us?
Q9) A pair of tweezers is a good example of a second-class lever.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ________.
A) a change in sodium ion permeability
B) hyperpolarization
C) opening of voltage-regulated channels
D) lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur
Q2) Myelination of the nerve fibers in the central nervous system is the job of the oligodendrocyte.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some neurotransmitters can be either excitatory or inhibitory depending upon the receptor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What function is served by the increased axon diameter at the nodes of Ranvier?
Q5) If bacteria invaded the CNS tissue, microglia would migrate to the area to engulf and destroy them.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What symptoms would a nurse focus on in his or her care of a patient with multiple sclerosis? Page 13
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Page 14
Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nuclei relating to the startle reflex are located in the corpora quadrigemina of the midbrain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Anchors the spinal cord in place
Q3) Arachnoid villi are valvelike structures that protrude externally through the ________ mater to absorb cerebrospinal fluid into venous blood.
Q4) The arbor vitae refers to ________.
A) cerebellar gray matter
B) cerebellar white matter
C) the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum
D) flocculonodular nodes
Q5) Somatic motor cortex.
Q6) Describe the role of the reticular activating system in cortical arousal and stimulation.
Q7) Theta and delta waves begin to appear.
Q8) Gateway to the cerebrum
Q9) Site of efferent soma.
Q10) What is the limbic system?
Page 15
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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Helps to regulate blood pressure and digestion.
Q2) Houses the spiral organ (of Corti.)
Q3) A major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the ________.
A) femoral
B) iliohypogastric
C) sciatic
D) ilioinguinal
Q4) Define tendon organs and muscle spindles relative to the stretch reflex.
Q5) Bitter taste is elicited by ________.
A) hydrogen ions
B) alkaloids
C) acids
D) metal ions
Q6) Roger went for his yearly eye examination and was informed that his intraocular pressure was slightly elevated (at 22 mm Hg). The physician expressed concern over this condition and noted that if the condition got worse, eye drops would be merited. What is wrong with Roger's eyes, and what are the possible consequences of this condition? Explain the function of eye drops used for therapy.
Page 16
Q7) The ________ nuclei are in the visual pathway and mediate the pupillary light reflexes.
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Page 17
Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autonomic ganglia are motor ganglia only.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ________ division alone adapts the lens of the eye for close vision.
Q3) The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________.
A) parasympathetic division
B) sympathetic division
C) somatic division
D) peripheral nervous system
Q4) The two cholinergic receptor types are nicotonic and ________.
Q5) Events recorded in a lie detector examination are controlled by the sympathetic division.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Because parasympathetic fibers never run in spinal nerves, rami communicantes are associated only with the sympathetic division.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Cell body of ANS postganglionic neuron.
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Chapter 15: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acromegaly and gigantism are the result of ________ of growth hormone.
Q2) Enteroendocrine cells of the GI tract produce some hormones that are chemically identical to neurotransmitters.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________.
A) synthesizing more than one hormone at a time
B) increasing the basal metabolic rate in the target organ
C) altering gene expression in the nuclear DNA
D) binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP
Q4) Hypersecretion of growth hormone after epiphyseal plate closure can result in a condition called ________.
Q5) Aldosterone production
Q6) Why should the hypothalamus instead of the adenohypophysis be called the "master endocrine gland"?
Q7) Produces hormones and is considered a neuroendocrine organ.
Q8) Produces glucocorticoids.
Q9) Why would one not expect to continue increasing in height with age?
Page 19
Q10) Compare the structure and function of endocrine and exocrine glands.
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is True about blood plasma?
A) It is the same as serum but without the clotting proteins.
B) The main protein component is hemoglobin.
C) It is about 90% water.
D) It contains about 20 dissolved components.
Q2) What determines whether blood is bright red or a dull, dark red?
Q3) Type O.
Q4) A(n) ________ is a committed granular leukocyte stem cell that produces neutrophils.
Q5) Leukopenia is an abnormally low number of leukocytes.
A)True B)False
Q6) A 17-year-old black male is admitted to the hospital in sickle-cell crisis. Pain management is a top priority for patients in sickle-cell crisis. Explain why.
Q7) Leukocytes move through the circulatory system by amoeboid motion.
A)True B)False
Q8) ________ is the stage of development in the life of an erythrocyte during which the nucleus is ejected.
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Chapter 17: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it ________.
A) pumps a greater volume of blood
B) pumps blood against a greater resistance
C) expands the thoracic cage
D) sends blood through a smaller valve
Q2) The inner lining of the heart.
Q3) A condition of rapid and irregular or out-of-phase contraction of heart muscle cells.
Q4) Heart murmurs or rubs are considered to be ________ sounds.
Q5) The second heart sound is heard during which phase of the cardiac cycle?
A) isovolumetric relaxation
B) isovolumetric contraction
C) ventricular ejection
D) ventricular filling
Q6) If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that ________.
A) the heart would stop, since the vagal nerves trigger the heart to contract
B) the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute
C) the AV node would become the pacemaker of the heart
D) parasympathetic stimulation would increase, causing a decrease in heart rate
Page 21
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Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pancreas is an example of an organ with arteries that do not anastomose.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Supplies a lower limb.
Q3) Select the correct statement about blood flow.
A) It is relatively constant through all body organs.
B) It is measured in mm Hg.
C) It is greatest where resistance is highest.
D) Blood flow through the entire vascular system is equivalent to cardiac output.
Q4) The adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements at any point in time is termed autoregulation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which statement best describes arteries?
A) All carry oxygenated blood to the heart.
B) All carry blood away from the heart.
C) All contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood.
D) Only large arteries are lined with endothelium.
Q6) Supplies the distal areas of the large intestine.
Page 22
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Chapter 19: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digested fats are absorbed from the intestine by the lymph capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A mother takes her son to the doctor and describes the following symptoms that she has observed. The child is running a fever, has flu-like symptoms, and his lymph glands are very swollen and sore to the touch. Of what significance are the swollen and sore lymph glands?
Q3) How does the lymphatic system both help and hinder the spread of cancer through the body?
Q4) Functions of the spleen include all of those below except ________.
A) removal of old or defective blood cells from the blood
B) forming crypts that trap bacteria
C) storage of blood platelets
D) storage of iron
Q5) Splenic ________ pulp is primarily concerned with immune functions of the spleen.
Q6) A woman had a mastectomy that included the removal of axillary lymph nodes on her left side. What does she risk regarding her left arm and why?
Page 23
Q7) Explain the term MALT. What is its function?
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Chapter 20: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Involved in allergies.
A)IgM
B)IgG
C)IgA
D)IgD
E)IgE
Q2) Area where antigen challenge and clonal selection are most likely to occur.
Q3) Phagocyte mobilization involves ________.
A) diapedesis, during which cells line up against the capillary wall
B) margination, which is the process of white cell movement through the walls of capillaries into injured tissues
C) mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas
D) monocytes as the most active phagocyte
Q4) The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by
A) vasodilation
B) vasoconstriction
C) phagocyte mobilization
D) complement production
Q5) Area where activated immunocompetent B and T cells recirculate.
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Chapter 21: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) While having a physical examination, a young male informed his doctor that at age 8 he had lobar pneumonia and pleurisy in his left lung. The physician decided to measure his VC. Describe the apparatus and method used for taking this measurement. Define the following terms used in the description of lung volumes: TV, IRV, ERV, RV, and VC.
Q2) After a long scuba diving session on a Caribbean reef, Carl boards a plane to Dallas. He begins to feel pain in his elbow on the flight back to Dallas. What is happening to him?
Q3) Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________.
A) humidifying the air before it enters
B) warming the air before it enters
C) interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
D) protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations
Q4) The relationship between gas pressure and gas volume is described by ________.
A) Boyle's law
B) Henry's law
C) Charles' law
D) Dalton's law
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25
Chapter 22: The Digestive System
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Q1) When swallowing, the epiglottis prevents food from entering the larynx.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Name two regions of the digestive tract where mechanical food breakdown processes are very important. Name two organs that are primarily food conduits. Name the organ where protein digestion is begun. Name the organ where fat digestion begins.
Q3) The pharyngeal-esophageal phase of swallowing is involuntary and is controlled by the swallowing center in the thalamus and lower pons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Increases output of enzymatic-rich pancreatic juice.
Q5) Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile.
A) Bile is both an excretory product and a digestive secretion.
B) Bile functions to emulsify fats.
C) Bile functions to carry bilirubin formed from breakdown of worn-out RBCs.
D) Bile contains enzymes for digestion.
Q6) Increases output of pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate ions.
Q7) The protective outermost layer of the esophagus is the ________.
Q8) Paneth cells are found here.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition, Metabolism, and Body Temperature Regulation
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Q1) Synthesis of lipids from glucose or amino acids.
Q2) High levels of HDLs are considered good.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Involves the use of oxygen to pick up excess hydrogen and electrons.
Q4) The term basal metabolic rate reflects the ________.
A) energy the body needs to perform only its most essential activities
B) loss of organic molecules in urine
C) energy needed to make all organic molecules
D) loss of energy to perspiration
Q5) Heat-loss mechanisms do not include ________.
A) reducing activity
B) the evaporation of sweat
C) behavior measures such as wearing light, loose clothing
D) vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels
Q6) ATP formed by oxidative phosphorylation.
Q7) Harry is hospitalized with bacterial pneumonia. When you visit him, his teeth are chattering, his skin is cool and clammy to the touch, and he complains of feeling cold, even though the room is quite warm. Explain his symptoms.
Q8) Low body temperature due to excessive cold is called ________. Page 27
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Chapter 24: The Urinary System
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Q1) Which of the choices below is the least important role of tubular secretion?
A) disposing of substances not already in the filtrate, such as certain drugs
B) eliminating undesirable substances such as urea and uric acid that have been reabsorbed by passive processes
C) ridding the body of bicarbonate ions
D) ridding the body of excessive potassium ions
Q2) An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to a(n) ________.
A) decrease in the production of ADH
B) increase in the production of ADH
C) increase in the production of aldosterone
D) decrease in the concentration of the blood plasma
Q3) The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the ________.
A) nephron loop
B) glomerular filtration membrane
C) collecting duct
D) distal convoluted tubule
Q4) May form meandering vessels or bundles of long straight vessels.
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Chapter 25: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) A 13-year-old girl is admitted to the psychiatric unit for anorexia. Her body weight is 89 lbs. and height is 64 inches. She admits to frequent self-induced vomiting and abuse of laxatives. She was treated on the medical unit with intravenous fluids. Now that she is on the psychiatric unit she is experiencing fluid retention as evidenced by mild puffiness and bloating. Explain these symptoms.
Q2) Possibly caused by vomiting, use of diuretics, or use of antacids
Q3) Which of the following hormones is important in stimulating water conservation in the kidneys?
A) aldosterone
B) progesterone
C) antidiuretic hormone
D) atrial natriuretic peptide
Q4) A patient is 72 years old and was admitted to the hospital for severe shortness of breath and edema to her lower extremities. She was diagnosed with heart failure. A symptom of heart failure is generalized edema. Explain the finding of generalized edema in heart failure.
Q5) A pregnant woman complains to her doctor that her ankles and feet stay swollen all of the time. She is very worried about this. As her doctor, what would you tell her?
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Chapter 26: The Reproductive System
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32981
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the choices below is not a part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis?
A) hypothalamus
B) anterior pituitary gland
C) thalamus
D) interstitial cells
Q2) Which of the following statements about spermatogenesis is not True?
A) The spermatogonium forms the primary spermatocyte.
B) The primary spermatocyte forms two secondary spermatocytes.
C) The secondary spermatocytes each form two spermatids.
D) Each spermatid forms two sperm.
Q3) Human egg and sperm are similar in that ________.
A) about the same number of each is produced per month
B) they have the same degree of motility
C) they have the same number of chromosomes
D) they are about the same size
Q4) Area of compacted DNA.
Q5) Both tetrads and crossovers are seen during meiosis.
A)True
B)False
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