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Principles of Health explores the foundational concepts essential for understanding individual and community health. This course examines core topics such as wellness and prevention, the determinants of health, personal health behaviors, healthcare systems, nutrition, physical activity, mental health, and environmental influences on health. Students will learn to analyze how social, economic, and cultural factors impact well-being and disease, as well as evaluate strategies for promoting healthy lifestyles and preventing illness. Through case studies and practical examples, the course aims to equip students with the knowledge and skills necessary to make informed decisions about health and contribute to positive health outcomes in their communities.
Recommended Textbook
Connect Core Concepts in Health BIG 15th Edition by Paul M. Insel
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Q1) Prior to the twentieth century,a person was most likely to die of a chronic disease.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Those with an internal locus of control believe that events turn out as they do based on
A)fate or luck.
B)heredity.
C)their family's status.
D)their own actions.
Answer: D
Q3) Entries made into a health journal about a behavior should always note all of the following EXCEPT
A)how you feel at the time the behavior occurs.
B)what the activity is when you perform the behavior.
C)when and where the behavior happens.
D)when you anticipate the behavior next occurring.
Answer: D
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Q1) Which one of the following character traits is most closely associated with elevated risk of cardiovascular disease?
A)hostility
B)excitability
C)lack of purpose
D)depression
Answer: A
Q2) If an individual perceives that he or she cannot cope with a situation,that situation will most likely produce a stress response.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) General exhaustion results when
A)the fight-or-flight reaction is resolved.
B)stress-related hormones are secreted.
C)distress occurs.
D)a stressor persists over a long period.
Answer: D
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Q1) A technique that may aid in fighting demoralization is A)assuming the worst.
B)keeping a journal of self-talk.
C)overgeneralizing.
D)using defense mechanisms.
Answer: B
Q2) Self-harm is usually a simple act to get attention and is not serious.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder include A)loss of memory.
B)re-experiencing the trauma in dreams.
C)aggressive attempts to relive the trauma.
D)uncontrollable fear of humiliation.
Answer: B
Q4) The only way to solve a mental health problem is to seek professional help. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) It is possible to work on unresolved,past issues within an adult relationship.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Tone of voice is the most accurate conveyer of a person's emotional state.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If Jake begins to spend too much time with his friends,what must he come to understand about a committed relationship if he wants it to work?
A)that taking breaks from each other is not incompatible with a having a committed relationship
B)that Sally must learn to accept that his lifestyle is part of his personality
C)that a successful relationship will require him to give up some autonomy
D)that Sally should be encouraged to spend more time with her friends
Q4) Blended family is another term for stepfamily.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Intense passion is required for love to endure.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Rhythmic contractions of the male and female reproductive structures occur during the _______________ phase.
A)excitement
B)plateau
C)orgasmic
D)resolution
Q2) Testosterone is produced by which male organ(s)?
A)Cowper's gland
B)penis
C)seminal vesicles
D)testes
Q3) Describe some of the benefits and potential problems with the wide availability of sexually-oriented websites and cybersex.
Q4) The prostate gland
A)has no known function in male reproduction.
B)produces part of the seminal fluid.
C)secretes a preejaculatory fluid to neutralize the sperm passageway.
D)is the site of sperm production.
Q5) Name and describe the four phases of the human sexual response cycle.
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Q1) When a woman is using an oral contraceptive,she needs to be aware of potential danger signals.Identify the danger signals that can be remembered by the word ACHES.
Q2) One advantage of a cervical cap over a diaphragm is that it
A)does not require being fitted by a health care provider.
B)can be used by women with recurrent urinary tract infections.
C)may be left in place for up to one week.
D)provides more protection against HIV infection.
Q3) A woman is usually advised to start the first cycle of oral contraceptive pills with a menstrual period.Full effectiveness of oral contraceptives is then established
A)after the first pill is taken.
B)after one week of use.
C)after one month of use.
D)after three months of use.
Q4) The U.S.rate of teen pregnancy is much lower than the rate in other developed countries.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What have studies shown to be the most measurable effect on women who were denied an abortion and went on to have a child?
A)The majority of them gave up their child for adoption.
B)They were more likely to fall into poverty than those women who had abortions.
C)The majority of them became child abusers.
D)They were more likely to have high self-esteem than those woman who had abortions.
Q2) The attitudes and beliefs of the medical community in each country influence the local availability of abortion services.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Identify and describe the most common method of abortion used in the United States during the second trimester of pregnancy.How is it performed?
Q4) U.S.public opinion about abortion has shifted drastically in the last forty years.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe the recent legal history of abortion in the United States.
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Q1) When a fertilized ovum becomes implanted at a site other than the uterus,the resulting condition is known as a(n)_______________ pregnancy.
A)ectopic
B)aborted
C)gestational
D)peritoneal
Q2) Explain the concept of preconception care,and briefly describe five questions,tests,or treatments that a woman may encounter during preconception care.
Q3) People from which of the following ethnic groups have a heightened risk of developing hemochromatosis (iron overload)?
A)African
B)Asian
C)Irish
D)Moroccan
Q4) Freezing embryos is common in assisted reproduction technology because multiple eggs are usually harvested and fertilized during IVF.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The typical primary effects of central nervous system depressants include all of the following EXCEPT
A)speech slurring.
B)increased anxiety.
C)drowsiness.
D)reduced muscular coordination.
Q2) The placebo effect is related to user expectations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The American Psychiatric Association now believes that there is a clear distinction between addicts and non-addicts or those dependent on a drug.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following stimulants is used in the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder?
A)cocaine
B)crystal methamphetamine
C)Ritalin
D)ephedrine
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Q1) You come upon a friend who has been drinking heavily and appears to be "sleeping it off." Describe in detail what steps you should take to keep your friend safe.In addition,list at least three factors that would indicate that your friend might need immediate medical assistance.
Q2) Drinking caffeinated alcoholic beverages can lower the risk of being involved in an alcohol-related traffic fatality.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Newer research has shown that
A)there is no definitive evidence that drinking any amount of alcohol at any age has any health benefits.
B)women over age 65 who drink light amounts of alcohol saw some blood- and heart-related health benefits.
C)light drinkers in their 20s and 30s may live slightly longer than nondrinkers and heavy drinkers.
D)there is definitive evidence that light drinking can reduce the risk of a heart attack.
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Q1) Some groups have suggested that films that show tobacco use should be given an R rating.Do you agree or disagree? Explain your reasoning.
Q2) Which of the following is a good way to quit smoking?
A)Try to ignore patterns in your smoking routine.
B)Punish yourself when you relapse.
C)Don't tell friends you're quitting until you prove you can do it.
D)Chew sugarless gum or healthy snacks.
Q3) Exercise can be stressful and distracts from efforts to stop smoking.
A)True
B)False
Q4) On average,how many minutes can a regular user of tobacco go between doses of nicotine before experiencing negative effects?
A)5
B)20
C)40
D)90
Q5) Cigars contain less nicotine than cigarettes do.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) All of the following are good sources of viscous types of fiber EXCEPT
A)fruit.
B)wheat bran.
C)legumes.
D)oats.
Q2) Fiber can help
A)prevent constipation by increasing fecal bulk.
B)reduce the risk of type 2 diabetes.
C)reduce the absorption of cholesterol.
D)do all of these.
Q3) How does the Healthy Mediterranean-Style Pattern of diet differ from the Healthy U.S.-Style Pattern?
A)It includes more processed soy products.
B)It includes more fruit and seafood.
C)It includes more whole grains.
D)It includes more dairy.
Q4) The recommended daily fat intake is 20-35 percent of total daily calories.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The five components of fitness that are most important to health are muscular endurance,muscular strength,flexibility,body composition,and skill attainment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a weight training program,a heavy weight and low number of repetitions builds muscular strength.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To improve muscular endurance,it is best to
A)use heavy resistance with few repetitions.
B)use medium resistance with a medium number of repetitions.
C)use light resistance with many repetitions.
D)do resistance exercises no more than 3 days per week.
Q4) Endurance training improves the function of the body's chemical systems.
A)True B)False
Q5) Endurance exercise provides protection against the negative effects of stress. A)True B)False
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Q1) Describe at least five components of a healthy lifestyle for weight management.You may include factors relating to diet and eating habits,activity levels,emotions,patterns of thinking,and coping strategies.
Q2) Which of the following is an appropriate use of food?
A)as an antidote for boredom
B)to alleviate loneliness
C)to fuel life's activities
D)as a pickup when fatigued
Q3) Which of the following patterns of eating is recommended for weight management?
A)eating one small meal per day
B)eating every three to four hours
C)eating three large meals per day with no snacks
D)eating one large meal in the evening
Q4) Describe the energy balance equation and how it relates to weight management.What parts of the equation are under individual control,and how can the equation be tipped in favor of weight loss and weight gain?
Q5) Regular physical activity is essential for maintaining weight loss.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Atherosclerosis is
A)sustained abnormally high blood pressure.
B)the heart's inability to maintain its regular pumping force.
C)the thickening of artery walls by plaque deposits.
D)severe chest pain caused by insufficient blood supply to the heart.
Q2) The two large veins through which oxygen-poor blood travels into the right atrium are called the
A)vena cava.
B)aorta.
C)pulmonary arteries.
D)pulmonary veins.
Q3) The aorta is the body's largest artery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most common type of heart valve disorder
A)is very likely to cause symptoms.
B)involves the mitral valve.
C)is treated with surgery in most cases.
D)usually reduces exercise ability.
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Q1) All of the following are sources of radiation EXCEPT A)hydrocarbons.
B)medical X-rays.
C)sunlight.
D)radon gas.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of melanoma?
A)occurs most commonly on the face
B)appears at the site of a preexisting mole
C)invades surrounding tissue
D)bleeds easily
Q3) Risk factors for breast cancer include all of the following EXCEPT A)genetic factors.
B)diet.
C)use of hormonal therapy.
D)early onset of menopause.
Q4) Which of the following is a good source of phytochemicals?
A)lean portion of beef
B)nonfat milk
C)halibut
D)broccoli
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Q1) Antibacterial soap has been proven to reduce the risk of infection better than regular soap.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most ulcers are caused by A)tick-borne rickettsias.
B)Helicobacter pylori infection.
C)overconsumption of spicy food.
D)high levels of stress.
Q3) Special growth stimulants released by helper T cells that stimulate the activation and proliferation of killer T cells and B cells are A)cytokines.
B)antibodies.
C)antigens.
D)histamines.
Q4) The most effective way of preventing the flu in the winter is by protecting your body from cold temperatures.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Infants with chlamydia infection
A)acquire the infection through contact with the pathogen in the birth canal during delivery.
B)are born with congenital deformities.
C)acquire the infection during the second trimester of pregnancy.
D)are at high risk for brain damage.
Q2) Doctors,clinics,and laboratories are legally required to report all diagnosed cases of AIDS to public health authorities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One highly contagious parasitic infection is
A)Candida albicans.
B)pubic lice.
C)Trichomoniasis.
D)condyloma.
Q4) Which of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is FALSE?
A)It can cause chronic pain.
B)It is the leading cause of infertility in young women.
C)It presents with easily diagnosed symptoms.
D)An infected woman's partners should also be treated.
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Q1) Which of the following is an acronym for a recently introduced type of vehicle that has a high fuel economy rating?
A)SUV
B)AQI
C)HEV
D)CFC
Q2) Contact with polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)has been linked to certain types of A)immune deficiencies.
B)dementia.
C)cancer.
D)birth defects.
Q3) Fibers from asbestos can lodge in the lungs and cause a condition called asbestosis,which inflames the lung and can lead to lung cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Danny is a freshman in college and is interested in becoming a "green consumer." List and describe at least five ways he can reduce the amount of potential garbage he produces.
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Q1) Marc has a fever for two days.Which of the following is likely to be Marc's best option for addressing this symptom?
A)treating it himself
B)visiting his physician
C)going to the emergency room
D)none of these
Q2) Herbal remedies are an example of which of the following domains of complementary and alternative medicine practice?
A)mind-body intervention
B)alternative medical systems
C)biologically based
D)energy therapy
Q3) Adverse drug effects due to mistakes in the prescription of drugs by doctors is especially prevalent in _______________,who typically take more medications.
A)children
B)young adults
C)older adults
D)infants
Q4) List and explain six guidelines for helping a person self-medicate safely.
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Q1) Which one of the following statements about sexual abuse of children is TRUE?
A)Most sexually abused children are between the ages of 8 and 12 when the abuse first occurs.
B)More boys are abused than girls.
C)Sexual abuse of children is rare in our society.
D)The degree of trauma that sexually abused children experience is consistent among most victims.
Q2) For every 4 feet that a straight ladder extends up a wall,the ladder base should be placed 1 foot away from the wall.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A factor in most fatal motorcycle crashes is
A)the time of day.
B)poor road conditions.
C)multiple collisions.
D)operator error.
Q4) List ten strategies for reducing the risk of motor vehicle injuries.
Q5) A substantial number of hate crimes are committed by males under age 20.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Older drivers usually have safer driving records compared with young adults because they tend to be more cautious;however,crashes in the older age group are more likely to be fatal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A scientist who studies phenomena associated with the aging process is a(n)
A)gerontologist.
B)geriatrician.
C)ageologist.
D)oncologist.
Q3) Which of the following statements about the retirement income of older Americans TRUE?
A)The majority of older Americans live with comfortable and expandable sources of income.
B)Social Security funds are distributed based only on the age of Americans.
C)Social Security is intended to supplement other income.
D)All of these statements are true.
Q4) Healthful lifestyles can extend the maximum human life span.
A)True
B)False

Page 24
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Q1) An example of physician-assisted suicide is
A)withdrawing life-sustaining treatment such as artificial respiration.
B)a doctor allowing a terminally-ill patient's condition to run its course.
C)a doctor providing lethal medication to a patient at the patient's request.
D)a lethal injection of medication administered by the state.
Q2) Which one of the following is NOT true of a hospice program?
A)It provides support for dying at home if that is the patient's wish.
B)Hospice care can be in a hospital,a freestanding facility,or at home.
C)It provides emotional support for the survivors.
D)It provides experimental medical treatments.
Q3) Describe the concept of brain death and how it is used.In addition,identify four components or observable facts concerning death that are part of a mature understanding of death.
Q4) What aspect of a burial process can be wildly expensive and sometimes involves an aggressive sales process by unscrupulous funeral homes?
A)the ceremony
B)the embalming process
C)the casket
D)the burial
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