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Principles of Geology Midterm Exam - 1618 Verified Questions

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Principles of Geology

Midterm Exam

Course Introduction

Principles of Geology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts and processes that shape the Earth. The course explores topics such as the structure of the Earths interior, the dynamics of plate tectonics, rock and mineral formation, weathering and erosion, geological time scales, and the interpretation of geological features. Through lectures, laboratory work, and field studies, students learn to analyze earth materials, understand natural hazards, and interpret past environments, giving them the tools to appreciate and evaluate the ever-changing planet.

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GEOL 2nd Edition by Reed Wicander

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18 Chapters

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Chapter 1: Understanding Earth: A Dynamic and Evolving Planet

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the scientific method?

Answer: The scientific method is an orderly,logical approach to understanding our world that involves gathering and analyzing data about a natural phenomenon,formulating hypotheses to explain the phenomenon,testing the hypotheses,which,if one survives,is put forth as a theory.

Q2) Why is overpopulation a geologic issue?

Answer: Additional people must be provided with food,water,clothing,and housing at a minimum.Obtaining these things puts a strain on the available resources,such as the soil needed to grow food.Since many of the desirable and safe areas of the planet are already developed,future development is more likely to be in locations that are at risk for natural disasters.More people also produce more wastes so pollutants must be dealt with.

Q3) Fossils are:

A)useful for reconstructing past environmental conditions.

B)evidence that evolution has occurred.

C)evidence that Earth has a long history predating humans.

D)the remains or traces of once-living organisms.

E)all of these

Answer: E

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Chapter 2: Plate Tectonics: A Unifying Theory

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Sample Questions

Q1) Radiometric dating shows that the oldest ocean crust is ____________________ years old and the oldest continental crust is ____________________ years old.

Answer: 180 million,3.96 billion

Q2) What is a method by which the present rate of motion between two plates can be measured accurately?

Answer: The travel of a laser beam can be timed from one plate to another by bouncing it from a satellite and by calculating the difference in arrival times of a quasar signal at two plates over a period of time.

Q3) Deviations from the average strength of Earth's present-day magnetic field are called ____________________.

Answer: magnetic anomalies

Q4) The northern supercontinent consisted of:

A)North America,Europe,Asia,India,and Greenland.

B)North America,Greenland,and Europe.

C)North America,Europe,Asia,and India.

D)North America,Greenland,Asia,and India.

E)North America,Europe,Asia,and Greenland.

Answer: E

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Chapter 3: Minerals: The Building Blocks of Rocks

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Sample Questions

Q1) Minerals of the amphibole group have their silica tetrahedra arranged in double chains.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) The number of neutrons in an atom always equals the number of protons.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) van der Waals bonds occur between atoms or compounds without free electrons. A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) How does a mineral reserve differ from a mineral resource?

Answer: A reserve is that part of a resource that can be extracted (mined)economically.

Q5) Why do most minerals,as measured by rock volume,belong to the silicate group?

Answer: Because oxygen and silicon are the two most abundant elements in the crust.

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Chapter 4: Igneous Rocks and Intrusive Igneous Activity

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Sample Questions

Q1) The process of assimilation partly explains why felsic intrusive rocks are much more common than mafic intrusive rocks.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What is a pluton?

Q3) What are aphanitic and phaneritic textures,and what do they say about the way the rock formed?

Q4) Why does Bowen's reaction series predict that mafic intrusive rocks should be much more common than felsic intrusive rocks?

Q5) Plutons form within the peaky structure of a volcano.

A)True

B)False

Q6) What is a mantle plume,and what causes one to erupt?

Q7) What does a glassy texture tell us about the history of an igneous rock?

Q8) The only minerals in the continuous branch of Bowen's reaction series are the

Q9) Batholiths are mostly emplaced by ____________________ ____________________ as magma moves upward into country rock.

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Q10) What phenomena does Bowen's reaction series help explain?

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Chapter 5: Volcanoes and Volcanism

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Q1) One indicator of an impending volcanic eruption that precedes all Hawaiian volcanic eruptions is a continuous ground motion called ____________________.

Q2) A nuée ardente is composed of fiery hot gases and dust.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Intermediate and felsic magmas usually arise where:

A)mafic magma mixes with felsic material.

B)volcanoes lie on continental margins inland of subduction zones.

C)plates diverge as spreading ridges form.

D)volcanoes lie above transform faults.

E)mafic magma mixes with felsic material AND volcanoes lie on continental margins inland of subduction zones.

Q4) Give an example of a caldera.

Q5) What other bodies in the solar system are thought to possess active volcanoes?

Q6) Would you rather be chased by a pahoehoe flow or an aa flow? Explain.

Q7) Why are some places (e.g. ,northern California)more likely to experience volcanic eruptions than others (e.g. ,New York)?

Q8) What is the difference between an active volcano and a dormant volcano?

Q9) How do columnar joints form?

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Chapter 6: Weathering, Soil, and Sedimentary Rocks

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are some ways in which fossils are useful?

Q2) The uranium used in nuclear reactors comes largely from precipitated deposits in rocks,such as black shale containing abundant organic matter.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Chemical weathering is most effective when conditions are warm and arid.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A vertical sequence of a(n)____________________ facies shows an offshore facies superposed on nearshore facies.

Q5) Clay particles are important to soil development because they allow water and gases to enter soil.

A)True

B)False

Q6) ____________________ ripple marks form in response to wind or water moving in one direction.

Q7) What are the two most common cements in sedimentary rocks?

Q8) What factors led to the development of the Dust Bowl during the 1930s in the United States?

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Chapter 7: Metamorphism and Metamorphic Rocks

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe metamorphism in an aureole.Draw and label a picture of metamorphism surrounding a granite pluton to show the zones that might surround an intrusion.

Q2) What are three possible sources of the water and other fluids that are active in metamorphism?

Q3) Metamorphic rocks are commonly divided into these two groups,based on their textures: ____________________ and ____________________.

Q4) What is an isograd?

Q5) What is the role of heat as an agent of metamorphism? What are the heat sources available for the creation of metamorphic rocks?

Q6) As the plate subducts until it begins to melt,it generates ____________________,which rises and causes ____________________ metamorphism.

Q7) Metamorphism at an oceanic-continental convergent plate boundary where temperatures are low and pressures are high produces rocks typical of the ____________________ facies.

Q8) Metamorphism is most common along ____________________ plate boundaries.

Q9) Why is time important in metamorphism?

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Q10) What is an aureole?

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Chapter 8: Earthquakes and Earths Interior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain the differences between the magnitude and the intensity of an earthquake,in terms of how each is measured or observed.

Q2) An earthquake of magnitude 7.0 has an amplitude ____________________ times as large and releases ____________________ times as much energy,respectively,as a magnitude 6.0 earthquake.

Q3) The structural layer of Earth that is liquid is the ____________________ ____________________.

Q4) The major boundary that occurs at a depth of about 30 km below Earth's surface is the:

A)low-velocity zone.

B)Moho.

C)inner core-outer core transition.

D)core-mantle boundary.

E)none of the above

Q5) The minimum number of seismograph records needed to locate the epicenter of an earthquake is ____________________.

Q6) The velocities of P- and S-waves are determined by these two properties of the material they are passing through: ____________________ and ____________________.

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Chapter 9: Deformation, Mountain Building, and the Continents

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Sample Questions

Q1) Small accreted lithospheric blocks of foreign origin that differ completely from the rocks in surrounding regions are called ____________________.

Q2) An important means of continental accretion is plutonism.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is deformation,and what causes it?

Q4) What are the three types of stress,and how do they affect rocks?

Q5) A(n)____________________ divides a fold into two halves.

Q6) In an anticline,the beds in its axial region are ____________________ in age than the beds of its limbs,and all strata dip ____________________ the axis.

Q7) Describe the plate tectonics processes and associated stresses that have led to the formation of the Himalayas,the world's largest mountain range?

Q8) If you're standing on ice above a pond and you hear a crack,you should:

A)remain motionless until the cracking stops.

B)lie down on the ice to distribute your weight more broadly on the ice.

C)run as fast as you can to shore.

D)not worry because the ice will not break.

E)prepare for a swim.

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Chapter 10: Mass Wasting

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Q1) Additional weight added to a hillside,which is always the result of human activities,is called ____________________.

Q2) Slumps occur most commonly in well-consolidated material.

A)True B)False

Q3) The type of mass movement that moves the greatest amount of material downslope is:

A)creep.

B)slumps.

C)rockfall. D)slides.

E)avalanches.

Q4) The downward movement of material along a curved surface of rupture,which is characterized by the backward rotation of the displaced block,is called a(n)____________________.

Q5) A general term for mass movements of earth is ____________________.

Q6) What is the most important step that can be taken to minimize or eliminate mass wasting or damage from it?

Q7) What are quick clays,and how do they cause damage?

Q8) How can areas with high potential for slope failure be identified?

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Chapter 11: Running Water

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Sample Questions

Q1) A stream that cuts directly through ridges that lie in their paths are called ____________________.

Q2) A dry surface has a higher infiltration capacity than a moist surface.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What causes a stream to meander?

Q4) Describe where flow velocity is highest in a semi-straight channel.Why is this the case?

Q5) When flow is restricted to long,troughlike depressions,the flow is known as ____________________ flow.

Q6) A stream erodes material from its banks and bed by: A)suspension.

B)hydraulic action.

C)abrasion.

D)suspension and hydraulic action.

E)hydraulic action and abrasion.

Q7) The renewal of erosion that results in creation of stream terraces is generally attributed to a change in ____________________ level,or a change in climate resulting in greater ____________________,and thus,discharge.

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Chapter 12: Groundwater

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Sample Questions

Q1) The general term for deposits of calcite and/or aragonite within caves is:

A)stalactites.

B)stalagmites.

C)spears.

D)dripstone.

E)calcite-stone.

Q2) How does water move in the capillary fringe?

Q3) In hilly country,the groundwater table's highest elevation occurs in stream valleys and around lakes.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Briefly explain why the artesian-pressure surface slopes.

Q5) Describe dripstone and how it forms.

Q6) During times of drought,the water table ____________________.

Q7) Discuss the artesian system that underlies South Dakota and extends to central Texas in the Dakota Sandstone.

Q8) Rounded depressions common in regions having limestone bedrock are known as

Q9) How are minor impurities filtered out of groundwater?

Q10) In what ways are geysers and undersea hydrothermal vent sites similar? Page 14

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Chapter 13: Glaciers and Glaciation

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are glaciers? How are they as agents of erosion and deposition?

Q2) Continental glaciers are presently found on:

A)Greenland.

B)Antarctica.

C)Alaska.

D)Greenland and Antarctica.

E)Greenland,Antarctica and Alaska.

Q3) What causes the rate of flow of a glacier to flow more rapidly?

Q4) In general,rates of glacial flow are greatest in the zone of ____________________.

Q5) What evidence of their passage do glaciers leave on bedrock?

Q6) How can you tell a river valley from a glacial valley if there is no glacier within the valley?

Q7) The two major types of glaciers are ____________________ and ____________________.

Q8) The zone of ____________________ is the portion of a glacier where additions exceed losses.

Q10) What are dropstones,and what do they indicate? Page 16

Q9) Elongated,spoon-shaped hills that have been shaped by an overriding glacier are called ____________________.

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Chapter 14: The Work of Wind and Deserts

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the three main sources from which loess is derived?

Q2) What are deserts,and where are they located on Earth?

Q3) The most effective agent of erosion in the deserts is ____________________.

Q4) All true deserts have widespread sand dunes.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Explain the ways in which alluvial fans and deltas are similar.

Q6) What are deflation hollows?

Q7) Define the Coriolis effect.Which direction does Coriolis deflect winds? What does the word "apparent" mean in the definition?

Q8) Dunes that form when vegetation cover is broken by deflation and the dune tips point upwind are:

A)longitudinal.

B)transverse.

C)barchan.

D)parabolic.

E)none of the above

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Q9) Think about what you learned about sedimentary rocks.Why would ancient cross-bedded sandstone beds,as seen in Zion National Park,Utah,be useful to geologists?

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Chapter 15: Oceans, Shorelines, and Shoreline Processes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Narrow surface currents that flow in the same general direction as the approaching waves are:

A)rip currents.

B)nearshore currents.

C)longshore currents.

D)upwelling currents.

E)refraction currents.

Q2) A structure built perpendicular to shore to enlarge a beach or prevent erosion is a(n)____________________.

Q3) What are the two factors that control the absolute rate of sea level rise in a particular shoreline?

Q4) What causes a wave to break when it reaches shore?

Q5) High water that occurs with the eye of a storm coupled with storm waves reach a shoreline is called ____________________.

Q6) Waves are oscillations of the water surface.

A)True

B)False

Q7) What are the primary agents of sediment transport and deposition along shorelines?

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Chapter 16: Geologic Time: Concepts and Principles

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Q1) To determine the radiometric age of a rock,scientists must be able to measure very accurately the:

A)unstable parent element.

B)unstable daughter element.

C)stable parent element.

D)stable daughter element.

E)unstable parent element and stable daughter element

Q2) A body of rock that is intruded by another rock must be ____________________ in age than the intrusion.

Q3) A surface of discontinuity representing a break in the depositional record;a discontinuity representing erosion or nondeposition is a(n)____________________.

Q4) Sources of uncertainty in radioactive dating do not include:

A)loss of daughter isotope.

B)uncertainty in decay constants.

C)experimental and sample error.

D)addition of parent isotope.

E)questions about metamorphism.

Q5) What were some of the ways early scholars tried to determine the age of Earth?

Q6) What are the three types of unconformities,and what is each missing?

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Chapter 17: Earth History

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Q1) In what two ways was the Laramide orogeny different from other orogenies?

Q2) The Permian-Triassic orogenic event that occurred with the collision of an island arc with the western margin of North America is called the:

A)Antler orogeny.

B)Cordilleran orogeny.

C)Sonoma orogeny.

D)Franciscan orogeny.

E)Western orogeny.

Q3) What are the three main rock types that characterize Archean shield areas?

Q4) What caused the Alpine orogeny?

Q5) What is the origin of greenstone belts?

Q6) What was the name given to the most recent episode of large-scale deformation in the Cordillera,and when did it begin?

Q7) After the Sauk Sea had regressed,the exposed surface of the North American continent was subjected to extensive glaciation.

A)True

B)False

Q8) What do cyclothems represent?

Q9) Briefly describe the geologic history of the North American Cordillera.

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Chapter 18: Life History

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Q1) The fin-back reptiles are called ____________________,and they went extinct in the ____________________.

Q2) What were the pelycosaurs,and why were they important?

Q3) What is important to know about the evolution of invertebrate phyla?

Q4) The development of ____________________ increased the diversity of foods that fish could consume,including other ____________________.

Q5) What are gymnosperms,and why was their evolution important?

Q6) Many of the large dinosaurs,such as Tyrannosaurus,are known as the ____________________ dinosaurs.

Q7) Describe the evolution of amphibians in the Paleozoic.

Q8) Seedless vascular plants lived in low wet habitats because they:

A)need water to reproduce.

B)do not have a means to transport water through their structure.

C)had no protection from desiccation.

D)were a food source for amphibians.

E)all of the these.

Q9) The ____________________ dinosaurs are also known as the bird-hipped dinosaurs.

Q10) What were ichthyosaurs? What adaptations did they have for their locomotion ability? Page 23

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