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Principles of Food Preparation explores the fundamental concepts and techniques involved in preparing safe, nutritious, and appealing foods. The course covers topics such as the physical and chemical changes that occur during cooking, best practices for handling different food groups (including meats, grains, fruits, and vegetables), sanitation and food safety, proper use of kitchen equipment, and recipe evaluation. Students gain practical experience through laboratory sessions, developing essential culinary skills and an understanding of how ingredient selection, measurements, and preparation methods influence food quality and presentation. This course provides a foundation for more advanced studies in food science, nutrition, and culinary arts.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Food Principles and Preparation 5th Edition by Amy Christine Brown
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Q1) MyPlate
A) provides directions from the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics as to the amounts of food required to give you the nutrients you need.
B) is a list of dietary recommendations concerning diet, exercise, and other lifestyle factors (e.g., alcohol consumption).
C) is a pictorial illustration of the concepts of the 2010 Dietary Guidelines.
D) provides nutrient intake recommendations for all Americans aged 2 through 65.
Answer: C
Q2) olfactory
A)relating to the sense of smell
B)combined sense of taste, odor, and mouthfeel
C)a description of a food's firmness or thickness
D)relating to the sense of taste
E)capable of evaporating like a gas into the air
Answer: A
Q3) consistency
Answer: c
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Q1) Regarding sensory testing, affective tests are used to detect "differences."
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) _____ tests rely on a trained panel to document differences in a product's sensory characteristics.
A) Discriminative
B) Descriptive
C) Affective
D) None of the above answers is correct
Answer: B
Q3) The nature, concentration, and temperature of a liquid all affect its viscosity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) When scoring/evaluating for consumer testing with children, "smiley" or "frowny" faces can be used for scoring in lieu of the hedonic scale.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Which of the following foods has the lowest degree of saturation?
A) avocado
B) chocolate
C) coconut oil
D) palm oil
E) cheesef. vegetable shortening
Answer: A
Q2) The basic nutrients that comprise all foods and are necessary for the nutritional health of people are
A) water, amino acids, fatty acids, sugars, vitamins, and minerals.
B) proteins, fats, and carbohydrates.
C) water, proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids.
D) proteins, vitamins, minerals, fatty acids, and amino acids.
E) water, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, vitamins, and minerals.
Answer: E
Q3) Most of the complete proteins come from animals; exceptions are those from soybeans and certain grains.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) A FALCPA statement is required on _____.
A) seafood collected from red tide areas
B) unpasteurized juices
C) foods that contain peanuts
D) low-acid canned foods
Q2) As long as "first in, first out" (FIFO)is followed, perishable foods can be held in the freezer or in storage under dry conditions for an unlimited period of time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In mad cow disease or bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)the incubation period between infection and manifestation can be
A) months.
B) years.
C) decades.
D) all of the above answers are correct
E) none of the above answers is correct
Q4) HACCP stands for Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An herb is a
A) flavoring that is derived from the fruit, bark, seeds, or root of a plant.
B) plant leaf valued for its flavor or scent.
C) plant leaf with medicinal value only.
D) plant extract that is oil based.
Q2) When measuring plastic shortenings for cakes, you may use
A) a liquid measuring cup and melt the shortening.
B) the water displacement method.
C) the markings on the sides of the stick.
D) a rounded spoonful for every ¼ cup.
Q3) Usually, the goal of cutting food is to divide it into pieces of uniform size.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One tablespoon of salt contains 2,300 milligrams of sodium.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When the size of egg is not specified by a recipe, you may assume it is a large egg.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In the early 1900s, large city _____ began allowing retailers of individual products to sell merchandise from inside booths.
A) food cooperatives
B) health food stores
C) grocery stores
D) warehouses
Q2) Comparison of food prices is based on
A) edible portion.
B) as purchased portion.
C) cost per serving.
D) delivery charges.
Q3) Food in its raw state, minus that which is discarded-bones, fat, skins, and/or seeds-is called
A) as purchased (AP).
B) edible portion (EP).
C) percentage yield.
D) portion control.
Q4) In hospitals, dietitians provide medical nutrition therapy.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which of the following statements is false?
A) Bulls are castrated when young so that they will gain weight quickly.
B) Stag meat is typically used for processed meats and pet foods.
C) The meat from cows is less desirable than that from steers or heifers.
D) Calves' meat is also referred to as "baby beef."
Q2) _____ is tough and fibrous, but converts to a gel when exposed to moist heat.
A) Elastin
B) Collagen
C) Reticulin
D) all of the above
Q3) warmed-over meat flavor
A)another name for the fatty tissue of an animal
B)another name for the intramuscular fat found in meat
C)the primary pigment in muscle fibers
D)the cooking and heat transfer that continue after meat is removed from the heat
E)an effect of the oxidation of meat's unsaturated fatty acids
Q4) Liver should be salted before it is sautéed or else it will toughen and shrivel.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The best way to determine the doneness of poultry is by touching; if it is firm to the touch it is done.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Chicken nuggets
A) may be composed of a high proportion of chicken skin.
B) are a high-kcalorie food.
C) may contain monosodium glutamate (MSG) as an ingredient.
D) are often held together by a finely minced skin.
E) all of the above answers are correctf. none of the above answers is correct
Q3) About one-fourth of all chickens in the United States carry Salmonella and about half carry Campylobacter jejuni.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Stuffing a bird prior to roasting is not recommended by the USDA.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The grading of poultry is mandatory.
A)True
B)False

10
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Q1) The safest and easiest criteria for the selection of fresh fish is
A) the degree of gaping in the steaks.
B) the firmness of the eyes.
C) the presence of rigid bones.
D) the fish's odor.
Q2) steaks
A)body that is entirely intact
B)head, tail, fins and scales, and entrails are removed
C)made by slicing the fish lengthwise from front to back
D)whole fish with entrails removed
E)cut from dressed fish from top fin to bottom fin at 90 degree angle
Q3) The characteristic smell of fish odor comes primarily from A) histamine.
B) phosphate.
C) scombrotoxin.
D) trimethylamine
Q4) One of the newest methods for preserving fish is curing.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Many varieties of milk are fortified with vitamins A and D, with D being required in all milk types and A optional in several types of milk.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ultrapasteurization
A)a process in which a milk product is heated above 145 degrees F but below 280 degrees F for 0.01 to 15 seconds
B)fermented milk in which lactose has been converted to lactic acid
C)a mechanical process that breaks up the fat globules in milk into much smaller globules that do not clump together and are permanently dispersed in a very fine emulsion
D)the heating of milk below its boiling point to destroy the pathogenic microorganisms
E)generally, the unwanted coagulation and precipitation of some milk proteins under certain conditions including acids, enzymes, and salts.
Q3) Evaporated milk contains 60% of the water of fresh fluid milk.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The flavor of a cheese becomes milder with aging.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cheese is
A) a cultured food made from milk.
B) a fermented food made from milk.
C) a preserved food made from the curd of milk.
D) whey and curds made into a semi-solid mixture which is then dried.
Q3) The amount of fat in the cheese is determined by the type of milk.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cheese should be both frozen and thawed as quickly as possible for the best quality.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What determines whether a cheese can be successfully frozen?
A) water content
B) fat content
C) method of curing
D) method of ripening
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Q1) vitelline membrane
A)the nutrient-dense yellow center of the egg that serves to nourish the developing chick
B)the egg white, which accounts for approximately three-fifths of the egg's weight
C)the waxy outer coating of the egg shell that seals the pores and protects the egg from moisture loss and bacterial contamination
D)the membrane surrounding the egg yolk and attached to the chalazae
E)the ropey, twisted strands of albumen that anchor the yolk to the center of the thick egg white
Q2) The term "hard-boiled eggs" is incorrect because the contents of the egg actually coagulate long before the boiling point is reached.
A)True
B)False
Q3) USDA Grade B eggs
A) are the lowest grade sold to supermarkets.
B) have thinner whites and somewhat flattened yolks.
C) are more suitable for frying, coddling, and poaching.
D) can be graded by the producer without inspection.
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Q1) The flavor of cabbage and onions change dramatically when they are cooked and these changes are due to sulfur compounds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Controlled-atmosphere storage slows down the natural respiration of fresh vegetables by reducing the amount of oxygen and increasing the amount of carbon dioxide available.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Vegetables are defined as
A) any plant or parts of a plant that are used as food.
B) the leaves, stem, or stalks of edible plants.
C) any edible plant eaten raw.
D) the ripened ovary of a plant with the surrounding succulent tissue.
Q4) Vegetables should be washed quickly and not soaked because most absorb excess water.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Freezing is the best storage form for the maintenance of fresh fruit texture.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Although appetizing, melanins are unsafe to consume.
A)True
B)False
Q3) jam
A)a thick and smooth fruit preserve made from long-cooked fruit that is sieved
B)a mixture of fruits (usually citrus, or at least with some citrus) with added nuts and raisins but no sugar
C)a product made from juice of cooked fruit with added sugar and pectin; may be clear if the juice is strained first
D)a preserved fruit product made from ground or mashed whole cooked fruit
E)a preserved fruit product made from the juice with thin slices of fruit and rind
Q4) When poaching fruits, it is best to leave firmer fruits to cool in the poaching liquid after cooking, but to immediately drain very soft fruits as soon as they are done.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) vinaigrette
A)a broth made from meat and vegetables and then strained to remove the solids
B)a bundle of parsley, thyme, bay leaf, and whole black pepper rolled and tied in a leek
C)a salad dressing consisting of only oil, vinegar, and seasoning
D)a richly flavored soup stock that has been clarified using egg whites
E)a cream soup traditionally made from shellfish
Q2) Salads may be classified by whether the ingredients are raw or cooked or by the main ingredient.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tempering is a process that gradually increases the temperature of ingredients for a cream soup mixture and helps reduce curdling.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A standard mirepoix is made out of
A) onions, celery, and carrots.
B) leeks, celery, carrots, and salt.
C) leeks, celery, carrots, and a bouquet garni.
D) parsley, thyme, bay leaf, and whole black pepper corns.
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Q1) The endosperm in which of the following corns is enlarged because it was soaked in lye and then dried during processing?
A) dent
B) flint
C) hominy
D) pod
E) cornmeal
Q2) Among food the additives used in grain products, _____ can be added to the dough before baking.
A) the vitamins thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin
B) vitamin C
C) vitamins A, D, E, and K
D) all of the above answers are correct
Q3) The cooking time of cereal grains is _____ when using a microwave.
A) greatly increased
B) greatly decreased
C) not significantly altered
Q4) The aleurone layer is incorporated when grains are processed into white flour.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Double-acting baking powder reacts twice, once when the liquid is added and again during mixing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most obvious function of sugar is sweetness, but it also increases the volume and tenderness of baked products.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a flour mixture, which of the following ingredients improves crumb and flavor, browns the crust, and adds nutrients?
A) leavening agents
B) milk
C) sugar
D) fat
E) egg
Q4) Enriched flour has added thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, folate, and iron.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following starches form(s)heavy-bodied, stringy, clear pastes and is/are resistant to gelling upon cooling?
A) tapioca
B) sorghum
C) rice and wheat
D) waxy corn hybrid
E) high-amylase corn hybrid
Q2) A pH below _____ decreases the viscosity of a starch gel.
A) 4.0
B) 6.5
C) 7.0
D) 7.5
E) 8.0
Q3) Which of the following countries rely on roots, tubers, and sorghum as the main dietary starches?
A) certain African countries
B) Ireland and the United Kingdom
C) China, Japan, and India
D) North American countries
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Q1) Quick breads are typically leavened
A) before baking with a biological leavening agent.
B) before baking with steam or air.
C) during baking with carbon dioxide.
D) all of the above answers are correct because it varies depending on the type of quick bread
Q2) Reduced-fat tortillas may have
A) better dough-mixing properties than full-fat tortillas.
B) increased shelf life.
C) a tough dough and chewy texture.
D) both a and b
E) both b and c
Q3) _____ results in a crumbly muffin that falls apart.
A) Overmixing
B) Undermixing
C) Undercooking
D) Using high-gluten flour
Q4) Waffles contain less fat than pancakes.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which mixing method employs the simplest of all mixing techniques and is a good method for the rapid production of yeast bread products used in food-service operations?
A) straight dough
B) muffin
C) batter
D) sponge
E) rapid mix
Q2) Specialty bread products on the market include "low-glycemic-index" breads, which are
A) low carbohydrate and/or low fiber.
B) low carbohydrate and/or high fiber.
C) high carbohydrate and/or low fiber.
D) high carbohydrate and/or high fiber.
Q3) Overfermentation
A) may be desirable depending on which mixing method is used.
B) stretches the gluten, resulting in a strong gluten formation.
C) creates a fine grain and sweet smell from the excess acid production.
D) affects color and flavor because of its inhibition of the Maillard reaction.
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Q1) The preservation of food by the use of high concentrations of sugars is possible because of the dehydration of the microorganisms that might otherwise cause spoilage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about corn syrup is false?
A) Corn syrups contain 75 percent sugar and 25 percent water.
B) Corn syrup is made commercially by adding a weak acid solution to cornstarch, then boiling, filtering, and evaporating the mixture until the correct concentration is achieved.
C) Adding different enzymes to cornstarch can convert the starch into glucose, maltose, or dextrins.
D) Beta-amylase enzymes yield more maltose, while glucoamylase enzymes result in a higher-glucose syrup, which is sweeter and less viscous.
E) Manufacturers control corn syrup characteristics primarily by adjusting the amount of water in the syrup.
Q3) Fructose is a low-kcalorie sweetener.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Placing cold, wet food in heated frying oil introduces moisture, making the oil prone to oxidative rancidity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Butter contains up to _____ percent water while diet margarines can contain up to _____ percent water.
A) 4, 20
B) 8, 30
C) 12, 40
D) 16, 50
E) Depends on individual brands
Q3) The selection of the oil for any food use is based on the outcome desired.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ is an example of a plastic fat.The more _____ a fat is, the more plastic it will be.
A) Hydrogenated vegetable oil, saturated
B) Chilled butter, unsaturated
C) Chilled lard, saturated
D) Hydrogenated vegetable oil, unsaturated
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about high-altitude adjustments for baking cakes?
A) Ingredients must be modified at altitudes higher than 2000 feet.
B) The higher atmospheric pressure at higher elevations increases the need for baking soda or baking powder.
C) Structural strength can be improved by adding 3 to 4 more tablespoons of cake flour, decreasing the amount of milk, and increasing baking powder and sugar quantities.
D) Increasing the baking temperature 10 to 15 degrees F increases the rate at which the cake sets by speeding the coagulation of the protein and the gelatinization of the starch.
Q2) The only leaveners in a traditional pound cake are air and steam.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cream of tartar is added to angel food cake foams to strengthen the egg white foam.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A puff pastry is
A) a delicate pastry that puffs up in size during baking due to alternating layers of fat and flour.
B) a hearty pastry made with nut meats, butter, and cream.
C) used for pie crusts, quiches, and main-dish pies.
D) made from butter and flour, with little or no added flavorings.
Q2) When pastry dough is rolled out too thick and used as a top crust it may
A) be too weak to hold in the fillings and separate between the crimpings.
B) become too brown and burn when baked.
C) toughen and shrink during baking.
D) form a raised dome when baked.
Q3) What are tarts?
A) one-crust pies made with a milk and egg filling
B) free-standing pies without a top crust
C) pies made from an egg white or whipped cream foam
D) a pastry made from pâte à choux and filled with whipped cream
E) a pastry made with oil and filled with honey and nuts
Q4) Hydrogenated shortenings and/or lard produce the flakiest crust.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) All candy production involves heating, cooling, and then beating a sugar solution.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When candies are classified by their ingredients, they are placed into one of two categories based on whether they
A) are basically a fat or syrup phase candy.
B) have a nut paste incorporated into the mix.
C) include milk in the liquid portion of the mix.
D) are made with sugar to which fat is then added.
E) have a chocolate coating.
Q3) _____ is often used in confections because it can replace some of the cocoa butter in chocolate bars.
A) Lecithin
B) Mannitol
C) Vanillin
D) Glycerine (glycerol)
Q4) The cold-water test used in candy making measures the syrup's consistency.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The initial churning and freezing of an ice cream mixture freezes approximately 75% of the water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which of the following frozen desserts is a smooth texture considered undesirable?
A) ices and granités
B) frozen yogurt
C) sherbet and sorbet
D) all of the above answers are correct
Q3) Leaving ice cream in a refrigerator for approximately 15 minutes allows it to reach the optimal serving temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are water ices made of?
A) imitation frozen yogurt
B) imitation sherbet
C) the same ingredients as sorbets
D) sweetened water and fruit juices
E) imitation fruit-flavored ice creams
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Q1) Alcoholic beverages are classified as nutritious because they contain so many kcalories.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Diet soft drinks contain _____ than regular soft drinks.
A) fewer bulking agents
B) a larger proportion of sweeteners
C) a lower percentage of water
D) a higher percentage of water
Q3) Wines are _____ to settle out the yeast cells and finely suspended material.
A) aged
B) racked
C) filtered
D) fermented
Q4) Green tea has the greatest amount of _____, which is responsible for its metallic taste.
A) polyphenolic compounds and/or their oxidative products
B) methylxanthines
C) theobromines
D) none of the above answers is correct
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Q1) Irradiation is thought to affect the trans-fatty acid content of foods.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The major concern about radiation among consumers is A) nutrient loss.
B) environmental hazards.
C) clear labeling identifying irradiated foods.
D) the expense passed on to consumer.
Q3) Foods wrapped tightly in air-tight, vapor-resistant materials usually are not susceptible to freezer burn.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In order to prevent growth of Clostridium botulinum, meats, poultry, fish, and vegetables with a pH higher than _____ must be canned under pressure.
A) 1.0
B) 2.8
C) 3.5
D) 4.6
E) none of the above answers is correct
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Q1) Food labeling became required for most foods in _____, when the nutrient label on foods changed to Nutrition Facts.
A) 1990
B) 1994
C) 1998
D) 2002
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding food colorings is false?
A) FDA-certified colorings must be included in the ingredients list for foods that contain them other than butter, cheese, and ice cream.
B) Food color additives include Blue No. 1 and No. 2 and Red No. 3 and No. 40.
C) A food coloring that is included in the GRAS list is not considered a food additive.
D) No food colors have tested positive as carcinogens in laboratory animals.
E) All of the above answers are true.
Q3) The creation of one federal agency to oversee food safety has not been proposed.
A)True
B)False
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11570
Sample Questions
Q1) Dietary managers work for institutions that serve food, specifically hospitals, nursing homes, and schools.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Medical nutrition therapy provides care in clinical settings to manage
A) heart disease.
B) diabetes.
C) renal disease.
D) liver failure.
E) all of the above answers are correct
F) none of the above answers is correct
Q3) Which of the following focuses on teaching, research, and service for her or his advancement?
A) corporate researcher
B) professor
C) nutritionist
D) pharmaceutical industry employee
E) nutraceutical industry employee
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