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Course Introduction
Principles of Environmental Science introduces students to the fundamental concepts and processes that govern the natural environment and the impact of human activities on ecosystems. This course covers key topics such as ecosystem structure and function, energy flow, nutrient cycling, population dynamics, biodiversity, natural resource management, pollution, and environmental policy. Through an interdisciplinary approach, students will explore solutions to environmental challenges and develop an understanding of the scientific principles necessary to analyze and address contemporary environmental issues.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Environmental Science Companion Site 6th Edition by William P. Cunningham
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15 Chapters
464 Verified Questions
464 Flashcards
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33 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following was key to the recovery of the Apo Island's reef fish population?
A) The establishment of a small marine sanctuary
B) A complete ban on all fishing
C) Importation of fish from other islands
D) Heavy government investment in alternative food sources
E) None of these are correct.
Answer: A
Q2) The world's poorest people _______________ environmental degradation.
A) cause the most B) both cause and suffer from C) are unaffected by D) don't really care about E) are ignorant of
Answer: B
Q3) Parsimony is one of the basic principles of science.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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34 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The relationship among atoms, elements, and compounds is most like the relationship among
A) bricks, brick houses, and large brick buildings.
B) grains of sand, rocks, and continents.
C) bricks, sidewalks, and paved roads.
D) ponds, lakes, and oceans.
E) grains of sugar, sugar, and sweetened iced tea.
Answer: E
Q2) Potential energy is _______ energy.
A) electrical
B) motion
C) stored
D) heat
E) latent
Answer: C
Q3) Water expands when it crystallizes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

Page 4
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not generally true of k-selected species compared to r-selected species?
A) they have shorter generation times
B) they reach sexual maturity later
C) they have fewer young
D) they have longer life spans
E) they have slower population growth rates
Answer: A
Q2) The most common reason that introduced species cause trouble is because they are larger than native species.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Natural selection will ultimately make a species
A) more intelligent.
B) physically bigger.
C) better adapted to its environment.
D) more aggressive.
E) less vulnerable to its predators.
Answer: C

Page 5
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Sample Questions
Q1) Historically, up until the Middle Ages, populations were mostly limited by A) low fertility rates.
B) culturally imposed family planning practices.
C) disease, famine, and war.
D) religious restrictions on marriage.
E) infanticide.
Q2) Which of the following is a pronatalist pressure?
A) male pride
B) social status of large families
C) need for additional family income
D) social taboos regarding birth control
E) all of these are sources of pronatalist pressure
Q3) One of the _________ effective ways to stabilize populations is to _________.
A) most; provide free contraceptives
B) least; provide free contraceptives
C) least; decrease child mortality
D) most; decrease child mortality
E) most; expect mandatory sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true?
A) Humans may have been causing extinctions thousands of years ago, but our impact has recently increased.
B) Humans are responsible for many of the mass extinctions in the geologic record.
C) Humans only began causing extinctions in the past 150 years.
D) Humans have never had significant impact on species extinctions until the past four decades.
E) Humans have been causing extinctions for thousands of years and we are still causing extinctions at about the same rate.
Q2) The primary difference between a bog and a fen is
A) fens are fed by groundwater, bogs are fed by rainfall.
B) fens have many trees, bogs have none.
C) fens are always on the coast, bogs are inland.
D) All of these are differences between fens and bogs.
E) There are no differences between fens and bogs, they are synonymous.
Q3) Estuaries contain a mix of fresh and salt water.
A)True
B)False
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Parks and Nature Preserves
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Q1) Economically, monoculture forestry is advantageous for the loggers because
A) it produces large quantities of a single type of tree for a particular use, such as building timber or paper pulp.
B) it is labor-intensive and thus increases job opportunities for local people.
C) high levels of pesticides and herbicides may be needed, therefore there is more money spent and in the system.
D) the increase in wildlife diversity is beneficial to the tourism industry.
E) a mix of the different trees leads to a good resource base if the market for one type of timber falls.
Q2) Old-growth forests are notable for containing species that
A) are exotic in North America.
B) have an unusually high market value.
C) are highly adapted to their special environment.
D) are found in other North American forests, in very different environmental conditions.
E) migrate long distances to feed in the old-growth forests.
Q3) Marine reserves are more common and easier to manage than terrestrial reserves.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Undernourished parents often raise children who are undernourished because the parents
A) transfer genetic deficiencies to their children.
B) do not know any better.
C) cannot afford to feed their children properly.
D) do not have access to information about nutrition.
E) All of these are reasons for the vicious cycle.
Q2) Which of the following are forms of chemical deterioration of soil?
A) salinization and acidification
B) waterlogging and laterization
C) compaction and nutrient depletion
D) pollution and waterlogging
E) water and wind erosion
Q3) What are two common diseases that result from protein deficiencies?
A) dysentery and diarrhea
B) dysentery and scurvy
C) scurvy and pellagra
D) goiter and cretinism
E) marasmus and kwashiorkor
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following presents the lowest lifetime risk of death to people in the US?
A) poisonous snakes
B) dog bites
C) plane crashes
D) lightning
E) drowning
Q2) Two problems encountered in human health risk assessment are _______________________ and ___________________.
A) use of chemical mixtures; lack of knowledge about synergistic effects
B) lack of funding for federal mandates; lack of public support
C) extrapolation of data to low doses; extrapolation of data from non-human species to humans
D) lack of planning; the involvement of politics
E) There are no inherent problems in human health risk assessment.
Q3) SARS and Ebola fever are examples of emergent diseases.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paying to plant trees because you use carbon in your daily life would be an example of
A) carbon reduction.
B) cap and trade.
C) carbon offsets.
D) carbon sequestration.
E) going carbon neutral.
Q2) Worldwide, air pollution control efforts are least advanced or least successful in major cities of developing countries.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A major source of VOCs is
A) incomplete burning of hydrocarbons.
B) combustion of sulfur-containing fuel.
C) photochemical oxidation.
D) CO in the atmosphere.
E) CO<sub>2</sub> in the atmosphere.
Q4) Nineteen of the 20 warmest of the last 150 years have occurred since 1980. A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many cities in the American Southwest rely on sources of drinking water that contaminated with __________________.
A) arsenic
B) lead
C) coliform bacteria
D) DDT
E) none of these are correct.
Q2) The place where aquifers are most likely to be contaminated is at
A) artesian springs.
B) seeps and other outlets.
C) recharge zones.
D) all discharge and recharge areas.
E) the zone of aeration.
Q3) An oligotrophic lake would be very productive.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The heating of natural waterways by power plants and other industrial facilities is a form of water pollution.
A)True
B)False

Page 12
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Q1) Evaporites, formed from ___________, are important economically because they are often found at or above 97% purity and are __________.
A) igneous rocks; important due to their strength, lightness, and malleability
B) metamorphic rocks; important due to their strength, lightness, and malleability
C) sedimentary rocks; important due to their strength, lightness, and malleability
D) igneous rocks; therefore concentrated in economically recoverable levels
E) sedimentary rocks; therefore concentrated in economically recoverable levels
Q2) "Subduction" is the process of a tectonic plate
A) falling freely into the mantle.
B) being forced below another plate.
C) melting without moving.
D) sliding alongside another plate.
E) being sucked into the outer core.
Q3) Nuees Ardentes are sonic waves associated with earthquakes.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which country is the world leader in wind energy?
A) The United States
B) Denmark
C) France
D) Japan
E) Brazil
Q2) Most useful oil deposits are usually found
A) in a liquid pool under a layer of impermeable shale.
B) saturating porous rocks, like water in a sponge.
C) locked in the mineral structure of a rock formation.
D) in pools on the earth's surface, where geologic pressures have forced them to collect.
E) in small pools directly above the bedrock.
Q3) A major factor in the conversion from fossil fuels to renewable forms of energy is
A) money.
B) infrastructure.
C) access to renewable forms.
D) a lack of technology to develop renewable forms.
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Q1) Illegal dumping and storage of hazardous waste
A) continues to threaten public health.
B) has completely stopped since the Superfund Act.
C) has not stopped completely but is rare.
D) has become a problem mainly since the Superfund Act.
E) will always be present because people are not concerned about toxic wastes.
Q2) Which of the following actions would probably encourage efficiency and recycling programs?
A) discontinue energy and water subsidies to industries when they are processing raw materials.
B) discontinue subsidies that favor the extraction of raw materials.
C) consumers asking for and buying products made from recycled products.
D) All of these are correct.
E) discontinue subsidies that favor the extraction of raw materials and consumers asking for and buying products made from recycled products are correct because industries do not receive water and energy subsidies.
Q3) Secure landfills are usually sealed with gravel.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In 1950 only ____ percent of the world's population lived in cities.
A) 16
B) 22
C) 31
D) 38
E) 43
Q2) Which is a negative consequence of urban sprawl?
A) increased traffic congestion
B) abandonment of city centers
C) inefficient use of land
D) all of these are correct.
E) none of these are correct.
Q3) Mass transportation in urban areas is one example of how cities have negative impacts on the environment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Suburbs are known for the presence of artistic and cultural opportunities.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) As more environment-oriented jobs become available, the number of students prepared for them is
A) staying the same.
B) increasing.
C) decreasing.
D) increasing dramatically.
E) slightly increasing.
Q2) As of 2007, what percentage of individuals polled were willing to make personal sacrifices to protect the environment?
A) 20%
B) 50%
C) 30%
D) 70%
E) 90%
Q3) The Christmas Bird Count is an example of _____________________.
A) citizen science
B) ecosystem management
C) environmental literacy
D) international treaty
E) none of these are correct.
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