Principles of Drug Therapy in Rehabilitation Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Drug Therapy in Rehabilitation explores the foundational concepts of pharmacology relevant to rehabilitation professionals, emphasizing how drug therapy influences patient outcomes in physical and occupational therapy settings. This course covers the mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, and side effects of major drug classes, with a focus on analgesics, anti-inflammatories, muscle relaxants, and medications for chronic health conditions. Students learn to recognize how medications can affect rehabilitation interventions, patient progress, and safety, as well as essential communication strategies with patients and healthcare providers regarding pharmacological considerations in the rehabilitation process.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology in Rehabilitation 5th Edition by Charles
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37 Chapters
343 Verified Questions
343 Flashcards
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D. Ciccone
2
Chapter 1: Basic Principles of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of how the body deals with a drug in terms of the way the drug is absorbed,distributed,and eliminated is known as
A) toxicology
B) pharmacodynamics
C) pharmacy
D) pharmacokinetics
E) biodynamics
Answer: D
Q2) Drugs that can be purchased directly by the consumer without a prescription are also known as
A) nonproprietary medications
B) Schedule I controlled substances
C) Schedule II controlled substances
D) Schedule III controlled substances
E) over-the-counter drugs
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics IDrug
Administration,Absorption,and
Distribution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The extent to which a drug reaches the systemic circulation is referred to as A) bioequivalence
B) biotransformation
C) bioavailability
D) biodistribution
E) last pass metabolism
Answer: C
Q2) The primary site for drug storage in the body is A) muscle
B) bone
C) skin
D) adipose tissue
E) the brain
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics II: Drug Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged administration of therapeutic drugs and other substances (alcohol,nicotine)may enhance the liver's ability to metabolize certain drugs,thus decreasing their therapeutic effect.This process is known as _______
A) glomerulonephritis
B) biliary cirrhosis
C) decreased hepatic blood flow
D) enzyme induction
Answer: D
Q2) Drug metabolism by the liver and other organs typically creates a more ____ compound,thus enabling the compound to be ____ when it reaches the nephrons in the kidney.
A) polar; excreted
B) neutral; excreted
C) polar; reabsorbed
D) neutral; reabsorbed
E) none of the above; metabolism does not affect the polarity of drug byproducts
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Drug Receptors
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug that binds readily to available receptors even if the concentration of drug is relatively low is said to have _______ for that receptor.
A) low specificity
B) high affinity
C) a short half-life
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Overstimulation of postsynaptic receptors may lead to a decrease in responsiveness of the receptors.A fairly brief and transient decrease in receptor responsiveness is known as _____,whereas a more prolonged process in which the actual number of available receptors is diminished is known as _________.
A) down-regulation; desensitization
B) desensitization; up-regulation
C) up-regulation; desensitization
D) down-regulation; autophosphorylation
E) desensitization; down-regulation
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6
Chapter 5: General Principles of Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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4 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Certain drugs are not able to pass from the bloodstream into the CNS because of the unique structure and function of the CNS capillaries,known commonly as the
A) blood-brain barrier
B) circle of Willis
C) glomerulus
D) septum pellucidum
E) corpus callosum
Q2) Drugs can alter CNS neurotransmission by affecting neurotransmitter
A) synthesis in the presynaptic terminal
B) release from the presynaptic terminal
C) degradation or breakdown at the synapse
D) reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
E) all the above are true
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Chapter 6: Sedative Hypnotic and Anti-anxiety Agents
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Benzodiazepines such as diazepam (Valium)act by increasing the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter
A) acetylcholine
B) norepinephrine
C) dopamine
D) gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
E) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
Q2) When certain sedative-hypnotics are suddenly discontinued,sleep disturbances may actually increase.This situation is known commonly as
A) tardive dyskinesia
B) anterograde amnesia
C) rebound insomnia
D) malignant hyperthermia
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Drugs used to relax the patient and promote sleep are classified as
A) sedative-hypnotics
B) antidepressants
C) antipsychotics
D) neuroleptics
E) antidyskinetics
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Chapter 7: Drugs to Treat Affective Disorders Depression and Bipolar Syndrome
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10 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antidepressant drugs that selectively affect 5-hydroxytryptamine neurotransmission may also cause "serotonin syndrome" which is characterized by
A) sweating
B) shivering
C) movement disorders (severe restlessness, dystonias, dyskinesias)
D) muscle fasciculations
E) all the above are true
Q2) Upon reaching the brain,most antidepressant drugs affect
A) amine neurotransmitters such as norepinephrine and serotonin
B) amino acids such as leucine and isoleucine
C) carbohydrates such as glucose and fructose
D) acetylcholine
E) cerebral blood flow
Q3) The cornerstone of drug treatment for bipolar syndrome (manic-depression)consists of
A) tricylic antipressants
B) monoamine oxidase inhibitors
C) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
D) lithium
E) dopamine agonists
9
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Chapter 8: Antipsychotic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Newer or "atypical" antipsychotics are often preferred because
A) they bind more effectively to dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia
B) they offer a greater chance of curing schizophrenia
C) they are less expensive than traditional agents
D) they have a reduced risk of causing motor side effects
E) they are available without prescription
Q2) Tardive dyskinesia is often the most feared motor side effect of antipsychotic drugs because
A) it is associated with muscle atrophy
B) it is associated with osteoporosis
C) it can cause cardiac dysrhythmias
D) it can cause peripheral neuropathies
E) it may be irreversible
Q3) Traditional antipsychotic drugs such as haloperidol and chlorpromazine are _____ receptor ______.
A) dopamine; agonists
B) dopamine; antagonists
C) acetylcholine; agonists
D) acetylcholine; antagonists
E) 5-hydroxytryptamine; agonists
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Chapter 9: Antiepileptic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neuropathic pain and certain other chronic pain syndromes may respond to treatment with _____,presumably because these drugs reduce excitation in specific pain pathways in the CNS.
A) amphetamines such as dextroamphetamine
B) antiseizure drugs such as gabapentin (Neurontin) and pregabalin (Lyrica)
C) anticholinergic drugs such as atropine
D) all the above
E) none of the above
Q2) Antiseizure drugs attempt to control neuronal activity via all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT
A) decreasing the effects of excitatory amino acids (glutamate, aspartate)
B) increasing the excitatory effects of acetylcholine in the CNS
C) decreasing sodium entry into rapidly firing neurons
D) increasing the inhibitory effects of gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
E) decreasing the excitatory effects of calcium ions in the CNS
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Chapter 10: Pharmacologic Management of Parkinson Disease
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to levodopa administration,"end-of-dose akinesia" describes the phenomenon where
A) a patient experiences hallucinations and other psychotropic effects of levodopa
B) drug effects follow an on-off pattern throughout the day
C) levodopa seems to become less effective when it is administered for prolonged periods (3 to 4 years)
D) the effectiveness of levodopa seems to wear off prior to the next dose
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Upon entering the brain,levodopa is then transformed into dopamine the enzyme
A) dopa transmutase
B) dopa decarboxylase
C) monoamine oxidase
D) acetylcholinesterase
E) sodium-potassium ATPase
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Chapter 11: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) During many surgeries,a skeletal neuromuscular junction blocker is given in conjunction with the general anesthetic so that
A) a lower dose of anesthetic can be used while still ensuring skeletal muscle paralysis
B) the patient can be positioned easily on the operating table
C) the thoracic wall is more compliant and does not offer as much resistance to mechanical ventilation
D) all the above are true
E) skeletal neuromuscular junction blockers are never given in conjunction with general anesthetics
Q2) Adipose tissue is a primary site for the absorption and temporary accumulation of general anesthetics because
A) adipose tissues are highly perfused by the bloodstream
B) general anesthetics are very water soluble
C) general anesthetics are very lipid soluble
D) adipose tissue is the primary site where general anesthetics are metabolized
E) none of the above are true; general anesthetics are not absorbed by adipose tissue
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13
Chapter 12: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to provide symptomatic relief of minor surface irritation and injury (minor burns,abrasions,and so forth),local anesthetics are typically applied
A) intravenously
B) intrathecally
C) topically
D) by inhalation
Q2) Local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST)is typically treated by administering A) general anesthetics
B) an emulsion of lipid compounds that soak up the lipophilic local anesthetic molecules
C) an amphetamine or other CNS stimulant to reduce CNS excitation caused by the local anesthetic
D) a beta blocker to reverse myocardial depression caused by the local anesthetic
E) other drugs that block sodium channels throughout the body
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14
Chapter 13: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diazepam (Valium)appears to work as a muscle relaxant by increasing the inhibitory effect of ____ on alpha motor neuron activity in the spinal cord.
A) norepinephrine
B) epinephrine
C) acetylcholine
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) gamma amino-butyric acid (GABA)
Q2) Intrathecal administration of baclofen typically refers to drug delivery into
A) the epidural space
B) the subarachnoid space
C) a sympathetic chain ganglion
D) the third ventricle of the brain
E) the gray matter of the spinal cord
Q3) Botulinum toxin is used to treat spasticity by injecting this drug
A) intravenously
B) intrathecally
C) subcutaneously
D) directly into the spastic muscle
E) none of the above are true; botulinum toxin is not used to treat spasticity
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Opioid Analgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Opioid drugs exert their analgesics effects by binding to the same receptors as
A) the catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine)
B) glucocorticoids (cortisol)
C) anabolic steroids (testosterone)
D) endogenous opioids (endorphins, enkephalins)
E) insulin-like growth factor
Q2) Morphine and many other powerful opioids exert their primary analgesic effects by binding to the
A) alpha adrenergic receptor
B) beta adrenergic receptor
C) beta opioid receptor
D) alpha opioid receptor
E) mu opioid receptor
Q3) By blocking all opioid receptors,opioid antagonists such as nalmefene and naloxone are used primarily to
A) treat severe, acute postoperative pain
B) treat severe chronic pain
C) treat opioid overdose
D) treat diarrhea
E) opioid antagonists have no therapeutic value
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Chapter 15: Non-steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is not normally treated with aspirin or other NSAIDs?
A) mild to moderate pain
B) mild to moderate inflammation
C) fever in adults
D) asthma
E) recurrent heart attacks
Q2) It has been suggested that aspirin and other NSAIDs _______ be used to treat pain following surgeries such as spinal fusion because these drugs may ______.
A) should not; inhibit bone healing
B) should; inhibit bone healing
C) should not; enhance bone healing
D) should; enhance bone healing
E) should not; cause excessive sedation and psychotropic effects (hallucinations, etc.)
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Chapter 16: Pharmacologic Management of Rheumatoid
Arthritis and Osteoarthritis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-inflammatory steroids (glucocorticoids)are often effective in controlling inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis,but prolonged use of large,systemic doses can cause
A) osteoporosis
B) muscle wasting
C) hypertension
D) diabetes mellitus
E) all of the above are true
Q2) Because of its ability to decrease pain with minimal side effects such as gastric irritation,________ is often considered the drug of choice in mild-to-moderate osteoarthritis.
A) aspirin
B) acetaminophen
C) prednisone
D) cortisone
E) methotrexate
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18
Chapter 17: Patient Controlled Analgesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of a single large dose of pain medication to establish analgesia prior to patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)is known as
A) the loading dose
B) the demand dose
C) the background infusion rate
D) the postoperative sedative
E) none of the above are true
Q2) The amount of drug that is self-administered by the patient each time he or she activates a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)device is known as the
A) loading dose
B) demand dose
C) background infusion rate
D) minimal dosage rate
E) maximal dosage rate
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19
Chapter 18: Introduction to Autonomic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In most peripheral tissues,sympathetic postganglionic neurons release ____ that binds directly to ____ receptors.
A) epinephrine; adrenergic
B) epinephrine; cholinergic
C) norepinephrine; adrenergic
D) norepinephrine; cholinergic
E) acetylcholine; adrenergic
Q2) A drug that inhibits muscarinic cholinergic receptors will selectively
A) increase sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
B) decrease sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
C) increase parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
D) decrease parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
E) increase responses in all tissues innervated by the autonomic nervous system
Q3) Alpha and beta receptors are the two primary subcategories of A) muscarinic cholinergic receptors
B) nicotinic cholinergic receptors
C) dopamine receptors
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) adrenergic
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Cholinergic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholinergic antagonists can be useful in the treatment of the following conditions
EXCEPT
A) motion sickness
B) irritable bowel syndrome
C) overactive urinary bladder
D) tachycardia
E) Parkinson disease
Q2) Indirect-acting cholinergic stimulants increase activity at cholinergic synapses by inhibiting the _______ enzyme
A) monoamine oxidase type A
B) monoamine oxidase type B
C) acetylcholinesterase
D) choline acetyltransferase
E) dopa decarboxylase
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Chapter 20: Adrenergic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulation of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors on spinal interneurons typically results in a _______ in excitability of ______ supplied by these interneurons.
A) increase; motor neurons
B) decrease; motor neurons
C) increase; sensory
D) decrease; sensory
E) alpha-2 receptors are not located in the spinal cord
Q2) A drug that selectively stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors will cause A) vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles
B) increased heart rate
C) decreased blood pressure
D) bronchodilation
Q3) To increase cardiac output,a drug should selectively _____ receptors on the heart.
A) stimulate; alpha-1
B) inhibit; alpha-1
C) stimulate; alpha-2
D) inhibit; alpha-2
E) stimulate; beta-1
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22
Chapter 21: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who overdose on diuretics
A) may become hyponatremic
B) may become hypokalemic
C) may lose too much fluid from the vascular system
D) all the above are true
Q2) Calcium channel blockers can help reduce high blood pressure by
A) stimulating the sinoatrial node in the heart
B) stimulating the atrioventricular node in the heart
C) inhibiting the vasomotor control center in the brainstem
D) inhibiting vascular smooth muscle contraction
E) increasing renal sodium and water excretion
Q3) Presynaptic adrenergic inhibitors such as reserpine decrease activity at peripheral arterioles by impairing the release of
A) epinephrine
B) norepinephrine
C) acetylcholine
D) dopamine
E) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Angina Pectoris
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Q1) Variant angina that is caused by coronary artery vasospasm (known also Prinzmetal's ischemia)is best treated with A) nitrates such as nitroglycerin
B) beta blockers
C) calcium channel blockers
D) alpha-1 agonists
E) alpha-2 antagonists
Q2) To avoid the first pass effect,nitroglycerin can be administered
A) sublingually
B) buccally
C) via transdermal patches
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Aspirin and other antiplatelet drugs are often administered to people with angina pectoris to
A) prevent headache
B) decrease myocardial oxygen demand
C) prevent coronary artery infarction
D) all the above are true
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Treatment of Cardiac Arrhythmias
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Q1) While attempting to control one type of arrhythmia,antiarrhythmic drugs can exert "proarrhythmic" effects,which are indicated by
A) a delay of 4 to 6 weeks before these drugs become effective
B) common musculoskeletal abnormalities such as skeletal muscle fasciculations
C) their ability to aggravate or initiate other cardiac rhythm abnormalities
D) their ability to aggravate the proton pump in the stomach, resulting in gastric ulcers
E) their ability to increase body temperature and cause fever
Q2) An antiarrhythmic drug that prolongs the effective refractory period of the cardiac action potential
A) will speed up repolarization of cardiac muscle cells
B) will generally increase heart rate
C) will decrease the time interval between cardiac action potentials
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 24: Treatment of Congestive Heart Failure
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Q1) A patient exhibiting symptoms of serious,life-threatening digitalis toxicity could be treated with
A) positive inotropes (inamrinone, milrinone)
B) epinephrine
C) norepinephrine
D) digoxin immune Fab (Digibind, DigiFab)
E) none of the above; there is no emergency treatment for digitalis toxicity
Q2) In people with heart failure,the best drugs for reducing fluid accumulation and congestion in the lungs and peripheral tissues are
A) alpha blockers
B) beta blockers
C) angiotensin II receptor blockers
D) calcium channel blockers
E) diuretics
Q3) The primary cardiac problem in digitalis toxicity is
A) decreased coronary blood flow
B) increased coronary oxygen demand
C) decreased cardiac intracellular sodium concentration.
D) arrhythmia
E) isolated systolic hypotension
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Coagulation Disorders and Hyperlipidemia
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Q1) Patient taking statins to improve plasma lipid profiles may be at increased risk for statin-induced myopathy if they
A) are elderly
B) have multiple diseases
C) have frail stature
D) are taking immunosuppressant drugs
E) all the above
Q2) Statin drugs such atorvastatin (Lipitor)and simvastatin (Zocor)inhibit the HMG-CoA reductase enzyme,thereby ______ the production of ______.
A) increasing; cholesterol
B) decreasing; cholesterol
C) increasing; low-density lipoproteins
D) decreasing; high-density lipoproteins
E) increasing; triglycerides
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27
Chapter 26: Respiratory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary associated problem with most traditional sedative and antihistamine medications is
A) increased coughing
B) watery eyes
C) runny nose
D) gastric ulcers
E) sedation
Q2) Which of the following drugs will promote bronchodilation?
A) drugs that stimulate acetylcholine receptors on airway smooth muscle
B) drugs that block (antagonize) beta-2 receptors on airway smooth muscle
C) xanthine derivatives such as theophylline
D) all of these drugs cause bronchodilation
E) none of these drugs cause bronchodilation
Q3) To selectively produce bronchodilation,a drug should _____ receptors in airway smooth muscle
A) stimulate beta-1
B) inhibit beta-1
C) stimulate beta-2
D) inhibit beta-2
E) stimulate alpha-1
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Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Drugs
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Q1) To improve the health and well-being of people with cystic fibrosis (CF),____ can be given to ____.
A) digestant preparations that contain pancreatic enzymes and bile salts; improve digestion and absorption of nutrients
B) products that contain deoxyribonuclease enzymes; decrease the viscosity of mucous in the respiratory tract
C) glucocorticoids; decrease inflammation in the airway
D) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs; decrease inflammation in the airway E) all the above
Q2) Drugs such as cimetidine and ranitidine that selectively block histamine type 2 (H2)receptors on stomach parietal cells
A) prevent the histamine-activated release of gastric acid
B) are available only by prescription
C) are known as antihistamines
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Endocrine Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following hormones are released from the anterior pituitary EXCEPT A) growth hormone
B) luteinizing hormone
C) follicle stimulating hormone
D) antidiuretic hormone
E) prolactin
Q2) Increased release of a specific hormone ultimately serves to inhibit its own release,thus preventing the amount of the released hormone from becoming excessive.The self-control of hormonal release that occurs commonly in the endocrine system is an example of A) autoregulation
B) positive feedback
C) negative feedback
D) modulation of positive outcomes
E) modulation of negative outcomes
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30
Chapter 29: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Q1) Mineralocorticoids such as aldosterone act on the kidneys to _____
A) increase sodium excretion
B) increase water excretion
C) increase potassium reabsorption
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Cortisol and other glucocorticoids exert a paradoxical or contradictory effect on glucose metabolism because they _____ circulating levels of glucose at the same time that they ______ glycogen storage in the liver.
A) increase; increase
B) increase; decrease
C) decrease; decrease
D) decrease; increase
E) none of the above are true; glucocorticoids do not affect glucose metabolism
Q3) Glucocorticoids are released from the adrenal cortex
A) on a daily basis, usually around 8:00 a.m. in most humans
B) in response to stressful stimuli (trauma, fever, and so forth)
C) in response to adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the anterior pituitary
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 30: Male and Female Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common form of oral contraceptive or birth control pill typically contains A) only estrogen
B) only progesterone
C) a fixed amount of estrogen and progesterone in the same pill
D) a pill containing estrogen for the first half of the menstrual cycle, followed by a pill containing progesterone for the second half of the cycle
E) an antiprogestin such as mifepristone
Q2) In certain older men,small doses of testosterone (testosterone replacement)may produce beneficial effects on body composition,strength,bone mineralization,mood,and libido,but may also cause an increased risk of
A) anemia
B) osteoporosis
C) prostate hypertrophy and cancer
D) skin breakdown
E) hereditary angioedema
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Parathyroid Drugs: Agents
Affecting Bone Mineralization
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Q1) Prolonged,large doses of parathyroid hormone ______ bone breakdown,and small,intermittent amounts of parathyroid hormone ______ bone synthesis and remodeling.
A) decrease; decrease
B) decrease; increase
C) increase; decrease
D) increase; increase
E) none of the above are true
Q2) All of the following drug strategies can be used as part of a comprehensive plan to increase bone mineral density in postmenopausal women EXCEPT
A) estrogen replacement
B) bisphosphonates
C) Vitamin C
D) calcium supplements
E) calcitonin
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Chapter 32: Pancreatic Hormones and the Treatment of
Diabetes Mellitus
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19980
Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin _____ the storage of glucose in skeletal muscle and other tissues,thereby _____ plasma glucose levels after a meal.
A) increases; increasing B) increases; decreasing C) decreases; increasing
D) decreases; decreasing E) none of the above are true
Q2) The primary problem in type 2 diabetes is _____.
A) decreased release of glucagon from pancreatic alpha cells
B) increased release of glucagon from pancreatic alpha cells
C) decreased sensitivity of peripheral tissues to circulating insulin
D) increased sensitivity of peripheral tissues to circulating insulin
E) decreased production of antidiuretic hormone
Q3) All of the following are characteristics of type I diabetes mellitus EXCEPT
A) disease onset usually occurs in childhood
B) body weight is usually at or below normal levels
C) pancreatic insulin production is low or absent
D) tissue sensitivity to insulin is low
E) diet and exercise are used in conjunction with drug therapy to maintain optimal health
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Infections I: Antibacterial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Beta-lactamase inhibitors such as clavulanate,sulbactam,and tazobactam are typically combined with a specific type of penicillin
A) to increase the absorption of penicillin from the GI tract
B) to enhance the penetration of penicillin into the bacterial cell
C) to prevent the beta-lactamase enzyme from destroying the penicillin
D) to prevent excessive excretion of the penicillin from the kidneys (i.e., more penicillin is retained in the body)
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Antibacterial drugs work by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT inhibition of
A) bacterial intracellular calcium release
B) bacterial cell wall synthesis and function
C) bacterial protein synthesis
D) bacterial nucleic acid synthesis
E) none of the above are true; antibacterial drugs use all the mechanisms listed
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Chapter 34: Treatment of Infections II: Antiviral Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19982
Sample Questions
Q1) An antiviral vaccine is typically created by
A) combining several antiviral drugs in the same pill
B) administering a single, strong antiviral drug just after to the onset of infection
C) administering a single, strong antiviral drug at the peak of the viral infection
D) administering drugs that suppress the immune response to viral infection
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors such as zidovudine,didanosine,and lamivudine are especially important for physical therapists because they may cause side effects such as
A) peripheral neuropathy
B) myopathy
C) joint pain
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Infections III: Antifungal and Antiparasitic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cutaneous and mucocutaneous infections such as tinea (ringworm)infections and candidiasis are typically treated with
A) local or topical antibacterial drugs
B) local or topical antifungal drugs
C) systemic doses of antibacterial drugs
D) systemic doses of antifungal drugs
E) antiviral drugs
Q2) Antifungal drugs are relatively safe when administered _____,but the risk of liver toxicity and other severe side effects increases substantially when these drugs are given
A) topically; orally
B) orally; topically
C) subcutaneously; topically
D) intravenously; subcutaneously
E) systemically; locally
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Chapter 36: Cancer Chemotherapy
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19984
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drug categories is not used to treat cancer?
A) alkylating agents
B) antimetabolites
C) interferons
D) drugs that increase mitosis
E) endocrines
Q2) Monoclonal antibodies may be especially effective in treating certain cancers because these drugs
A) create a strong alkyl reaction with the DNA molecule
B) directly inhibit the topoisomerase enzyme responsible for DNA synthesis
C) are attracted directly to the cancer cell, without an appreciable affect on healthy tissues
D) directly inhibit the mitotic apparatus that is responsible for controlling cell division (mitosis)
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 37: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cyclosporine,an immunosuppressant that is commonly used to prevent organ rejection,is often modified into microemulsion capsules so that
A) the drugs disperses more easily within the GI tract
B) absorption of the drug from the GI tract is more predictable
C) it is not as toxic to the kidneys and other tissues
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) All of the following drugs can be used to suppress the immune system EXCEPT
A) azathioprine
B) cyclophosphamide
C) cyclosporine
D) immunoglobulin G
E) methotrexate
Q3) Sirolimus,a relatively new immunosuppressant,is especially helpful following kidney transplants because
A) it causes sodium retention
B) it increases renin release from the kidneys
C) it does not reduce glomerular filtration and other aspects of kidney function
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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