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Principles of Drug Therapy in Nursing Test Questions - 791 Verified Questions

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Principles of Drug Therapy in Nursing Test

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Course Introduction

Principles of Drug Therapy in Nursing introduces students to the foundational concepts of pharmacology and the role of nurses in medication management. The course explores the mechanisms of drug action, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and the factors influencing drug response. Emphasis is placed on safe medication administration, error prevention, and patient education. Students learn how to assess, plan, implement, and evaluate drug therapy regimens for diverse populations, considering legal, ethical, and cultural aspects. Clinical application and critical thinking are developed through case studies and practice scenarios, preparing students for effective participation in interprofessional healthcare teams.

Recommended Textbook

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition by Lilley

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58 Chapters

791 Verified Questions

791 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: The Nursing Process and Drug Therapy

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10 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The patient is to receive oral guaifenesin (Mucinex) twice a day. Today, the nurse was busy and gave the medication 2 hours after the scheduled dose was due. What type of problem does this represent?

A) "Right time"

B) "Right dose"

C) "Right route"

D) "Right medication"

Answer: A

Q2) The nurse is performing an assessment of a newly admitted patient. Which is an example of subjective data?

A) Blood pressure 158/96 mm Hg

B) Weight 255 pounds

C) The patient reports that he uses the herbal product ginkgo.

D) The patient's complete blood count results.

Answer: C

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3

Chapter 2: Pharmacologic Principles

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is administering parenteral drugs. Which statement is true regarding parenteral drugs?

A) Parenteral drugs bypass the first-pass effect.

B) Absorption of parenteral drugs is affected by reduced blood flow to the stomach.

C) Absorption of parenteral drugs is faster when the stomach is empty.

D) Parenteral drugs exert their effects while circulating in the bloodstream.

Answer: A

Q2) The patient is receiving two different drugs. At current dosages and dosage forms, both drugs have the same concentration of the active ingredient. Which term is used to identify this principle?

A) Bioequivalent

B) Synergistic

C) Prodrugs

D) Steady state

Answer: A

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4

Chapter 3: Lifespan Considerations

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is assessing a newly admitted 83-year-old patient and determines that the patient is experiencing polypharmacy. Which statement most accurately illustrates polypharmacy?

A) The patient is experiencing multiple illnesses.

B) The patient uses one medication for an illness several times per day.

C) The patient uses over-the-counter drugs for an illness.

D) The patient uses multiple medications simultaneously.

Answer: D

Q2) Which statements are true regarding the elderly and pharmacokinetics?

A) The levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased.

B) Fat content is increased because of decreased lean body mass.

C) Fat content is decreased because of increased lean body mass.

D) The number of intact nephrons is increased.

E) The number of intact nephrons is decreased.

F) Gastric pH is less acidic.

G) Gastric pH is more acidic.

Answer: A, B, E, F

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Chapter 4: Cultural, Legal, and Ethical Considerations

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Sample Questions

Q1) A member of an investigational drug study team is working with healthy volunteers whose participation will help to determine the optimal dosage range and pharmacokinetics of the drug. The team member is participating in what type of study?

A) Phase I

B) Phase II

C) Phase III

D) Phase IV

Q2) The nurse is performing an admission assessment. Which findings reflect components of a cultural assessment?

A) The patient uses aspirin as needed for pain.

B) The patient has a history of hypertension.

C) The patient uses herbal tea to relax in the evenings.

D) The patient does not speak English.

E) The patient is allergic to shellfish.

F) The patient does not eat pork products because of religious beliefs.

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6

Chapter 5: Medication Errors: Preventing and Responding

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Sample Questions

Q1) Levothyroxine is available in 75-mcg tablet form. Convert this dose to milligram strength. (do not round) _______

Q2) The nurse is reviewing a list of verbal medication orders. Which is the proper notation of the dose of the drug ordered?

A) Levothyroxine.75 mg

B) Levothyroxine.750 mg

C) Levothyroxine 0.75 mg

D) Levothyroxine 0.750 mg

Q3) During morning medication administration, the nurse discovered an error on the electronic MAR before the medication was given. Which action by the nurse is appropriate for this "near-miss?"

A) Correct the MAR error but say nothing because nothing happened.

B) Notify the pharmacy about the error they almost caused.

C) Report the near-miss using the facility's recommended protocol, and correct the error on the MAR.

D) Report the near-miss to the next shift before the next dose is due.

Q4) Digoxin is available in 0.125-mg tablet form. Convert this dose to microgram strength. (do not round) _______

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Patient Education and Drug Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the nurse teaches a skill such as self-injection of insulin to the patient, what is the best way to set up the teaching/learning session?

A) Provide written pamphlets for instruction.

B) Show a video, and allow the patient to practice as needed on his own.

C) Verbally explain the procedure, and provide written handouts for reinforcement.

D) After demonstrating the procedure, allow the patient to do several return demonstrations.

Q2) During a nursing assessment, which question by the nurse allows for greater clarification and additional discussion with the patient?

A) "Are you allergic to penicillin?"

B) "What medications do you take?"

C) "Have you had a reaction to this drug?"

D) "Are you taking this medication with meals?"

Q3) A patient is to receive prednisone 7.5 mg PO daily. The tablets are available in a 2.5-mg strength. Identify how many tablets will the patient receive. _______

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8

Chapter 7: Over-The-Counter Drugs and Herbal and Dietary Supplements

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a PEG tube is to receive ferrous sulfate, 65 mg per the tube, daily. The medication is available as an elixir, 220 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive per dose? Record your answer using one decimal place.

Q2) During an assessment, the patient tells the nurse that he eats large amounts of garlic for its cardiovascular benefits. Which drug or drug class, if taken, would have a potential interaction with the garlic?

A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

B) Insulin

C) Antilipemic drugs

D) Sedatives

Q3) The nurse is giving a lecture about current U.S. laws and regulations of herbal products. According to the Dietary Supplement and Health Education Act of 1994, which statement is true?

A) Medicinal herbs are viewed as dietary supplements.

B) Herbal remedies are held to the same standards as drugs.

C) Producers of herbal products must prove therapeutic efficacy.

D) Herbal remedies are protected by patent laws.

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is reviewing the applications of gene therapy. Which drug is manufactured as a result of indirect gene therapy?

A) Vitamin K

B) Warfarin

C) Human insulin

D) Heparin

Q2) The nurse is asking a patient about his family history as part of an assessment. Which component is included in an effective family history?

A) Asking the patient about the current and past health status of the patient's children

B) Covering at least three generations of family history

C) Obtaining a family history of the patient's spouse

D) Asking about the family history for the patient's siblings and parents only

Q3) A patient will be receiving ranitidine (Zantac) 150 mg twice a day. A liquid form is ordered because the patient cannot swallow pills or capsules; the concentration of the liquid is 15 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive per dose?

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Chapter 9: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration

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Sample Questions

Q1) After administering an intradermal (ID) injection for a skin test, the nurse notices a small bleb at the injection site. Which of these is the best action for the nurse to take at this time?

A) Apply heat.

B) Massage the area.

C) Do nothing.

D) Report the bleb to the physician.

Q2) When adding medications to a bag of intravenous (IV) fluid, the nurse will use which method to mix the solution?

A) Shaking the bag or bottle vigorously

B) Turning the bag or bottle gently from side to side

C) Inverting the bag or bottle one time after injecting the medication

D) Allowing the IV solution to stand for 10 minutes to enhance even distribution of medication

Q3) When administering nasal spray, which instruction by the nurse is appropriate?

A) "You will need to blow your nose before I give this medication."

B) "You will need to blow your nose after I give this medication."

C) "When I give this medication, you will need to hold your breath."

D) "You need to sit up for 5 minutes after you receive the nasal spray."

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Analgesic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 57-year-old woman being treated for end-stage breast cancer has been using a transdermal opioid analgesic as part of the management of pain. Lately, she has been experiencing breakthrough pain. The nurse expects this type of pain to be managed by which of these interventions?

A) Administering NSAIDs

B) Administering an immediate-release opioid

C) Changing the opioid route to the rectal route

D) Making no changes to the current therapy

Q2) A 16-year-old field hockey player fell and twisted her ankle during a game. The nurse will expect to administer which type of analgesic?

A) Synthetic opioid, such as meperidine (Demerol)

B) Opium alkaloid, such as morphine sulfate

C) Opioid antagonist, such as naloxone HCL (Narcan)

D) Nonopioid analgesics, such as indomethacin (Indocin)

Q3) A patient is to receive methadone (Dolophine) 2.5 mg intramuscularly (IM) now. The medication is available in a concentration of 10 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of methadone will be drawn up for this dose. ______

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Chapter 11: General and Local Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is on a ventilator for respiratory arrest. Which parenteral anesthetic is also used for sedation during mechanical ventilation in ICU settings?

A) Ketamine

B) Midazolam (Versed)

C) Propofol (Diprivan)

D) Sevoflurane (Ultane)

Q2) The nurse is reviewing the effects of inhaled and intravenous general anesthesia, which includes which of these?

A) Increased intracranial pressure

B) Increased glomerular filtration

C) CNS depression

D) Hypotension

E) Decreased hepatic clearance

Q3) A patient is to receive midazolam (Versed) 2 mg IV push over 2 minutes just before an endoscopy procedure. The medication is available in a strength of 1 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication will the nurse draw up into the syringe for this dose.

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13

Chapter 12: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 50-year-old man who has been taking phenobarbital for 1 week is found very lethargic and unable to walk after eating out for dinner. His wife states that he has no other prescriptions and that he did not take an overdose-the correct number of pills is in the bottle. The nurse suspects that which of these may have happened?

A) He took a multivitamin.

B) He drank a glass of wine.

C) He took a dose of aspirin.

D) He developed an allergy to the drug.

Q2) A patient who has received some traumatic news is panicking and asks for some medication to help settle down. The nurse anticipates giving which drug that is most appropriate for this situation?

A) Diazepam (Valium)

B) Zolpidem (Ambien)

C) Phenobarbital

D) Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

Q3) A patient is about to receive pentobarbital (Nembutal) 100 mg IV as preoperative sedation. The medication is available in a concentration of 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive for this dose?

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Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) When evaluating a patient who is taking orlistat (Xenical), which is an intended therapeutic effect?

A) Increased wakefulness

B) Increased appetite

C) Decreased weight

D) Decreased hyperactivity

Q2) A 10-year-old patient will be started on methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin) therapy. The nurse will perform which essential baseline assessment before this drug is started?

A) Eye examination

B) Height and weight

C) Liver function studies

D) Hearing test

Q3) The order reads, "Give atomoxetine (Strattera) 0.5 mg/kg/day once daily in the morning before school." The child weighs 88 pounds. Identify how many milligrams will be administered per dose. _______

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Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) When teaching a patient about taking a newly prescribed antiepileptic drug (AED) at home, the nurse will include which instruction?

A) "Driving is allowed after 2 weeks of therapy."

B) "If seizures recur, take a double dose of the medication."

C) "Antacids can be taken with the AED to reduce gastrointestinal adverse effects."

D) "Take the drug at the same time every day."

Q2) A patient is experiencing status epilepticus. The nurse prepares to give which drug of choice for the treatment of this condition?

A) Diazepam (Valium)

B) Midazolam (Versed)

C) Valproic acid (Depakote)

D) Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Q3) A 9-year-old child will be receiving carbamazepine (Tegretol) suspension, 200 mg twice daily. The medication is available in a strength of 100 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will give to the patient for each dose. _______

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Antiparkinson Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) When treating patients with medications for Parkinson's disease, the nurse knows that the wearing-off phenomenon occurs for which reason?

A) There are rapid swings in the patient's response to levodopa.

B) The patient cannot tolerate the medications at times.

C) The medications begin to lose effectiveness against Parkinson's disease.

D) The patient's liver is no longer able to metabolize the drug.

Q2) A patient has been taking selegiline (Eldepryl) for a few months, and recently the prescriber increased his dose to 20 mg/day. Today, during his office visit, he tells the nurse that he forgot and had a beer with dinner last evening, and "felt awful." What did the patient most likely experience?

A) Hypotension

B) Hypertension

C) Urinary discomfort

D) Gastrointestinal upset

Q3) The prescriber writes this order, "Give amantadine (Symmetrel) 100 mg per PEG tube twice a day." The medication is available in a liquid form with a concentration 50 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will give with each dose. _______

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Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient wants to take a ginseng dietary supplement. The nurse instructs the patient to look for which potential adverse effect?

A) Drowsiness

B) Palpitations and anxiety

C) Dry mouth

D) Constipation

Q2) A patient who has been taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) states that he "felt awful" when he started taking an over-the-counter St. John's wort herbal product at home. The nurse suspects that he is experiencing serotonin syndrome. Which of these are symptoms of serotonin syndrome?

A) Agitation

B) Drowsiness

C) Tremors

D) Bradycardia

E) Sweating

Q3) A patient is to receive an intravenous dose of lorazepam (Ativan). The order reads, "Give lorazepam, 1 mg, IV push, now." Identify how many milliliters the nurse will administer for this dose. The medication vial contains 2 mg/mL. _______

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18

Chapter 17: Substance Use Disorder

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been taking disulfiram (Antabuse) as part of his rehabilitation therapy. However, this evening, he attended a party and drank half a beer. As a result, he became ill and his friends took him to the emergency department. The nurse will look for which adverse effects associated with acetaldehyde syndrome?

A) Euphoria

B) Severe vomiting

C) Diarrhea

D) Pulsating headache

E) Difficulty breathing

F) Sweating

Q2) The nurse is presenting a substance-abuse lecture for teenage girls and is asked about "roofies." The nurse recognizes that this is the slang term for which substance?

A) Cocaine

B) Flunitrazepam

C) Secobarbital

D) Methamphetamine

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Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 14-year-old patient has been treated for asthma for almost 4 months. Two weeks ago, she was given salmeterol as part of her medication regimen. However, her mother has called the clinic to report that it does not seem to work when her daughter is having an asthma attack. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?

A) "It takes time for a therapeutic response to develop."

B) "She is too young for this particular medication; it will be changed."

C) "She needs to take up to two puffs every 4 hours to ensure adequate blood levels."

D) "This medication is indicated for prevention of bronchospasms, not for relief of acute symptoms."

Q2) The nurse recognizes that adrenergic drugs cause relaxation of the bronchi and bronchodilation by stimulating which type of receptors?

A) Dopaminergic

B) Beta<sub>1</sub> adrenergic

C) Beta<sub>2</sub> adrenergic

D) Alpha<sub>1</sub> adrenergic

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Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 58-year-old man has had a myocardial infarction (MI), has begun rehabilitation, and is ready for discharge. He is given a prescription for metoprolol (Lopressor) and becomes upset after reading the patient education pamphlet. "I don't have high blood pressure-why did my doctor give me this medicine?" Which explanation by the nurse is correct?

A) "This medication will prevent blood clots that may lead to another heart attack."

B) "Beta blockers will improve blood flow to the kidneys."

C) "This drug is prescribed to prevent the high blood pressure that often occurs after a heart attack."

D) "Studies have shown that this medication has greatly increased survival rates in patients who have had a heart attack."

Q2) A patient is taking an alpha blocker as treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia. The nurse will monitor for which potential drug effect?

A) Orthostatic hypotension

B) Increased blood pressure

C) Decreased urine flow

D) Discolored urine

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Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A cholinergic drug is prescribed for a patient with a new diagnosis of myasthenia gravis, and the nurse provides instructions to the patient about the medication. What is important to include in the teaching?

A) Give daytime doses close together for maximal therapeutic effect.

B) Take the medication with meals to avoid gastrointestinal distress.

C) Take the medication 30 minutes before eating to improve swallowing and chewing.

D) Take the medication only if difficulty swallowing occurs during a meal.

Q2) A cholinergic drug is prescribed for a patient. The nurse checks the patient's medical history, knowing that this drug is contraindicated in which disorders?

A) Bladder atony

B) Gastrointestinal obstruction

C) Bradycardia

D) Alzheimer's disease

E) Hypotension

F) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

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22

Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is reviewing the use of anticholinergic drugs. Anticholinergic drugs block the effects of which nervous system?

A) Central nervous system

B) Somatic nervous system

C) Sympathetic nervous system

D) Parasympathetic nervous system

Q2) The nurse working in a preoperative admitting unit administers an anticholinergic medication to a patient before surgery. What is the purpose of this drug in the preoperative setting?

A) Reduce pain

B) Relax the patient

C) Reduce urinary frequency

D) Reduce oral and gastrointestinal secretions

Q3) In preparation for eye surgery, the nurse monitors for which desired drug effect in a patient who is receiving a cholinergic-blocking eyedrop medication?

A) Miosis

B) Mydriasis

C) Increased intraocular fluid production

D) Enhanced tear production

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Antihypertensive Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is to receive enalapril (Vasotec) 5 mg IV every 6 hours. Each dose is given over 5 minutes. The medication is available in an injectable form, 1.25 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication will the nurse draw up for each dose. _______

Q2) A pregnant woman is experiencing hypertension. The nurse knows that which drug is used for a pregnant patient who is experiencing hypertension?

A) Mannitol (Osmitrol)

B) Enalapril (Vasotec)

C) Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)

D) Methyldopa (Aldomet)

Q3) The nurse is reviewing drug therapy for hypertension. According to the JNC-8 guidelines, antihypertensive drug therapy for a newly diagnosed hypertensive African-American patient would most likely include which drug or drug classes?

A) Vasodilators alone

B) ACE inhibitors alone

C) Calcium channel blockers with thiazide diuretics

D) Beta blockers with thiazide diuretics

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a history of angina will be started on ranolazine (Ranexa). The nurse is reviewing the patient's history and will note potential contraindications to this drug therapy if which condition is present?

A) Type 2 diabetes mellitus

B) Prolonged QT interval on the electrocardiogram

C) Heart failure

D) Closed-angle glaucoma

E) Decreased liver function

Q2) When applying transdermal nitroglycerin patches, which instruction by the nurse is correct?

A) "Rotate application sites with each dose."

B) "Use only the chest area for application sites."

C) "Temporarily remove the patch if you go swimming."

D) "Apply the patch to the same site each time."

Q3) A patient will be receiving metoprolol (Lopressor) 5 mg IV push. The medication is available in a strength of 1 mg/mL. Identify how much medication will the nurse draw up for each dose. _______

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25

Chapter 24: Heart Failure Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) While assessing a patient who is receiving intravenous digitalis, the nurse recognizes that the drug has a negative chronotropic effect. How would this drug effect be evident in the patient?

A) Decreased blood pressure

B) Decreased heart rate

C) Decreased conduction

D) Decreased ectopic beats

Q2) A patient has been taking digoxin at home but took an accidental overdose and has developed toxicity. The patient has been admitted to the telemetry unit, where the physician has ordered digoxin immune Fab (Digifab). The patient asks the nurse why the medication is ordered. What is the nurse's best response?

A) "It will increase your heart rate."

B) "This drug helps to lower your potassium levels."

C) "It causes your heart to beat at a slower rate."

D) "This drug is an antidote to digoxin and will help your heart to return to normal functioning.

Q3) The medication order for a 5-year-old child reads, "Give digoxin elixir, 15 mcg/kg, PO now." Convert the 15 micrograms to milligrams. _______

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Chapter 25: Antidysrhythmic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse will monitor the patient who has been taking dronedarone (Multaq) for which adverse effect?

A) Decreased white blood cell count

B) Liver toxicity

C) Dehydration

D) Peripheral edema

Q2) A patient will be discharged on quinidine sulfate (Quinidex) extended-release tablets for the treatment of ventricular ectopy. The nurse will include which information in the teaching plan?

A) The medication should be stopped once the cardiac symptoms subside.

B) Signs of cinchonism, such as tinnitus, loss of hearing, or slight blurring of vision, may occur.

C) It is important to use sunscreen products when outside because of increased photosensitivity.

D) If any tablet or capsule is visible in the stool, contact the prescriber immediately.

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Chapter 26: Coagulation Modifier Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has been anticoagulated with warfarin (Coumadin) has been admitted for gastrointestinal bleeding. The history and physical examination indicates that the patient may have taken too much warfarin. The nurse anticipates that the patient will receive which antidote?

A) Vitamin E

B) Vitamin K

C) Protamine sulfate

D) Potassium chloride

Q2) A patient has received an overdose of intravenous heparin, and is showing signs of excessive bleeding. Which substance is the antidote for heparin overdose?

A) Vitamin E

B) Vitamin K

C) Protamine sulfate

D) Potassium chloride

Q3) An elderly patient has had hip surgery and will be receiving heparin, 4000 units subcutaneously every 12 hours. The heparin is available in vials of 5000 units/mL. Calculate how much heparin the nurse will administer for this dose. _______

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Chapter 27: Antilipemic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with coronary artery disease asks the nurse about the "good cholesterol" laboratory values. The nurse knows that "good cholesterol" refers to which lipids?

A) Triglycerides

B) Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)

C) Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs)

D) High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)

Q2) The nurse is conducting a class about antilipemic drugs. The antilipemic drug ezetimibe (Zetia) works by which mechanism?

A) Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase

B) Preventing resorption of bile acids from the small intestines

C) Activating lipase, which breaks down cholesterol

D) Inhibiting cholesterol absorption in the small intestine

Q3) A patient with elevated lipid levels has a new prescription for nicotinic acid (niacin). The nurse informs the patient that which adverse effects may occur with this medication?

A) Pruritus, cutaneous flushing

B) Tinnitus, urine with a burnt odor

C) Myalgia, fatigue

D) Blurred vision, headaches

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Page 29

Chapter 28: Diuretic Drugs

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48009

Sample Questions

Q1) A 79-year-old patient is taking a diuretic for treatment of hypertension. This patient is very independent and wants to continue to live at home. The nurse will know that which teaching point is important for this patient?

A) He should take the diuretic with his evening meal.

B) He should skip the diuretic dose if he plans to leave the house.

C) If he feels dizzy while on this medication, he needs to stop taking it and take potassium supplements instead.

D) He needs to take extra precautions when standing up because of possible orthostatic hypotension and resulting injury from falls.

Q2) When assessing a patient who is receiving a loop diuretic, the nurse looks for the manifestations of potassium deficiency, which would include what symptoms?

A) Dyspnea

B) Constipation

C) Tinnitus

D) Muscle weakness

E) Anorexia

F) Lethargy

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Chapter 29: Fluids and Electrolytes

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48010

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is in an urgent care center and is receiving treatment for mild hyponatremia after spending several hours doing gardening work in the heat of the day. The nurse expects that which drug therapy will be used to treat this condition?

A) Oral supplementation of fluids

B) Intravenous bolus of lactated Ringer's solution

C) Normal saline infusion, administered slowly

D) Oral administration of sodium chloride tablets

Q2) The nurse is working with a graduate nurse to prepare an intravenous dose of potassium for a patient on a regular medical-surgical unit. Which statement by the graduate nurse reflects a need for further teaching?

A) "We will need to monitor this infusion closely."

B) "The infusion rate needs to infuse at 10 mEq/hr."

C) "The intravenous potassium will be diluted before we give it."

D) "The intravenous potassium dose will be given undiluted."

Q3) An intravenous piggyback (IVPB) antibiotic needs to infuse over 90 minutes. The IVPB bag contains 150 mL. Calculate the setting for the infusion pump. _______

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Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48011

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is about to receive a dose of octreotide (Sandostatin). The nurse will assess for which contraindications or cautions?

A) Carcinoid crisis

B) Diarrhea

C) Type 1 diabetes mellitus

D) Gallbladder disease

E) Chronic renal failure

F) Esophageal varices

Q2) A 16-year-old boy who is taking somatropin comes into the office because he had an asthma attack during a race at school. Because of this new development, the nurse expects which intervention to occur next?

A) He will need to stop participating in school physical education classes.

B) The somatropin must be discontinued immediately.

C) The somatropin dosage may be adjusted.

D) His growth will be documented and monitored for changes.

Q3) A patient is to receive vasopressin (Pitressin) 5 units subQ twice a day. The medication is available in a vial that contains 20 units/mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will draw up for this dose. (record answer using two decimal places) _______

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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48012

Sample Questions

Q1) Levothyroxine (Synthroid) has been prescribed for a patient with hypothyroidism. The nurse reviews the patient's current medications for potential interactions. Which of these drugs or drug classes interact with levothyroxine?

A) Phenytoin (Dilantin)

B) Estrogens

C) Beta blockers

D) Warfarin (Coumadin)

E) Penicillins

F) Iron supplements

Q2) A patient who is taking propylthiouracil (PTU) for hyperthyroidism wants to know how this medicine works. Which explanation by the nurse is accurate?

A) It promotes the formation of thyroid hormone.

B) It slows down the formation of thyroid hormone.

C) It destroys overactive cells in the thyroid gland.

D) It inactivates already existing thyroid hormone in the bloodstream.

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33

Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48013

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is teaching a group of patients about management of diabetes. Which statement about basal dosing is correct?

A) "Basal dosing delivers a constant dose of insulin."

B) "With basal dosing, you can eat what you want and then give yourself a dose of insulin."

C) "Glargine insulin is given as a bolus with meals."

D) "Basal-bolus dosing is the traditional method of managing blood glucose levels."

Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with metabolic syndrome and is started on the biguanide metformin (Glucophage). The nurse knows that the purpose of the metformin, in this situation, is which of these?

A) To increase the pancreatic secretion of insulin

B) To decrease insulin resistance

C) To increase blood glucose levels

D) To decrease the pancreatic secretion of insulin

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Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48014

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is reviewing therapy with glucocorticoid drugs. Which conditions are indications for glucocorticoid drugs?

A) Glaucoma

B) Cerebral edema

C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

D) Organ transplantation

E) Varicella

F) Septicemia

Q2) The nurse is administering an adrenal drug to a patient. Which action by the nurse is appropriate for this patient?

A) Administering oral adrenal drugs on an empty stomach to maximize absorption

B) Rinsing the oral cavity after using corticosteroid inhalers

C) Administering the corticosteroids before bedtime to minimize adrenal suppression

D) Discontinuing the medication immediately if weight gain of 5 pounds or more in 1 week occurs

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35

Chapter 34: Womens Health Drugs

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48015

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse recognizes that the risk of osteoporosis is higher in an individual with which risk factor?

A) White or Asian race

B) African-American race

C) History of participation in active sports

D) Obesity

Q2) A woman visits a health center requesting oral contraceptives. Which laboratory test is most important for the nurse to assess before the patient begins oral contraceptive therapy?

A) Complete blood count

B) Serum potassium level

C) Vaginal cultures

D) Pregnancy test

Q3) An older adult female patient is receiving the progestin drug megestrol (Megace). Which is the most likely reason megestrol is ordered for this patient?

A) Migraine headaches

B) Osteoporosis

C) Appetite stimulant

D) Reduction of hot flashes

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Page 36

Chapter 35: Mens Health Drugs

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48016

Sample Questions

Q1) A 73-year-old male patient is in the clinic for a yearly physical and is asking for a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). He has listed on his health history that he is taking a nitrate for angina. The nurse is aware that which problem may occur if sildenafil is taken with a nitrate?

A) Significant increase in pulse rate

B) Significant decrease in blood pressure

C) Increased risk of bleeding

D) Reduced effectiveness of the sildenafil

Q2) When a male patient is receiving androgen therapy, the nurse will monitor for signs of excessive androgens such as:

A) fluid retention.

B) dehydration.

C) restlessness.

D) visual changes.

Q3) A patient will be receiving testosterone cypionate (Depo-Testosterone) 400 mg intramuscularly every 4 weeks. The medication is available in a 200-mg/mL strength. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw up for each injection. _______

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Page 37

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48017

Sample Questions

Q1) A gardener needs a decongestant because of seasonal allergy problems and asks the nurse whether he should take an oral form or a nasal spray. Which of these is a benefit of orally administered decongestants?

A) Immediate onset

B) A more potent effect

C) Lack of rebound congestion

D) Shorter duration

Q2) During a routine checkup, a patient states that she is unable to take the prescribed antihistamine because of one of its most common adverse effects. The nurse suspects that which adverse effect has been bothering this patient?

A) Constipation

B) Abdominal cramps

C) Drowsiness

D) Decreased libido

Q3) A patient will be receiving diphenhydramine (Benadryl) via a PEG tube, 25 mg, every 8 hours for an allergic rash. The medication is available as a 12.5 mg/5 mL syrup. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse administer with each dose. _______

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Page 38

Chapter 37: Respiratory Drugs

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48018

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is reviewing medications for the treatment of asthma. Which drugs are used for quick relief of asthma attacks?

A) Salmeterol (Serevent) inhaler

B) Albuterol (Proventil) nebulizer solution

C) Intravenous systemic corticosteroids

D) Montelukast (Singulair)

E) Fluticasone (Flovent) Rotadisk inhaler

Q2) After receiving a nebulizer treatment with a beta agonist, the patient states she is feeling slightly nervous and wonders if her asthma is getting worse. What is the nurse's best response?

A) "This is an expected adverse effect. Let me take your pulse."

B) "The next scheduled nebulizer treatment will be skipped."

C) "I will notify the physician about this adverse effect."

D) "We will hold the treatment for 24 hours."

Q3) A patient has a metered-dose inhaler that contains 200 actuations ('puffs'), and it does not have a dose counter. He is to take two puffs two times a day. If he does not take any extra doses, identify how many days will this inhaler last at the prescribed dose.

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Chapter 38: Antibiotics Part 1

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48019

Sample Questions

Q1) During antibiotic therapy, the nurse will monitor closely for signs and symptoms of a hypersensitivity reaction. Which of these assessment findings may be an indication of a hypersensitivity reaction?

A) Wheezing

B) Diarrhea

C) Shortness of breath

D) Swelling of the tongue

E) Itching

F) Black, hairy tongue

Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medication history of a patient who will be taking a sulfonamide antibiotic. During sulfonamide therapy, a significant drug interaction may occur with which of these drugs or drug classes?

A) Opioids

B) Oral contraceptives

C) Sulfonylureas

D) Antihistamines

E) Phenytoin (Dilantin)

F) Warfarin (Coumadin)

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Chapter 39: Antibiotics Part 2

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48020

Sample Questions

Q1) Which problem may occur in a patient who has started aminoglycoside therapy?

A) Constipation

B) Renal damage

C) Gynecomastia

D) Leukocytosis

Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medication orders for a patient who will be receiving aminoglycoside therapy. Which other medication or medication class, if ordered, would be a potential interaction concern?

A) Calcium channel blockers

B) Phenytoin

C) Proton pump inhibitors

D) Loop diuretics

Q3) A patient who has been hospitalized for 2 weeks has developed a pressure ulcer that contains multidrug-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which drug would the nurse expect to be chosen for therapy?

A) Metronidazole (Flagyl)

B) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

C) Vancomycin (Vancocin)

D) Tobramycin (Nebcin)

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Page 41

Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48021

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is diagnosed with genital herpes is taking topical acyclovir, and the nurse is providing instructions about adverse effects. The nurse will discuss which adverse effects of topical acyclovir therapy?

A) Insomnia and nervousness

B) Temporary swelling and rash

C) Burning when applied

D) This medication has no adverse effects.

Q2) A patient is receiving a ribavirin (Virazole) aerosol treatment. Which precaution is important for the pregnant health care provider?

A) No special precautions are needed.

B) Wearing a mask while in the room during the treatment.

C) Staying out of the room during the aerosol treatment.

D) Limiting exposure to the aerosol treatment to a maximum of 15 minutes per shift.

Q3) A patient with a viral infection is to receive ganciclovir (Cytovene) 5 mg/kg/day IVPB every morning. The patient weighs 110 pounds. Identify how many milligrams this patient will receive for this dose. _______

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Chapter 41: Antitubercular Drugs

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48022

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer morning medications to a patient who has been newly diagnosed with tuberculosis. The patient asks, "Why do I have to take so many different drugs?" Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Your prescriber hopes that at least one of these drugs will work to fight the tuberculosis."

B) "Taking multiple drugs is recommended because of the increasing presence of resistance to TB drug therapy.

C) "Using more than one drug can help to reduce side effects."

D) "Using multiple drugs enhances the effect of each drug."

Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a patient who is taking isoniazid (INH). Which drug or drug class has a significant drug interaction with isoniazid?

A) Pyridoxine (vitamin B<sub>6</sub>)

B) Penicillins

C) Phenytoin (Dilantin)

D) Benzodiazepines

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Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48023

Sample Questions

Q1) During therapy with amphotericin B, the nurse will monitor the patient for known adverse effects that would be reflected by which laboratory result?

A) Serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L

B) Serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L

C) White blood cell count of 7000 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>

D) Platelet count of 300,000/microliter

Q2) A patient is infected by invasive aspergillosis, and the medical history reveals that the patient has not been able to tolerate several antifungal drugs. The nurse anticipates an order for which medication to treat this infection?

A) Fluconazole (Diflucan)

B) Micafungin (Mycamine)

C) Caspofungin (Cancidas)

D) Nystatin (Mycostatin)

Q3) A patient will be taking fluconazole (Diflucan) 100 mg/day PO for 2 weeks. The patient is unable to swallow tablets, so an oral suspension that contains 10 mg/mL is available. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse administer with each dose.

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Page 44

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48024

Sample Questions

Q1) Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) is prescribed as part of malaria prophylaxis for a patient who will be traveling. The nurse will discuss which potential adverse effects with the patient?

A) Diarrhea

B) Myalgia

C) Insomnia

D) Dizziness

E) Rash

F) Headache

Q2) A patient is being evaluated for a possible helminthic infection. The nurse knows that which statement about anthelmintic therapy is true?

A) The drugs may cause severe drowsiness.

B) Anthelmintics are very specific in their actions.

C) Anthelmintics are effective against broad classes of infestations.

D) The drugs are used to treat protozoal infections such as intestinal amebiasis.

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45

Chapter 44: Anti-Inflammatory and Antigout Drugs

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48025

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has used enteric aspirin for several years as treatment for osteoarthritis. However, the symptoms are now worse and she is given a prescription for a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and misoprostol (Cytotec). The patient asks the nurse, "Why am I now taking two pills for arthritis?" What is the nurse's best response?

A) "Cytotec will also reduce the symptoms of your arthritis."

B) "Cytotec helps the action of the NSAID so that it will work better."

C) "Cytotec reduces the mucous secretions in the stomach, which reduces gastric irritation."

D) "Cytotec may help to prevent gastric ulcers that may occur in patients taking NSAIDs."

Q2) A 6-year-old child who has chickenpox also has a fever of 102.9° F (39.4° C). The child's mother asks the nurse if she should use aspirin to reduce the fever. What is the best response by the nurse?

A) "It's best to wait to see if the fever gets worse."

B) "You can use the aspirin, but watch for worsening symptoms."

C) "Acetaminophen (Tylenol) should be used to reduce his fever, not aspirin."

D) "You can use aspirin, but be sure to follow the instructions on the bottle."

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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 1:

and Cell Cycle-Specific Drugs

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48026

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is teaching about infection-prevention measures with a patient who is receiving antineoplastic drug therapy. During a Teach-Back session, which statement by the patient indicates the need for further education?

A) "I will avoid those who have recently had a vaccination."

B) "I will eat only fresh fruits and raw vegetables."

C) "I will report a sore throat, cough, or low-grade temperature."

D) "It is important for both my family and me to practice good handwashing."

Q2) The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient who is experiencing gastrointestinal adverse effects, including anorexia and nausea, after the first course of antineoplastic therapy. What is an appropriate outcome for this patient when dealing with this problem?

A) The patient will eat three balanced meals a day within 2 days.

B) The patient will return to normal eating pattern within 4 weeks.

C) The patient will maintain normal weight by consuming healthy snacks as tolerated.

D) The patient will maintain a diet of small, frequent feedings with nutrition supplements during therapy.

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Chapter 46: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 2: Cell

Cyclenonspecific Drugs and Miscellaneous Drugs

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48027

Sample Questions

Q1) During chemotherapy, a patient develops severe diarrhea caused by a vasoactive intestinal peptide-secreting tumor (VIPoma). The nurse expects to administer which drug for this problem?

A) Dexrazoxane (Zinecard)

B) Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

C) Octreotide (Sandostatin)

D) Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)

Q2) When a patient is receiving cisplatin (Platinol-AQ) chemotherapy, the nurse will monitor for which adverse effects?

A) Tinnitus

B) Heart failure

C) Hearing loss

D) Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels

E) Numbness or tingling in the extremities

F) Elevated glucose and ketone levels

Q3) A patient will be receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone), 12 mg/m²/day every 3 weeks, as part of treatment for prostate cancer. Each dose is mixed into a 50-mL bag of D W and needs to infuse over 15 minutes. The infusion pump delivers the dose at milliliters per hour. Identify the nurse will set the pump to infuse at what rate. _______

Page 48

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Chapter 47: Biologic Responsemodifying and Antirheumatic Drugs

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48028

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is administering an interferon and will implement which intervention?

A) Giving the medication with meals

B) Monitoring daily weights

C) Limiting fluids while the patient is taking this medication

D) Rotating injection sites

Q2) During a patient's therapy with interleukins, the nurse monitors the patient for capillary leak syndrome. Which assessment finding, if present, would indicate this problem?

A) Bradycardia

B) A dry cough

C) Bruising on the skin

D) A sudden, 15-pound weight gain

Q3) Abatacept (Orencia) is prescribed for a patient with severe rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse checks the patient's medical history, knowing that this medication would need to be used cautiously if which condition is present?

A) Coronary artery disease

B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

C) Diabetes mellitus

D) Hypertension

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Chapter 48: Immunosuppressant Drugs

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48029

Sample Questions

Q1) Cyclosporine is prescribed for a patient who had an organ transplant. The nurse will monitor the patient for which common adverse effect?

A) Nausea and vomiting

B) Fever and tremors

C) Agitation

D) Hypertension

Q2) A patient is about to undergo a kidney transplant. She will be given an immunosuppressant drug before, during, and after surgery to minimize organ rejection. During the preoperative teaching session, which information will the nurse include about the medication therapy?

A) Several days before the surgery, the medication will be administered orally.

B) The oral doses need to be taken 1 hour before meals to maximize absorption.

C) Mix the oral liquid with juice in a disposable Styrofoam cup just before administration.

D) Intramuscular injections of the medication will be needed for several days preceding surgery.

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Chapter 49: Immunizing Drugs

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48030

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is reviewing principles of immunization. What type of immunization occurs when antibodies pass from mother to infant during breastfeeding or through the placenta during pregnancy?

A) Artificial active immunization

B) Attenuating immunization

C) Natural passive immunization

D) Artificial passive immunization

Q2) A health care worker will be receiving hepatitis B immunoglobulin (BayHep B), 0.06 mL/kg IM now and repeated in 30 days as part of hepatitis B prophylaxis after a needle stick accident. The patient weighs 264 pounds. Identify how many milliliters the patient will receive for each dose. (record answer using one decimal place) _______

Q3) A patient is in the urgent care center after experiencing a black widow spider bite. The nurse prepares to give which product to treat this injury?

A) Live vaccine

B) Antivenins or antisera

C) Tetanus immune globulin

D) Active immunizing drug

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Chapter 50: Acid-Controlling Drugs

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48031

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is receiving an aluminum-containing antacid. The nurse will inform the patient to watch for which possible adverse effect?

A) Diarrhea

B) Constipation

C) Nausea

D) Abdominal cramping

Q2) A patient will be taking a 2-week course of combination therapy with omeprazole (Prilosec) and another drug for a peptic ulcer caused by Helicobacter pylori. The nurse expects a drug from which class to be ordered with the omeprazole?

A) Antibiotic

B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

C) Antacid

D) Antiemetic

Q3) A patient will be receiving pantoprazole (Protonix), 20 mg IV daily every morning. The medication, once reconstituted, has a strength of 40 mg/10 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will draw up for this dose. _______

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Chapter 51: Bowel Disorder Drugs

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48032

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is reviewing the mechanism of action of antidiarrheal drugs. Which type of antidiarrheal medication works by decreasing the intestinal muscle tone and peristalsis of the intestines?

A) Adsorbents such as Pepto-Bismol

B) Anticholinergics such as belladonna alkaloids

C) Probiotics such as Lactinex

D) Lubricants such as mineral oil

Q2) A laxative has been ordered for a patient. The nurse checks the patient's medical history and would be concerned if which condition is present?

A) High ammonia levels due to liver failure

B) Diverticulosis

C) Abdominal pain of unknown origin

D) Chronic constipation

Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer methylnaltrexone (Relistor). This drug is appropriate for which patient?

A) A patient with diarrhea

B) A terminally ill patient who has opioid-induced constipation

C) A patient who is scheduled for a colonoscopy

D) A patient who will be having colon surgery in the morning

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Page 53

Chapter 52: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48033

Sample Questions

Q1) A woman who is in the first trimester of pregnancy has been experiencing severe morning sickness. She asks, "I've heard that ginger tablets may be a natural way to ease the nausea and vomiting. Is it okay to try them?" What is the nurse's best response?

A) "They are a safe and natural remedy for nausea when you are pregnant."

B) "Go ahead and try them, but stop taking them once the nausea is relieved."

C) "Some health care providers do not recommend ginger during pregnancy. Let's check with your provider."

D) "You will need to wait until after the first trimester to try them."

Q2) The nurse is reviewing new postoperative orders and notes that the order reads, "Give hydroxyzine (Vistaril) 50 mg IV PRN nausea or vomiting." The patient states that he has slight nausea. Which action by the nurse is correct at this time?

A) Hold the dose until the patient states that the nausea is severe.

B) Give the dose orally instead of intravenously.

C) Give the patient the IV dose of hydroxyzine as ordered.

D) Call the prescriber to question the route that is ordered.

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Chapter 53: Vitamins and Minerals

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48034

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is on vitamin D supplemental therapy. The nurse will monitor for which signs of toxicity during this therapy?

A) Tinnitus

B) Anorexia

C) Diarrhea

D) Hypotension

Q2) The nurse will prepare to give which preparation to a newborn upon arrival in the nursery after delivery?

A) Vitamin B1 (thiamine)

B) Vitamin D (calciferol)

C) Folic acid

D) Vitamin K (AquaMEPHYTON)

Q3) The nurse is reviewing conditions caused by nutrient deficiencies. Conditions such as infantile rickets, tetany, and osteomalacia are caused by a deficiency in which vitamin or mineral?

A) Vitamin D

B) Vitamin C

C) Zinc

D) Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B<sub>12</sub>)

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Page 55

Chapter 54: Anemia Drugs

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48035

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse will teach a patient who is receiving oral iron supplements to watch for which expected adverse effects?

A) Palpitations

B) Drowsiness and dizziness

C) Black, tarry stools

D) Orange-red discoloration of the urine

Q2) The nurse is administering liquid oral iron supplements. Which intervention is appropriate when administering this medication?

A) Have the patient take the liquid iron with milk.

B) Instruct the patient to take the medication through a plastic straw.

C) Have the patient sip the medication slowly.

D) Have the patient drink the medication, undiluted, from the unit-dose cup.

Q3) The nurse is administering intravenous iron dextran for the first time to a patient with anemia. After giving a test dose, how long will the nurse wait before administering the remaining portion of the dose?

A) 30 minutes

B) 1 hour

C) 6 hours

D) 24 hours

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Page 56

Chapter 55: Nutritional Supplements

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48036

Sample Questions

Q1) The peripheral parenteral nutrition bag that has been infusing into the patient is empty, and the nurse realizes that the next bag is not ready. The nurse should immediately hang which of these intravenous solutions until the new bag arrives?

A) 10% dextrose in water

B) 20% dextrose in water

C) 0.9% sodium chloride

D) Lactated Ringer's solution

Q2) An older adult patient needs to receive an enteral supplement to improve her overall nutritional status. When considering enteral supplements, the nurse notes that which formulation provides complex nutrients?

A) Ensure Plus

B) Moducal

C) Propac

D) Microlipid

Q3) The total parenteral nutrition (TPN) order reads, "Infuse TPN #2 over 24 hours." Bag #2 of TPN contains 1800 mL. At what rate will the nurse set the infusion pump? _______

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Chapter 56: Dermatologic Drugs

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48037

Sample Questions

Q1) A woman suffered a second-degree burn of the skin on her arm and hand while cooking breakfast. After examination in the urgent care center, silver sulfadiazine cream (Silvadene) is ordered for the burned area. The nurse will apply the medication using which procedure?

A) Gently patting a moderate amount over the burned area

B) Massaging the cream completely into the wound

C) Applying a thick layer over the burned area, and then leaving the area open

D) Applying a thin layer with a sterile, gloved hand to clean and débrided areas

Q2) The preoperative nurse is ready to perform a skin prep with povidone-iodine (Betadine) on a patient who is about to have abdominal surgery. Which allergies, if present, would be a contraindication to the Betadine prep?

A) Peanuts

B) Shellfish

C) Adhesives

D) Latex

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Chapter 57: Ophthalmic Drugs

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48038

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is administering ophthalmic drops. Choose the action that should be performed first.

A) Close the eye gently.

B) Apply gentle pressure to the inner canthus/lacrimal sac for 1 minute.

C) Place drops into the conjunctival sac.

D) Clean debris from the eye as needed.

E) Have the patient tilt the head back and look up at the ceiling.

F) Remove excess medication gently from around the eyes.

Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a patient and notes an order for ophthalmic dexamethasone (Decadron) solution. The nurse knows that indications for ophthalmic dexamethasone include which conditions?

A) Uveitis

B) Allergic conditions

C) Removal of foreign bodies

D) Ocular infections

E) Glaucoma

F) Conjunctival inflammation

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Chapter 58: Otic Drugs

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48039

Sample Questions

Q1) When reviewing a patient's medical record, the nurse notes an order for carbamide peroxide eardrops. Based on this information, the nurse interprets that these eardrops are being used for which purpose?

A) To reduce inflammation

B) To reduce production of cerumen

C) To loosen the cerumen for easier removal

D) To inhibit growth of microorganisms in the external canal

Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer a new order for eardrops. Which is a potential contraindication to the use of many otic preparations?

A) Ear canal itching

B) Perforated eardrum

C) Staphylococcus aureus otitis externa infection

D) Escherichia coli ear infection

Q3) What teaching by the nurse is important for the safety of the patient who had just received eardrops?

A) Remain supine or sitting for a few minutes after receiving the drops.

B) Be sure to use a heating pad on the affected side.

C) Keep in mind that nausea may occur after eardrops are instilled.

D) Use a cotton-tipped swab to keep the ear canal clean.

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