Principles of Drug Therapy in Nursing Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Drug Therapy in Nursing introduces nursing students to the foundational concepts of pharmacology required for safe and effective patient care. This course covers the mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, and side effects of major drug classes, along with principles of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.
Students learn how to apply critical thinking to medication administration, including dosage calculations, drug interactions, and strategies to minimize adverse effects.
Emphasis is placed on individualized care, cultural considerations, patient education, and legal-ethical responsibilities surrounding medication administration within diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 10th Edition by Jacqueline Burchum
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110 Chapters
1439 Verified Questions
1439 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient how a medication works to treat an illness. To do this, the nurse will rely on knowledge of which topic?
A) Clinical pharmacology
B) Drug efficacy
C) Pharmacokinetics
D) Pharmacotherapeutics
Answer: D
Q2) Before administering a medication, what does the nurse need to know to evaluate how individual patient variability might affect the patient's response to the medication?
A) Chemical stability of the medication
B) Ease of administration
C) Family medical history
D) Patient's age
E) Patient's diagnosis
Answer: C, D, E
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Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postoperative patient has orders for morphine sulfate 1 to 2 mg IV every 1 hour PRN for severe pain and acetaminophen-hydrocodone [Lortab] 7.5 mg PO every 4 to 6 hours
PRN for moderate pain. The patient reports pain at a level of 8 on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst pain. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Administer acetaminophen-hydrocodone 7.5 mg PO every 4 hours.
B) Administer acetaminophen-hydrocodone 7.5 mg PO every 6 hours and change to every 4 hours if not effective.
C) Administer morphine sulfate 1 mg IV every 1 hour until pain subsides.
D) Administer morphine sulfate 2 mg IV and evaluate the patient's pain in 15 to 30 minutes.
Answer: D
Q2) A patient tells a nurse that a medication prescribed for recurrent migraine headaches is not working. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient about the number and frequency of tablets taken.
B) Assess the patient's headache pain on a scale from 1 to 10.
C) Report the patient's complaint to the prescriber.
D) Suggest biofeedback as an adjunct to drug therapy.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Someone asks a nurse about a new drug that is in preclinical testing and wants to know why it cannot be used to treat a friend's illness. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "A drug at this stage of development can be used only in patients with serious disease."
B) "At this stage of drug development, the safety and usefulness of the medication is unknown."
C) "Clinical trials must be completed to make sure the drug is safe to use in humans."
D) "Until postmarketing surveillance data are available, the drug cannot be used."
Answer: B
Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?
A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.
B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.
C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.
D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receives a drug that has a narrow therapeutic range. The nurse administering this medication will expect to do what?
A) Administer the drug at intervals longer than the drug half-life.
B) Administer this medication intravenously.
C) Monitor plasma drug levels.
D) Teach the patient that maximum drug effects will occur within a short period.
Q2) A patient is receiving intravenous gentamicin. A serum drug test reveals toxic levels. The dosing is correct, and this medication has been tolerated by this patient in the past. Which could be a probable cause of the test result?
A) A loading dose was not given.
B) The drug was not completely dissolved in the IV solution.
C) The patient is taking another medication that binds to serum albumin.
D) The medication is being given at a frequency that is longer than its half-life.
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Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two nurses are discussing theories of drug-receptor interaction. Which statements are true regarding the affinity of a drug and its receptor?
A) Affinity and intrinsic activity are dependent properties.
B) Affinity refers to the strength of the attraction between a drug and its receptor.
C) Drugs with high affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.
D) Drugs with low affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.
E) The affinity of a drug for its receptors is reflected in its potency.
Q2) A patient reports becoming "immune" to a medication because it no longer works to alleviate symptoms. The nurse recognizes that this decreased effectiveness is likely caused by:
A) antagonists produced by the body that compete with the drug for receptor sites.
B) decreased selectivity of receptor sites, resulting in a variety of effects.
C) desensitization of receptor sites by continual exposure to the drug.
D) synthesis of more receptor sites in response to the medication.
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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient about a prescription for a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor for depression. What will the nurse teach the patient to avoid while taking this drug?
A) Alcoholic beverages
B) Aged cheeses
C) Brussels sprouts and cabbage
D) Grapefruit juice
Q2) The nurse is administering morning medications. The nurse gives a patient multiple medications, two of which compete for plasma albumin receptor sites. As a result of this concurrent administration, the nurse can anticipate that what might occur?
A) Binding of one or both agents will be reduced.
B) Plasma levels of free drug will rise.
C) Plasma levels of free drug will fall.
D) The increase in free drug will intensify effects.
E) The increase in bound drug will intensify effects.
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8
Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is given a new medication and reports nausea within an hour after taking the drug. The nurse consults the drug information manual and learns that nausea is not an expected adverse effect of this drug. When the next dose is due, what will the nurse do?
A) Administer the drug and tell the patient to report further nausea.
B) Hold the drug and notify the provider of the patient's symptoms.
C) Report the symptoms of nausea to the MEDWATCH program.
D) Request an order for an antiemetic to counter this drug's effects.
Q2) A patient is taking sertraline [Zoloft] for depression, and the provider orders azithromycin [Zithromax] to treat an infection. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to discuss an alternative to azithromycin.
B) Request an order for a different antidepressant medication.
C) Request an order to reduce the dose of sertraline.
D) Withhold the sertraline while giving the azithromycin.
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Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks a nurse why a friend who is taking the same drug responds differently to that drug. The nurse knows that the most common variation in drug response is due to differences in each patient's:
A) drug receptor sites.
B) hypersensitivity potential.
C) metabolism of drugs.
D) psychosocial response.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of women about medications. The women want to know why so many drugs have unpredictable effects in women. The nurse will tell them that:
A) drugs usually have more toxic effects in women.
B) most known drug effects are based on drug trials in men.
C) women have varying responses to drugs during menstrual cycles.
D) women metabolize drugs more slowly.
Q3) Which groups of people are especially sensitive to medication effects?
A) Older adults
B) Caucasians
C) Infants
D) Minorities
E) Women
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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient in active labor is admitted to the emergency department. A toxicology screen and a physical assessment reveal that the patient is an active heroin addict. The nurse who cares for the neonate after delivery should anticipate which clinical manifestations?
A) Passivity and flat affect
B) Diarrhea and salivation
C) A shrill cry and irritability
D) Restless sleep and seizures
Q2) Which types of drugs taken by a pregnant patient are more likely to have effects on a fetus?
A) Drugs that are highly polar
B) Ionized drugs
C) Lipid-soluble drugs
D) Protein-bound drugs
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Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients
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11 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant is receiving a medication that has a narrow therapeutic range. The nurse reviews the medication information and learns that the drug is excreted by the kidneys. When giving the medication, the nurse will assess the infant for:
A) decreased effectiveness of the drug.
B) shorter period of the drug's effects.
C) signs of drug toxicity.
D) unusual CNS effects.
Q2) Parents ask the nurse why an over-the-counter cough suppressant with sedative side effects is not recommended for infants. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Babies have a more rapid gastric emptying time and don't absorb drugs well."
B) "Cough medicine tastes bad, and infants usually won't take it."
C) "Infants are more susceptible to central nervous system effects than are adults."
D) "Infants metabolize drugs too rapidly, so drugs aren't as effective."
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Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A thin older adult woman is admitted to the hospital after several days of vomiting, diarrhea, and poor intake of foods and fluids. She has not voided since admission. In preparing to care for this patient, the nurse will look for what laboratory values to help guide medication administration?
A) Creatinine clearance
B) Gastric pH
C) Plasma drug levels
D) Serum albumin
E) Serum creatinine
Q2) An older adult patient is admitted to the hospital for treatment of an exacerbation of a chronic illness. Admission laboratory work reveals an extremely low serum drug level of the drug used to treat this condition. The patient has brought the medication to the hospital, along with other medications taken. The patient's renal and hepatic function tests are normal. What might the nurse suspect as a likely cause of this finding?
A) Financial concerns
B) Inability to open drug containers
C) Increased tolerance to the drug's effects
D) Patient's conviction that the drug is unnecessary
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Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is administering drug X to a patient. The drug information states that the drug acts by activating receptors in the peripheral nervous system by increasing transmitter synthesis. The nurse understands that the effect of this drug is to:
A) activate axonal conduction.
B) enhance transmitter storage.
C) increase receptor activation.
D) synthesize supertransmitters.
Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer a medication and learns that it is a nonselective agonist drug. What does the nurse understand about this drug?
A) It directly activates receptors to affect many physiologic processes.
B) It directly activates receptors to affect a specific physiologic process.
C) It prevents receptor activation to affect many physiologic processes.
D) It prevents receptor activation to affect a specific physiologic processes.
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Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is to receive a beta agonist. Before administration of this medication, which assessment finding would most concern the nurse?
A) Pulse oximetry reading of 88%
B) Blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg
C) Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute
D) Heart rate of 110 beats/min
Q2) A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 88 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg. The prescriber orders a nonspecific beta agonist medication. Besides evaluating the patient for a reduction in respiratory distress, the nurse will monitor for which side effect?
A) Hypotension
B) Tachycardia
C) Tachypnea
D) Urinary retention
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15
Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin using a transdermal preparation of a muscarinic antagonist for overactive bladder (OAB). The nurse teaches the patient what to do if side effects occur. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "I can use sugar-free gum for dry mouth."
B) "I may need laxatives for constipation."
C) "I should keep the site covered to prevent other people from getting the medicine."
D) "I will take Benadryl for any itching caused by a local reaction to the patch."
Q2) A prescriber has ordered pilocarpine [Pilocar]. A nurse understands that the drug stimulates muscarinic receptors and would expect the drug to have which action?
A) Reduction of excessive secretions in a postoperative patient
B) Lowering of intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma
C) Inhibition of muscular activity in the bladder
D) Prevention of hypertensive crisis
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16
Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in
Myasthenia Gravis
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9 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient who is newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis about managing the disease. Which is important when teaching this patient about adverse effects of cholinesterase inhibitors?
A) "There are very few serious side effects associated with your medication."
B) "It is important to notify your provider if you have excessive saliva."
C) "If you experience urinary urgency, you may need to increase your dose."
D) "Excessive sweating is a minor side effect and will improve over time."
Q2) Two nurses are discussing the major differences between physostigmine [Antilirium] and neostigmine [Prostigmin]. One nurse correctly makes which statement about physostigmine [Antilirium]?
A) "It is not effective for treating poisoning by muscarinic blocking drugs."
B) "It can readily cross the blood-brain barrier."
C) "It does not cause any side effects."
D) "It can be given by all routes."
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17
Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic
Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) While preparing a patient for a second esophageal dilation procedure, the nurse explains that succinylcholine [Anectine] will be used for muscle relaxation. The patient is anxious and reports not being able to swallow for several hours after the previous procedure. What will the nurse do?
A) Be prepared to provide mechanical ventilation after the procedure.
B) Have dantrolene available, because this patient is at increased risk for side effects.
C) Reassure the patient that this is expected after neuromuscular blockade.
D) Request an order for a pseudocholinesterase level.
Q2) A patient receives a neuromuscular blocking agent before a procedure. The patient's eyes close. The nurse knows this is a sign that the patient:
A) has fallen asleep.
B) has received a toxic dose of the medication.
C) is beginning to feel the drug's effects.
D) may need mechanical ventilation.
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18
Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks the nurse about receptor specificity of adrenergic agonist medications. What will the nurse say?
A) "As the dosage of these medications increases, drugs in this class are more selective."
B) "Dopamine is selective for dopamine receptors and has no effects on alpha or beta receptors."
C) "Epinephrine is the most selective alpha-adrenergic agonist medication."
D) "Specificity is relative and is dose dependent."
Q2) A patient brought to the emergency department requires sutures. The prescriber orders a local anesthetic with epinephrine. The nurse understands that epinephrine is ordered to:
A) prevent hypertension induced by the anesthetic.
B) allow a reduced dose of the anesthetic.
C) reduce anesthetic-induced nausea.
D) reduce the pain of an injection.
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19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses a patient who has been given phentolamine [OraVerse] to treat pheochromocytoma. The nurse notes a blood pressure of 76/52 mm Hg and a heart rate of 90 beats/min. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Contact the provider to request an order for epinephrine.
B) Continue to monitor the patient's vital signs and notify the provider if the heart rate increases.
C) Notify the provider and request an order for a beta blocker.
D) Notify the provider and request an order for norepinephrine.
Q2) A patient will begin taking propranolol [Inderal] for hypertension. Which statement by the nurse is important when teaching this patient about the medication?
A) "Check your hands and feet for swelling and report that to your provider."
B) "It is safe to take this medication with a calcium channel blocker."
C) "Stop taking the drug if you become short of breath."
D) "Take your pulse and do not take the medication if your heart rate is fast."
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hypertension has a previous history of opioid dependence. Which medication would the nurse question?
A) Clonidine [Catapres]
B) Guanabenz [Wytensin]
C) Methyldopa
D) Reserpine [Serpasil]
Q2) A patient who has been taking clonidine [Catapres] for several weeks complains of drowsiness and constipation. What will the nurse do?
A) Recommend that the patient take most of the daily dose at bedtime.
B) Suggest asking the provider for a transdermal preparation of the drug.
C) Suspect that the patient is overusing the medication.
D) Tell the patient to stop taking the drug and call the provider.
Q3) A prescriber orders clonidine [Kapvay] ER tablets for a 12-year-old child. The nurse understands that this drug is being given to treat which condition?
A) ADHD
B) Hypertension
C) Severe pain
D) Tourette's syndrome
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21
Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks a nurse to explain what drug tolerance means. The nurse responds by telling the patient that when tolerance occurs, it means the patient:
A) has developed a psychologic dependence on the drug.
B) may need increased amounts of the drug over time. C) will cause an abstinence syndrome if the drug is discontinued abruptly. D) will have increased sensitivity to drug side effects.
Q2) A group of nursing students asks a nurse to explain the blood-brain barrier. The nurse would be correct to say that the blood-brain barrier: A) prevents some potentially toxic substances from crossing into the central nervous system.
B) causes infants to be less sensitive to CNS drugs and thus require larger doses. C) allows only ionized or protein-bound drugs to cross into the central nervous system. D) prevents lipid-soluble drugs from entering the central nervous system.
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Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinson Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student wants to know how carbidopa can be effective for treating Parkinson disease if it prevents the conversion of levodopa to dopamine. The nurse explains that carbidopa:
A) can be taken with high-protein meals.
B) does not cross the blood-brain barrier.
C) has dopamine-like effects of its own.
D) reduces abrupt loss of effect.
Q2) A nurse provides teaching for a patient who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson disease. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the drug therapy for this disease?
A) "A levodopa/carbidopa combination is used to improve motor function."
B) "There are several drugs available to treat dyskinesias."
C) "When 'off' times occur, I may need to increase my dose of levodopa."
D) "With adequate drug therapy, the disease progression may be slowed."
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Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the use of memantine [Namenda] for Alzheimer's disease. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Memantine is indicated for patients with mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease."
B) "Memantine modulates the effects of glutamate to alter calcium influx into neurons."
C) "Memantine prevents calcium from leaving neurons, which improves their function."
D) "Memantine and donepezil combined may stop progression of Alzheimer's disease."
Q2) A nurse is caring for an older adult patient who has Alzheimer's disease. The patient is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor drug. Which side effects would concern the nurse?
A) Confusion and memory impairment
B) Dizziness and headache
C) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D) Slowed heart rate and lightheadedness
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Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunomodulator drugs have shown effectiveness for what?
A) Preventing the development of MS
B) Primary progressive MS
C) Progressive-relapsing MS
D) Relapsing-remitting MS
E) Secondary progressive MS
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) for 10 years and has a history of 3 periods of neurologic dysfunction lasting several weeks separated by long periods of full recovery. In the past 6 months, the patient has had a prolonged period of neurologic dysfunction without remission. The nurse understands that the patient may have which MS subtype?
A) Primary progressive MS
B) Progressive-relapsing MS
C) Relapsing-remitting MS
D) Secondary progressive MS
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25
Chapter 24: Drugs for Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child who receives valproic acid [Depakote] begins taking lamotrigine [Lamictal] because of an increase in the number of seizures. The nurse will observe this child closely for which symptom?
A) Angioedema
B) Hypohidrosis
C) Rash
D) Psychosis
Q2) A nurse is discussing partial versus generalized seizures with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Febrile seizures are a type of generalized tonic-clonic seizure."
B) "Generalized seizures are characterized by convulsive activity."
C) "Partial seizures do not last as long as generalized seizures."
D) "Patients having partial seizures do not lose consciousness."
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Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with cerebral palsy has severe muscle spasticity and muscle weakness. The patient is unable to take anything by mouth. The nurse is correct to anticipate that which medication will be ordered for home therapy?
A) Baclofen [Lioresal]
B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]
C) Diazepam [Valium]
D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]
Q2) A patient who has a lower back injury exhibits muscle spasms. The provider orders cyclobenzaprine [Flexeril] 10 mg 3 times a day. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this drug?
A) "This drug carries some risk of developing hallucinations and psychotic symptoms."
B) "This medication may cause your urine to turn brown, black, or dark green."
C) "You may experience blurred vision, dry mouth, or constipation."
D) "You will need to have liver function tests performed while taking this medication."
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Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are important considerations when spinal anesthesia is being administered?
A) Encouraging the patient to remain supine after the procedure
B) Having epinephrine available in case of adverse effects
C) Injecting a local anesthetic into the sacral region
D) Placing the agent into the spinal column outside the dura mater
E) Using an anesthetic solution from a single-dose vial
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who has a second-degree burn on one arm about the use of a topical anesthetic for pain. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I will apply a thin layer of the medication to a small area of skin."
B) "I will cover the burn with a dressing after applying the medication."
C) "I will make sure to apply the medication to the entire burn area."
D) "I will use the medication only on the most painful, blistered areas."
Q3) A patient receives an epidural anesthetic during labor and delivery. The nurse caring for the newborn in the immediate postpartum period will observe the infant for:
A) bradycardia.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) jitteriness.
D) tachypnea.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receives a neuromuscular blocking agent as an adjunct to inhalation anesthesia. When caring for this patient, it is important for the nurse to remember that neuromuscular blocking agents:
A) cause vagal slowing of the heart.
B) increase the required dose of inhalation anesthetics.
C) increase the depth of unconsciousness.
D) prevent contraction of the diaphragm.
Q2) A patient in the postanesthesia recovery unit received ketamine [Ketalar] for right open reduction internal fixation surgery. What drug would be beneficial as a premedication to help minimize adverse reactions?
A) Methohexital [Brevital]
B) Sevoflurane [Ultane]
C) Atropine [Sal-Tropine]
D) Diazepam [Valium]
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Chapter 28:
Analgesics, Opioid Antagonists, and Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has developed opioid tolerance will experience which effect?
A) Decreased analgesic effect
B) Decreased constipation
C) Increased euphoria
D) Increased respiratory depression
Q2) A patient asks the nurse what can be given to alleviate severe, chronic pain of several months' duration. The patient has been taking oxycodone [OxyContin] and states that it is no longer effective. The nurse will suggest discussing which medication with the provider?
A) Fentanyl [Duragesic] transdermal patch
B) Hydrocodone [Vicodin] PO
C) Meperidine [Demerol] PO
D) Pentazocine [Talwin] PO
Q3) Which side effects of opioid analgesics can have therapeutic benefits?
A) Biliary colic
B) Cough suppression
C) Suppression of bowel motility
D) Urinary retention
E) Vasodilation
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Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients With Cancer
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25923
Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient who has cancer and Alzheimer's disease is crying but shakes his or her head "no" when asked about pain. The prescriber has ordered morphine sulfate 2 to 4 mg IV every 2 hours PRN pain. It has been 4 hours since a dose has been given. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer 4 mg of morphine and monitor this patient's verbal and nonverbal responses.
B) Give 2 mg of morphine for pain to avoid increasing this patient's level of confusion.
C) Request an order for a nonopioid analgesic or an antidepressant adjuvant analgesic.
D) Withhold any analgesic at this time and reassess the patient in 30 to 60 minutes.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the differences between pure opioid agonists and agonist-antagonist opioids. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Agonist-antagonist opioids act as agonists at mu receptors only."
B) "Agonist-antagonist opioids are effective for treating cancer pain."
C) "Agonist-antagonist opioids enhance the effects of pure agonists."
D) "Pure agonists act as agonists at both mu receptors and kappa receptors."
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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25924
Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber orders sumatriptan [Imitrex] for a patient for a migraine headache. Before administration of this drug, it would be most important for the nurse to assess whether the patient:
A) has a family history of migraines.
B) has taken acetaminophen in the past 3 hours.
C) has taken ergotamine in the past 24 hours.
D) is allergic to sulfa compounds.
Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of numbness in the extremities. The nurse notes that the patient's hands and feet are cool and pale. When conducting a health history, the nurse learns that the patient has a history of migraine headaches. The nurse recognizes this patient's symptoms as:
A) ergotamine withdrawal.
B) ergotism.
C) severe migraine symptoms.
D) sumatriptan side effects.
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Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25925
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse and a nursing student are discussing the plan of care for a patient with schizophrenia. The patient, who has been taking a high-potency FGA for 2 months, has become restless and constantly needs to be in motion. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education?
A) "Anticholinergic medications may help control these symptoms."
B) "Because this may be an exacerbation of psychosis, the provider may increase the dose of the FGA."
C) "The provider may try a low-potency FGA instead of the high-potency FGA."
D) "This patient may need to take a benzodiazepine or a beta blocker."
Q2) A patient in whom drug therapy has failed several times in the past is readmitted to a hospital to begin therapy for schizophrenia. What will the nurse do to help improve adherence?
A) Encourage the patient to take responsibility for medication management.
B) Teach the patient about drug side effects and how to manage them.
C) Tell the patient that an abstinence syndrome will occur if the drug is stopped.
D) Tell the patient that the drug may be taken as needed to control symptoms.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Antidepressants
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25926
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking fluoxetine [Prozac] for 2 years and reports feeling cured of depression. The nurse learns that the patient is sleeping well, participates in usual activities, and feels upbeat and energetic most of the time. The patient's weight has returned to normal. The patient reports last having symptoms of depression at least 9 months ago. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) Indefinite drug therapy is necessary to maintain remission.
B) Discuss gradual withdrawal of the medication with the provider.
C) Stop the drug while remaining alert for the return of symptoms.
D) Take a drug holiday to see whether symptoms recur.
Q2) A patient taking an MAOI is seen in the clinic with a blood pressure of 170/96 mm Hg. What will the nurse ask this patient?
A) Whether any antihypertensive medications are used
B) Whether the patient drinks grapefruit juice
C) To list all foods eaten that day
D) Whether SSRIs are taken in addition to the MAOI
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34
Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25927
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient recently was diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The patient, who has a history of seasonal allergies, is an athlete who participates in track. The nurse is teaching the patient about lithium [Lithobid], which the prescriber has just ordered. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "I can continue to use ibuprofen as needed for muscle pain."
B) "I should drink extra fluids before and during exercise."
C) "I should not use antihistamines while taking lithium."
D) "I should report muscle weakness and tremors to my provider."
Q2) A patient is admitted to a hospital for treatment for first-time symptoms of mania and is exhibiting euphoric mania. Which medication will the provider order?
A) Lithium [Lithobid]
B) Olanzapine [Zyprexa]
C) Risperidone [Risperdal]
D) Divalproex sodium [Valproate]
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Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25928
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of depression and suicidal ideation is taking fluoxetine [Prozac]. The patient reports difficulty maintaining sleep and is prescribed secobarbital [Seconal] as a sedative-hypnotic. The nurse preparing this patient for discharge from the hospital will:
A) contact the provider to suggest an order for ramelteon [Rozerem].
B) instruct the patient to use alcohol in moderation.
C) request an order to change to trazodone [Desyrel] for sleep.
D) suggest that the patient try alternative remedies for sleep.
Q2) A patient is brought to the emergency department by friends, who say that they were at a party where alcohol and a mix of barbiturates and benzodiazepines were all available. They tell the nurse that the patient was among the first to arrive at the party, which started several hours ago. The patient is nonresponsive and has pinpoint pupils and respirations of 6 breaths per minute. After oxygen has been administered, the nurse should prepare the patient for which intervention?
A) A central nervous system stimulant and IV fluids
B) Activated charcoal and flumazenil [Romazicon]
C) Maintaining adequate oxygenation to the brain
D) Naloxone [Narcan] and a cathartic
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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25929
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a patient. The patient reports taking alprazolam [Xanax] for "nerves." The nurse knows that this patient is most likely being treated for which condition?
A) Generalized anxiety disorder
B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
C) Panic disorder
D) Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
Q2) A patient reports having occasional periods of tremors, palpitations, nausea, and a sense of fear, which usually dissipate within 30 minutes. To treat this condition, the nurse anticipates the provider will prescribe a drug in which drug class?
A) Benzodiazepines
B) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
D) Tricyclic antidepressants
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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and
Attention-Deficithyperactivity Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25930
Sample Questions
Q1) A child has been taking SD methylphenidate [Ritalin], 10 mg at 0800 and 1200 and 5 mg at 1600, for 2 months. The parents tell the nurse that the child sometimes misses the noon dose while at school. The child's appetite is normal. The teacher has reported a slight improvement in hyperactivity and impulsivity. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the prescriber whether this child could be given methylphenidate [Concerta].
B) Contact the prescriber to suggest using a nonstimulant medication.
C) Reinforce the need to take all doses as prescribed.
D) Suggest drug holidays for the child on weekends.
Q2) A nurse working in the night shift begins taking modafinil [Alertec]. The nurse is telling a coworker about the medication. Which statement is correct?
A) "I can take it during pregnancy."
B) "It doesn't have cardiovascular side effects."
C) "It is safe and has no serious adverse effects."
D) "It will not interfere with my normal sleep."
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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25931
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been taking a medication with a side effect of drowsiness stops taking the medication after several weeks. The patient reports feeling anxious and jittery. The nurse understands that this response is due to:
A) addiction.
B) psychologic dependence.
C) tolerance.
D) withdrawal syndrome.
Q2) A nurse is caring for four patients. The nurse would be concerned about which patient developing a substance use disorder?
A) A college student who reports having experimented with marijuana in the past year
B) An older adult patient with terminal cancer who requires twice the normal dose of morphine for pain relief
C) A patient in moderate to severe pain after a total hip replacement who asks for pain medication an hour before the next dose is due
D) A patient whose history indicates the use of prescription narcotic analgesics for back and headache pain
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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25932
Sample Questions
Q1) During a health history, the nurse asks a male patient about alcohol use. The patient tells the nurse that he and his wife are trying to conceive a pregnancy and he is using alcohol to lower his inhibitions. What will the nurse counsel this patient?
A) "Alcohol causes increased masculinization."
B) "Alcohol may cause testicular atrophy and sterility."
C) "Alcohol will improve your chances of conceiving."
D) "Alcohol will also help you to ejaculate."
Q2) A patient tells a nurse that she drinks wine for its cardioprotective effects. She wants to know how much is safe. The nurse is correct in telling her that:
A) "A couple of glasses of wine 1 or 2 days a week will help prevent heart disease."
B) "Abstaining from alcohol completely is the best way to prevent heart disease."
C) "If you drink only on weekends, you will minimize your risk of developing heart disease."
D) "Cardioprotective effects are greatest in people who live an unhealthy lifestyle."
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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25933
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is conducting a smoking cessation class in the community and is discussing the physiologic effects of nicotine. The nurse is correct to teach that these effects include which of the following?
A) Increased blood pressure
B) Decreased gastric acid
C) Vomiting
D) Suppression of nausea
E) Increased alertness
F) Suppression of appetite
Q2) A patient with a desire to stop smoking asks a nurse about nicotine chewing gum [Nicorette]. The patient currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Stop using the gum 6 months after you stop using cigarettes."
B) "Use the 4-mg strength gum and chew one piece every 2 to 3 hours."
C) "Use the gum whenever you feel a craving for a cigarette."
D) "You should start with 30 pieces of the 2-mg strength gum per day."
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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other
Than Alcohol and Nicotine
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25934
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department acutely intoxicated and difficult to arouse. The patient's friends tell the nurse that the patient took a handful of diazepam [Valium] pills while at a party several hours ago. The nurse will expect to administer which drug?
A) Buprenorphine [Subutex]
B) Flumazenil [Romazicon]
C) Nalmefene [Revex]
D) Naloxone [Narcan]
Q2) A pregnant patient reports using marijuana during her pregnancy. She asks the nurse whether this will affect the fetus. What should the nurse tell her?
A) Children born to patients who use marijuana will have smaller brains.
B) Neonates born to patients who use marijuana will have withdrawal syndromes.
C) Preschool-aged children born to patients who use marijuana are more likely to be hyperactive.
D) School-aged children born to patients who use marijuana often have difficulty with memory.
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42
Chapter 41: Diuretics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25935
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is brought to the emergency department with shortness of breath, a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute, intercostal retractions, and frothy, pink sputum. The nurse caring for this patient will expect to administer which drug?
A) Furosemide [Lasix]
B) Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]
C) Mannitol [Osmitrol]
D) Spironolactone [Aldactone]
Q2) A patient who is taking digoxin is admitted to the hospital for treatment of congestive heart failure. The prescriber has ordered furosemide [Lasix]. The nurse notes an irregular heart rate of 86 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 130/82 mm Hg. The nurse auscultates crackles in both lungs. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern?
A) Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL
B) Oxygen saturation of 90%
C) Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
D) Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
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43
Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25936
Sample Questions
Q1) While performing an admission assessment on a patient, the nurse learns that the patient is taking furosemide [Lasix], digoxin, and spironolactone [Aldactone]. A diet history reveals the use of salt substitutes. The patient is confused and dyspneic and complains of hand and foot tingling. Which is an appropriate nursing action for this patient?
A) Contact the provider to request orders for an electrocardiogram and serum electrolyte levels.
B) Evaluate the patient's urine output and request an order for intravenous potassium.
C) Hold the next dose of furosemide and request an order for intravenous magnesium sulfate.
D) Request an order for intravenous insulin to help this patient regulate extracellular potassium.
Q2) Which order for potassium (KCl) would the nurse question?
A) D5 1/2 NS with 20 mEq KCl to start after patient voids
B) D5 1/2 NS with 60 mEq KCl for a patient with a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
C) K-Dur, 1 tablet daily for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis
D) K-Dur, 1 tablet with a full glass of water
E) Potassium chloride, 10 mEq rapid IV push
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Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25937
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) ask for assistance when getting out of bed.
B) expect bradycardia for a few days.
C) notify the provider if headache occurs.
D) report shortness of breath.
Q2) A patient with hypertension is admitted to the hospital. On admission the patient's heart rate is 72 beats/min, and the blood pressure is 140/95 mm Hg. After administering an antihypertensive medication, the nurse notes a heart rate of 85 beats/ min and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg. What does the nurse expect to occur?
A) A decrease in the heart rate back to baseline in 1 to 2 days
B) An increase in the blood pressure within a few days
C) An increase in potassium retention in 1 to 2 days
D) A decrease in fluid retention within a week
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Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone
System
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25938
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been taking an antihypertensive medication for several years is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The prescriber changes the patient's medication to an ACE inhibitor. The patient asks the nurse why a new drug is necessary. What is the nurse's response?
A) "ACE inhibitors can prevent or reverse pathologic changes in the heart's structure."
B) "ACE inhibitors help lower LDL cholesterol and raise HDL cholesterol."
C) "ACE inhibitors increase venous return to the heart, improving cardiac output."
D) "ACE inhibitors regulate electrolytes that affect the cardiac rhythm."
Q2) A patient with hypertension is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse reviewing this patient's chart before administering the medication will be most concerned about which other disease process?
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Coronary artery disease
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Renal artery stenosis
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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient begins taking nifedipine [Procardia], along with metoprolol, to treat hypertension. The nurse understands that metoprolol is used to:
A) reduce flushing.
B) minimize gingival hyperplasia.
C) prevent constipation.
D) prevent reflex tachycardia.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving verapamil [Calan] for hypertension and digoxin [Lanoxin] for heart failure. The nurse will observe this patient for:
A) AV blockade.
B) gingival hyperplasia.
C) migraine headaches.
D) reflex tachycardia.
Q3) Which are therapeutic uses of verapamil?
A) Angina of effort
B) Cardiac dysrhythmias
C) Essential hypertension
D) Sick sinus syndrome
E) Suppression of preterm labor
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Chapter 46: Vasodilators
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25940
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is administering a vasodilator that dilates resistance vessels. The nurse understands that this drug will have which effect on the patient?
A) Decreased cardiac preload
B) Decreased cardiac output
C) Increased tissue perfusion
D) Increased ventricular contraction
Q2) A female patient with essential hypertension is being treated with hydralazine 25 mg twice daily. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 96 beats/min and a blood pressure of 110/72 mm Hg. The nurse will request an order to:
A) administer a beta blocker.
B) administer a drug that dilates veins.
C) reduce the dose of hydralazine.
D) give the patient a diuretic.
Q3) Which medications are most likely to cause postural hypotension?
A) Minoxidil
B) Diltiazem [Cardizem]
C) Prazosin [Minipress]
D) Captopril [Capoten]
E) Losartan [Cozaar]
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25941
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has had blood pressures of 150/95 and 148/90 mm Hg on two separate office visits. The patient reports a blood pressure of 145/92 mm Hg taken in an ambulatory setting. The patient's diagnostic tests are all normal. The nurse will expect this patient's provider to order:
A) a beta blocker.
B) a loop diuretic and spironolactone.
C) a thiazide diuretic.
D) counseling on lifestyle changes.
Q2) A patient takes an ACE inhibitor to treat hypertension and tells the nurse that she wants to become pregnant. She asks whether she should continue taking the medication while she is pregnant. What will the nurse tell her?
A) Controlling her blood pressure will decrease her risk of preeclampsia.
B) Ask the provider about changing to an ARB during pregnancy.
C) Continue taking the ACE inhibitor during her pregnancy.
D) Discuss using methyldopa instead while she is pregnant.
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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure
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20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25942
Sample Questions
Q1) Which medications are included in first-line therapy for heart failure?
A) Agents that inhibit the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)
B) Aldosterone antagonists
C) Beta blockers
D) Cardiac glycosides
E) Diuretics
Q2) A patient is taking a thiazide diuretic for hypertension and quinidine to treat a dysrhythmia. The prescriber orders digoxin 0.125 mg to improve this patient's cardiac output. The nurse should contact the provider to request:
A) adding spironolactone [Aldactone].
B) reducing the dose of digoxin.
C) discontinuing the quinidine.
D) giving potassium supplements.
Q3) Which are expected effects of cardiac glycosides?
A) Decreased cardiac output
B) Decreased force of contraction
C) Decreased heart rate
D) Modulation of neurohormonal systems
E) Positive inotropic effects
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber is considering prescribing the amiodarone derivative dronedarone [Multaq] for a patient with atrial flutter. The nurse should be concerned about which of the following?
A) History of asthma
B) History of hypothyroidism
C) PR interval of 260 msec
D) QT interval of 520 msec
Q2) A nurse is discussing adenosine with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Adenosine acts by suppressing action potentials in the SA and AV nodes."
B) "Adenosine can be used to prevent paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome."
C) "Adenosine has a half-life that lasts only a few seconds and must be given intravenously."
D) "Adenosine is not effective for treating atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, or ventricular dysrhythmias."
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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease: Drugs That Help
Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25944
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient taking gemfibrozil [Lopid] and rosuvastatin [Crestor] concurrently begins to complain of muscle aches, fatigue, and weakness. What should the nurse monitor?
A) For tendon tenderness
B) For a lupus-like syndrome
C) The patient's liver function test results
D) The patient's creatinine kinase levels
Q2) Which is a possible benefit of taking fish-oil supplements?
A) A decrease in low-density lipoprotein and triglyceride levels
B) Decreased risk of thrombotic stroke
C) Prevention of heart disease in high-risk patients
D) Reduced risk of dysrhythmia in patients after myocardial infarction
Q3) A patient will begin taking atorvastatin [Lipitor] to treat elevated LDL levels. The patient asks the nurse what to do to minimize the risk of myositis associated with taking this drug. What will the nurse counsel this patient?
A) "Consume an increased amount of citrus fruits while taking this drug."
B) "Take vitamin D and coenzyme Q supplements."
C) "Ask your provider about adding a fibrate medication to your regimen."
D) "Have your creatine kinase levels checked every 4 weeks."
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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris
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17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25945
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking a calcium channel blocker (CCB) for stable angina. The patient's spouse asks how calcium channel blockers relieve pain. The nurse will explain that CCBs:
A) help relax peripheral arterioles to reduce afterload.
B) improve coronary artery perfusion.
C) increase the heart rate to improve myocardial contractility.
D) increase the QT interval.
Q2) A patient asks a nurse how nitroglycerin works to relieve anginal pain. The nurse correctly states, "Nitroglycerin:
A) dilates coronary arteries to increase blood flow to the heart."
B) increases the oxygen supply to the cardiac muscle."
C) increases ventricular filling to improve cardiac output."
D) promotes vasodilation, which reduces preload and oxygen demand."
Q3) A patient with variant angina wants to know why a beta blocker cannot be used to treat the angina. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "A beta<sub>1</sub>-selective beta blocker could be used for variant angina."
B) "Beta blockers do not help relax coronary artery spasm."
C) "Beta blockers do not help to improve the cardiac oxygen supply."
D) "Beta blockers promote constriction of arterial smooth muscle."
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student who is preparing to care for a postoperative patient with deep vein thrombosis asks the nurse why the patient must take heparin rather than warfarin. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Heparin has a longer half-life."
B) "Heparin has fewer adverse effects."
C) "The onset of warfarin is delayed."
D) "Warfarin prevents platelet aggregation."
Q2) A patient who has taken warfarin [Coumadin] for a year begins taking carbamazepine. The nurse will anticipate an order to:
A) decrease the dose of carbamazepine.
B) increase the dose of warfarin.
C) perform more frequent aPTT monitoring.
D) provide extra dietary vitamin K.
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Chapter 53: Management of St-Elevation Myocardial Infarction
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is discussing fibrinolytic therapy for the acute phase of STEMI management with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of this therapy?
A) "Fibrinolytics are effective when the first dose is given up to 24 hours after symptom onset."
B) "Fibrinolytics should be given once cardiac troponins reveal the presence of STEMI."
C) "Fibrinolytics should be used with caution in patients with a history of cerebrovascular accident."
D) "Patients should receive either an anticoagulant or an antiplatelet agent with a fibrinolytic drug."
Q2) A nurse is giving aspirin to a patient during acute management of STEMI. The patient asks why a chewable tablet is given. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Aspirin is absorbed more quickly when it is chewed."
B) "Chewing aspirin prevents it from being metabolized by the liver."
C) "Chewing aspirin prevents stomach irritation."
D) "More of the drug is absorbed when aspirin is chewed."
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Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25948
Sample Questions
Q1) A child with severe hemophilia A receives factor VIII. The nurse expects this drug to be given:
A) on demand when bleeding occurs.
B) on demand when plasma factor VIII activity is less than 1% above normal.
C) prophylactically once weekly to maintain normal factor VIII activity.
D) prophylactically 3 times weekly to maintain factor VIII activity above 1% of normal.
Q2) A patient with hemophilia A is undergoing a tooth extraction at the dentist's office. As an adjunct to factor VIII, what other drug should the nurse anticipate being ordered for this patient?
A) Tranexamic acid [Cyklokapron]
B) Acetaminophen [Tylenol]
C) Desmopressin [Stimate]
D) Vitamin K
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Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25949
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been prescribed oral ferrous sulfate reports taking extra doses for the past few months. The patient's serum iron level is 560 mcg/dL. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Discontinuing the ferrous sulfate and rechecking the iron level in 1 month
B) Gastric lavage and treatment for acidosis and shock
C) Giving oral deferasirox [Exjade]
D) Giving parenteral deferoxamine [Desferal]
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with moderate vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency. The nurse reviews the laboratory work and notes that the plasma B<sub>12</sub> is low; also, a Schilling test reveals B<sub>12</sub> malabsorption. The provider orders oral cyanocobalamin 500 mcg/day. The nurse will contact the provider to:
A) discuss IM dosing.
B) request an order for folic acid.
C) suggest an increased dose.
D) suggest platelet transfusion therapy.
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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25950
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of epoetin alfa to a patient and notes that the patient has a hemoglobin level of 11.7 gm/dL. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Administer the dose as ordered.
B) Hold the dose and notify the provider.
C) Request an order for a reduced dose.
D) Suggest that the provider increase the dose.
Q2) A patient with CRF who will begin receiving an erythropoiesis stimulating agent (ESA) is admitted to the hospital. The nurse notes that the patient's heart rate is 82 beats/min, and the blood pressure is 140/100 mm Hg. A complete blood count reveals a hemoglobin of 8 gm/dL and a hematocrit of 29%. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the ESA and request an order for a blood transfusion.
B) Withhold the ESA and request an order for an antihypertensive medication.
C) Request an order to increase the dose of ESA to raise the hemoglobin more quickly.
D) Suggest initiating dialysis while giving the ESA.
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58
Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25951
Sample Questions
Q1) An adolescent patient recently attended a health fair and had a serum glucose test. The patient telephones the nurse and says, "My level was 125 mg/dL. Does that mean I have diabetes?" What is the nurse's most accurate response?
A) "Unless you were fasting for longer than 8 hours, this does not necessarily mean you have diabetes."
B) "At this level, you probably have diabetes. You will need an oral glucose tolerance test this week."
C) "This level is conclusive evidence that you have diabetes."
D) "This level is conclusive evidence that you do not have diabetes."
Q2) What is the most reliable measure for assessing diabetes control over the preceding 3-month period?
A) Self-monitoring blood glucose (SMBG) graph report
B) Patient's report
C) Fasting blood glucose level
D) Glycosylated hemoglobin level
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Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25952
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in her twenties with Graves' disease who takes methimazole [Tapazole] tells a nurse that she is trying to conceive and asks about disease management during pregnancy. What will the nurse tell her?
A) Methimazole is safe to take throughout pregnancy.
B) Propylthiouracil should be taken throughout her pregnancy.
C) The patient should discuss changing to propylthiouracil from now until her second trimester with her provider.
D) The patient should discuss therapy with iodine-131 instead of medications with her provider.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism about levothyroxine [Synthroid]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should not take heartburn medication without consulting my provider."
B) "I should report insomnia, tremors, and an increased heart rate to my provider."
C) "If I take a multivitamin with iron, I should take it 4 hours after the Synthroid."
D) "If I take calcium supplements, I may need to decrease my dose of Synthroid."
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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25953
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are indications for discontinuing growth hormone (GH) therapy in children with documented growth hormone deficiency?
A) Epiphyseal closure has begun.
B) A satisfactory adult height has been achieved.
C) Serum GH levels have been normal for 12 consecutive months.
D) Normal serum growth hormone levels occur.
E) The child no longer responds to the hormone.
Q2) A nurse is providing teaching for a nondiabetic adult who develops growth hormone deficiency and who will begin treatment with somatropin [Humatrope]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Intramuscular dosing is more effective than subcutaneous dosing."
B) "I will have increased muscle mass and strength as well as increased height."
C) "I will need to monitor my blood pressure frequently while taking this drug."
D) "I will need to take insulin while using this, because it causes hyperglycemia."
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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25954
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with Cushing's syndrome has undergone surgery and radiation treatment. The nurse will expect to teach the patient about which medication?
A) Cosyntropin
B) Dexamethasone
C) Fludrocortisone acetate [Florinef]
D) Ketoconazole [Nizoral]
Q2) The nurse is providing patient education about glucocorticoid therapy to a patient preparing to be discharged home. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates understanding of glucocorticoid therapy?
A) "I will take the entire dose early with breakfast."
B) "I may take two-thirds of the dose in the morning and one-third in the afternoon."
C) "I will divide the dose in half and take half in the morning and half in the evening."
D) "I will take a dose with each meal."
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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and
Noncontraceptive Applications
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25955
Sample Questions
Q1) According to studies of estrogen/progestin therapy (EPT), what are its known benefits?
A) Cardiovascular protection in older patients
B) Decreased osteoporosis risk
C) Glycemic control
D) Improved wound healing
E) Prevention of colorectal cancer
Q2) A 50-year-old postmenopausal patient who has had a hysterectomy has moderate to severe vasomotor symptoms and is discussing estrogen therapy (ET) with the nurse. The patient is concerned about adverse effects of ET. The nurse will tell her that:
A) an estrogen-progesterone product will reduce side effects.
B) an intravaginal preparation may be best for her.
C) side effects of ET are uncommon among women of her age.
D) transdermal preparations have fewer side effects.
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Chapter 62: Birth Control
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25956
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient calls the nurse to report that she forgot to take a combination OC pill during the third week of her cycle. She tells the nurse that she missed another pill earlier that week. The nurse will tell her to:
A) continue the pack, skip the inert pills, and use an additional form of contraception for 7 days.
B) not to worry, because up to 7 days can be missed without an increased risk of pregnancy.
C) take a pill immediately, continue the pack, and use an additional form of contraception for 1 month.
D) take a pill now, continue the pack, skip the placebo pills, and start a new pack on week 4.
Q2) A nurse is discussing various ways to obtain a medical abortion with a patient. Which statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of mifepristone (RU 486) [Mifeprex]? "This drug is most effective if I use it:
A) before the first missed menstrual period."
B) the day after unprotected intercourse."
C) within 7 weeks of conception."
D) immediately after ovulation."
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Page 64
Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25957
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with infertility will begin taking menotropins [Repronex]. The nurse will evaluate this patient's history to determine whether the:
A) patient has a history of hyperinsulinemia.
B) patient has excessive prolactin secretion.
C) patient's pituitary can produce LH and FSH.
D) patient's ovaries are capable of responding to gonadotropins.
Q2) A patient receives an injection of human chorionic gonadotropin after follicular maturation has been induced with another agent. The patient comes to the clinic 2 days later complaining of headache, irritability, and fatigue. What will the nurse do?
A) Perform a urine pregnancy test.
B) Reassure the patient that these are known adverse effects.
C) Request an order for a serum estrogen level.
D) Review the patient's abdominal ultrasound.
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Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25958
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a woman who is taking tranexamic acid [Lysteda] for menorrhagia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may experience back pain or muscle cramps while taking this drug."
B) "I may take two tablets 3 times daily for up to 5 days with each period."
C) "I should take an oral contraceptive to prevent pregnancy while taking this drug."
D) "I should take this medication with food to improve absorption of the drug."
Q2) A postpartum patient is receiving methylergonovine to prevent hemorrhage. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 76 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. The patient's uterus is firm. The patient complains of mild to moderate cramping. Bleeding is minimal. What will the nurse do?
A) Continue to monitor and tell the patient to report increased cramping.
B) Notify the provider of possible uterine hypertonicity.
C) Notify the provider of the patient's blood pressure.
D) Request an order to administer the methylergonovine intravenously.
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Chapter 65: Androgens
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25959
Sample Questions
Q1) An adult male patient will begin androgen therapy for testicular failure. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the treatment regimen?
A) "I will need to have x-rays of my hands and feet every 6 months."
B) "My libido may improve while I am taking this medication."
C) "Taking this drug may lead to the development of prostate cancer."
D) "This will restore fertility, so I can have a child."
Q2) A nurse is providing education to a patient who is beginning therapy with AndroGel testosterone gel. What statement made by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should not shower or swim for at least 5 to 6 hours after application."
B) "I should avoid direct skin-to-skin contact with my spouse where the medication was applied."
C) "I should have my blood drawn for laboratory tests in 14 days."
D) "I should apply the medication to my genitals for best results."
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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign
Prostatic Hyperplasia
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25960
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia is admitted to the unit. The patient is taking multiple medications, including terazosin [Hytrin]. During the evening rounds, the patient begins to complain of dizziness and nasal congestion. Upon assessment, the patient is somnolent and has a blood pressure of 101/42 mm Hg. The nurse is correct to suspect:
A) priapism.
B) sinus infection.
C) allergic reaction.
D) adverse effects.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of sildenafil [Viagra] for erectile dysfunction. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "If my erection lasts longer than 4 hours, I should contact my provider."
B) "I should not use nitroglycerin within 12 hours of using sildenafil."
C) "I should take this drug about 15 minutes before sexual activity."
D) "This drug may cause me to have an erection when I don't want one."
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Page 68
Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25961
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is reviewing the immune system with a group of nursing students. One student asks about the difference between cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity. What should the nurse reply?
A) "Humoral immunity does not involve helper T cells in the immune response."
B) "Humoral immunity does not have a role in hypersensitivity reactions."
C) "Humoral immunity requires cytolytic T cells that attack antigens directly."
D) "Humoral immunity uses cells produced by B lymphocytes in the immune response."
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone organ transplantation. Because the sequence of amino acids in the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules of the donor is different from that of the patient, the nurse will expect to administer which class of drugs?
A) Antibiotics
B) Antihistamines
C) Immune globulins
D) Immunosuppressants
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Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25962
Sample Questions
Q1) An immigrant child is in the clinic for MMR vaccination. The nurse learns that the child has recently received an immune globulin injection for a viral infection, currently has an upper respiratory infection with a temperature of 100°F, and has a recent history of thrombocytopenia, which has resolved. What does the nurse tell the child's parents?
A) "The vaccine is contraindicated in this child because of the history of thrombocytopenia."
B) "The child should be brought back for the vaccine when the temperature is back to normal."
C) "The child is at increased risk of developing autism from this vaccine."
D) "The vaccine must be postponed for 3 months after administration of the immune globulin."
Q2) An otherwise healthy child receives a varicella virus vaccine. Three weeks later the parent calls to report that the child has a mild case of chickenpox and wonders how this could happen after the vaccination. What will the nurse tell the parent?
A) "A varicella-like rash can occur after the vaccine is given."
B) "The vaccine was probably ineffective."
C) "This represents a serious vaccine side effect."
D) "Give the child aspirin to treat any fever that may occur."
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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25963
Sample Questions
Q1) The parent of a 2-month-old infant who has just received the first dose of DTaP asks the nurse about expected reactions to the vaccine. The nurse will respond by saying that:
A) "Mild reactions, including a low-grade fever, are common."
B) "Most children do not experience any reaction."
C) "Seizures are common and may require anticonvulsant medication."
D) "The most common reaction is a rash that develops into itchy vesicles."
Q2) Which are recommended measures to help minimize pain associated with vaccine administration?
A) Administer acetaminophen or ibuprofen before the vaccine is given.
B) Apply a topical anesthetic to the injection site before the vaccine is given.
C) Give intramuscular vaccines rapidly without aspiration.
D) Have the child lie down while the vaccine is given.
E) Provide tactile stimulation as a diversion.
Q3) The parent of a child who attends day care questions the need for Varivax. What will the nurse tell the parent?
A) "Chickenpox is not as contagious as other communicable diseases."
B) "The child will be protected by herd immunity and does not need the vaccine."
C) "Varicella is an uncomfortable disease, but it is not that serious."
D) "Varicella in adults can have serious consequences."
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Chapter 70: Antihistamines
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13 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25964
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin taking fexofenadine [Allegra] for hay fever. The nurse teaching this patient will tell the patient that:
A) fexofenadine should be taken with food to prevent gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms.
B) the medication may be taken once or twice daily.
C) tolerance to sedation will occur in a few weeks.
D) with renal impairment, this drug should be taken every other day.
Q2) A family is preparing for travel and the parents report that their 5-year-old child has frequent motion sickness. The nurse will tell the parents to ask the provider about which antihistamine to help prevent symptoms?
A) Desloratadine [Clarinex]
B) Dimenhydrinate [Dramamine]
C) Hydroxyzine [Vistaril]
D) Promethazine [Phenergan]
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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal
Anti-Inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25965
Sample Questions
Q1) An older male patient with an increased risk of MI is taking furosemide [Lasix] and low-dose aspirin. The patient is admitted to the hospital, and the nurse notes an initial blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg. The patient has had a 10-pound weight gain since a previous admission 3 months earlier. The patient has voided only a small amount of concentrated urine. The serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are elevated. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) adding an antihypertensive medication.
B) obtaining serum electrolytes.
C) ordering a potassium-sparing diuretic.
D) withdrawing the aspirin.
Q2) A patient who is taking acetaminophen for pain wants to know why it does not cause gastrointestinal upset, as do other over-the-counter pain medications. The nurse will explain that this is most likely because of which property of acetaminophen?
A) It does not inhibit cyclooxygenase.
B) It has minimal effects at peripheral sites.
C) It is more similar to opioids than to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
D) It is selective for cyclooxygenase-2.
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Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25966
Sample Questions
Q1) Which disorders may be treated with glucocorticoids?
A) Allergic rhinitis
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Bronchiolitis
D) Gout
E) Ulcerative colitis
Q2) A child is to begin long-term glucocorticoid therapy. The parents ask the nurse about the effects of this drug on the child's growth. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "A smaller dose may be indicated for your child."
B) "Ask your provider about every other day dosing."
C) "Long-acting glucocorticoid preparations should prevent growth suppression."
D) "Oral glucocorticoids rarely cause growth suppression."
Q3) A patient taking high doses of a glucocorticoid develops weakness in the muscles of the upper arms and in the legs. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to ask about reducing the dose.
B) Encourage the patient to restrict sodium intake.
C) Reassure the patient that this is an expected side effect.
D) Tell the patient to stop taking the drug.
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Page 74
Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child who has juvenile idiopathic arthritis and who has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex] will begin a course of abatacept [Orencia]. What will the nurse include when teaching the child's family about this drug?
A) That abatacept and methotrexate must both be taken to be effective
B) To continue getting vaccinations during therapy with abatacept
C) That signs of infection may warrant immediate discontinuation of abatacept
D) That a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antagonist may be added if this therapy is not effective
Q2) A patient about to begin therapy with etanercept has a positive tuberculin skin test.
A chest radiograph is negative. The nurse will expect this patient to:
A) begin taking antituberculosis drugs at the beginning of treatment with etanercept.
B) have periodic chest radiographs during treatment with etanercept.
C) have regular monitoring of symptoms to detect active tuberculosis.
D) undergo tuberculosis treatment prior to beginning etanercept treatment.
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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25968
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has gout will begin taking febuxostat [Uloric] and colchicine. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this drug regimen?
A) "You are taking both drugs in order to prevent hepatic side effects."
B) "You may stop taking the febuxostat after your uric acid levels decrease."
C) "You will have to take both drugs indefinitely to treat your symptoms."
D) "You will stop taking the colchicine within 6 months after starting therapy."
Q2) A patient with gout who has increasingly frequent acute gouty attacks will begin receiving allopurinol [Zyloprim] and colchicine. The nurse will include which statement when teaching the patient about this drug regimen?
A) "Allopurinol helps reduce the gastrointestinal side effects of colchicine."
B) "Allopurinol reduces the likelihood of gouty episodes that usually occur with initial colchicine therapy."
C) "The colchicine is given to enhance the effects of the allopurinol."
D) "You will take both drugs initially and then stop taking the colchicine."
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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone
Mineralization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient taking risedronate IR [Actonel] for osteoporosis reports experiencing diarrhea and headaches. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) These are common side effects of this drug.
B) These symptoms indicate serious toxicity.
C) The patient should discuss taking risedronate DR [Atelvia] with the provider.
D) The medication should be taken after a meal to reduce symptoms.
Q2) A patient who has developed postmenopausal osteoporosis will begin taking alendronate [Fosamax]. The nurse will teach this patient to take the drug:
A) at bedtime to minimize adverse effects.
B) for a maximum of 1 to 2 years.
C) while sitting upright with plenty of water.
D) with coffee or orange juice to increase absorption.
Q3) A nurse is providing education to a patient who will begin taking alendronate [Fosamax]. Which complication should the patient be instructed to report immediately?
A) Difficulty swallowing
B) Dizziness
C) Drowsiness
D) Pallor
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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25970
Sample Questions
Q1) A 7-year-old child with asthma uses a daily inhaled glucocorticoid and an albuterol MDI as needed. The provider has added montelukast [Singulair] to the child's regimen. Which statement by the child's parent indicates understanding of this medication?
A) "I may notice mood changes in my child."
B) "I should give this medication twice daily."
C) "I will give my child one 4-mg chewable tablet daily."
D) "This drug can alleviate symptoms during an acute attack."
Q2) A patient who takes oral theophylline [Theochron] twice daily for chronic stable asthma develops an infection and will take ciprofloxacin. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) changing to a different antibiotic.
B) reducing the theophylline dose.
C) giving theophylline once daily.
D) switching from theophylline to a LABA.
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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25971
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has a viral upper respiratory infection reports having a runny nose and a cough that prevents sleep and asks the nurse to recommend an over-the-counter medication. Which medication will the nurse recommend?
A) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl]
B) Fexofenadine/pseudoephedrine [Allegra-D]
C) Guaifenesin [Mucinex]
D) Phenylephrine drops
Q2) A patient with allergic rhinitis is taking a compound product of loratadine/pseudoephedrine [Claritin-D] every 12 hours. The patient complains of insomnia. The nurse notes that the patient is restless and anxious. The patient's heart rate is 90 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to:
A) discuss using an intranasal glucocorticoid and loratadine [Claritin].
B) report acute toxicity caused by pseudoephedrine.
C) suggest using an agent with a sympathomimetic drug only.
D) suggest using a topical decongestant to minimize systemic symptoms.
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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease
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14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25972
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) receives a prescription for a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) medication. What will the nurse include when teaching the patient about this drug?
A) "The FDA has determined that there is a gastric cancer risk with this drug."
B) "This drug will be given on a short-term basis only."
C) "You may experience hypermagnesemia when taking this drug."
D) "You should report any fever and cough to your provider."
Q2) The nurse is providing education to a patient who has been prescribed both an antacid and a cimetidine [Tagamet]. Which instruction should the nurse give the patient about taking the medications?
A) "Take the antacid 1 hour after the ranitidine."
B) "The antacid and ranitidine should be taken at the same time for better effect."
C) "Take the antacid 15 minutes before the ranitidine."
D) "Take the antacid 30 minutes after the ranitidine."
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Chapter 79: Laxatives
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15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25973
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with lower abdominal pain and nausea. The nurse performing the initial assessment notes that the patient's abdomen is distended and firm, and hypoactive bowel sounds are present. The patient has not had a stool for 3 days. The nurse will contact the provider, who will:
A) order a bulk-forming laxative.
B) order extra fluids and fiber.
C) perform diagnostic tests.
D) prescribe a cathartic laxative.
Q2) Which laxatives may be used safely in infants?
A) Castor oil
B) Docusate sodium (Colace)
C) Glycerin suppositories
D) Lactulose
E) Milk of magnesia
Q3) A nurse receives an order to administer castor oil to a patient. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Administer the medication at bedtime.
B) Chill the medication and mix it with fruit juice.
C) Provide teaching about home use of this medication.
D) Teach the patient that the effects will occur slowly.
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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25974
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking bismuth subsalicylate [Pepto-Bismol] to prevent diarrhea. The nurse performing an assessment notes that the patient's tongue is black. What will the nurse do?
A) Assess further for signs of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding.
B) Reassure the patient that this is an expected side effect of this drug.
C) Request an order for liver function tests to evaluate for hepatotoxicity.
D) Withhold the drug, because this is a sign of bismuth overdose.
Q2) A nurse is providing teaching to a nursing student about to care for a woman with irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea (IBS-D) who is receiving alosetron [Lotronex].
Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should evaluate the patient's abdomen for distension and bowel sounds."
B) "Patients with diverticulitis and IBS-C may take this drug."
C) "This drug can cause ischemic colitis in some patients."
D) "This drug is given only to women with severe IBS-D."
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82
Chapter 81: Vitamins
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25975
Sample Questions
Q1) Which B vitamin deficiency is associated with cheilosis, glossitis, vascularization of the cornea, and itchy dermatitis of the scrotum and vulva?
A) Niacin (nicotinic acid)
B) Pyridoxine (vitamin B<sub>6</sub>)
C) Riboflavin (vitamin B<sub>2</sub>)
D) Thiamine (vitamin B<sub>1</sub>)
Q2) A patient who is known to be a heavy drinker is brought to the emergency department, with ataxia and confusion. The patient cannot remember the events of the previous day. The examination reveals nystagmus, and the patient reports having double vision. The nurse will expect to administer which vitamin to this patient?
A) Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) IV
B) Intramuscular pyridoxine (vitamin B<sub>6</sub>)
C) Intravenous thiamine (vitamin B<sub>1</sub>)
D) Nicotinic acid (niacin) PO
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83
Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25976
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse performing an admission history on a patient learns that the patient is taking orlistat [Xenical], warfarin [Coumadin], and levothyroxine [Synthroid]. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to discuss increasing the warfarin dose.
B) Give the levothyroxine at least 4 hours before giving the orlistat.
C) Suggest that the patient avoid fatty foods while taking these medications.
D) Tell the patient to take the orlistat on an empty stomach.
Q2) A 50-year-old patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 26 and a waist circumference (WC) of 37 who smokes asks a nurse about drugs for weight loss. She tells the nurse, "I keep trying to eat less, but it doesn't work." What will the nurse do?
A) Ask her to begin keeping a log of her food intake and activities.
B) Counsel her to quit smoking to reduce her health risk.
C) Suggest she begin walking every day to increase the number of calories burned.
D) Tell her she is a candidate for drug therapy and suggest she contact her provider.
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84
Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25977
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a pharmacology refresher course to a group of nurses. A student asks what host factors affect the choice of agents in antimicrobial therapy. The nurse will tell the students that such host factors include what?
A) Age
B) Gender
C) Immune system status
D) Infection site
E) Weight
Q2) A parent asks a nurse if the provider will prescribe an antibiotic for a child who attends school with several children who have strep throat. The child is complaining of a sore throat and has a fever. What will be the nurse's response?
A) "Because strep throat is likely, your child should be treated empirically."
B) "With good hand washing, your child should not get strep throat."
C) "Your child probably has strep throat, so your provider will order an antibiotic."
D) "Your child should come to the clinic to have a throat culture done today."
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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:
Penicillins
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25978
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer intramuscular penicillin to a patient who is infected with Treponema pallidum and notes that the order is for sodium penicillin G. Which action is correct?
A) Administer the drug as prescribed.
B) Contact the provider to discuss administering the drug intravenously.
C) Contact the provider to discuss changing the drug to benzathine penicillin G.
D) Request an order for piperacillin instead of penicillin G.
Q2) A child with an ear infection is not responding to treatment with amoxicillin [Amoxil]. The nurse will expect the provider to order:
A) amoxicillin-clavulanic acid [Augmentin].
B) ampicillin.
C) nafcillin.
D) penicillin G [Benzylpenicillin].
Q3) Which organisms can be treated with penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)?
A) Methicillin-resistant S. aureus
B) Neisseria meningitidis
C) P. aeruginosa
D) S. pyogenes
E) T. pallidum
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Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall Ii:
Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, Teicoplanin, and Fosfomycin
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25979
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a nursing student what is meant by "generations" of cephalosporins. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Cephalosporins are assigned to generations based on their relative costs to administer."
B) "Cephalosporins have increased activity against gram-negative bacteria with each generation."
C) "First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration of the cerebrospinal fluid."
D) "Later generations of cephalosporins have lower resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases."
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving vancomycin [Vancocin]. The nurse notes that the patient is experiencing flushing, rash, pruritus, and urticaria. The patient's heart rate is 120 beats/min, and the blood pressure is 92/57 mm Hg. The nurse understands that these findings are consistent with:
A) allergic reaction.
B) red man syndrome.
C) rhabdomyolysis.
D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:
Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25980
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing teaching for a patient who will begin taking clarithromycin ER [Biaxin XL] to treat an Helicobacter pylori infection. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I may experience distorted taste when taking this medication."
B) "I should take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days."
C) "I should take this medication on an empty stomach."
D) "This medication does not interact with other drugs."
Q2) A patient who has been taking linezolid [Zyvox] for 6 months develops vision problems. What will the nurse do?
A) Reassure the patient that this is a harmless side effect of this drug.
B) Tell the patient that blindness is likely to occur with this drug.
C) Tell the patient that this symptom is reversible when the drug is discontinued.
D) Tell the patient to take tyramine supplements to minimize this effect.
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88
Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25981
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection that is sensitive to aminoglycosides, and the prescriber orders gentamicin. The patient tells the nurse that a friend received amikacin [Amikin] for a similar infection and wonders why amikacin was not ordered. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) "Amikacin is given when infectious agents are resistant to other aminoglycosides."
B) "Amikacin is more vulnerable to inactivation by bacterial enzymes."
C) "Amikacin is a narrow-spectrum drug and will probably not work for this infection."
D) "Gentamicin is less toxic to the ears and the kidneys."
Q2) A patient who is taking gentamicin and a cephalosporin for a postoperative infection requests medication for mild postsurgical pain. The nurse will expect to administer which of the following medications?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Aspirin
C) Ibuprofen
D) Morphine
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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25982
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will be discharged from the hospital with a prescription for TMP/SMZ [Bactrim]. When providing teaching for this patient, the nurse will tell the patient that it will be important to:
A) drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day.
B) eat foods that are high in potassium.
C) take the medication with food.
D) take folic acid supplements.
Q2) A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus takes glipizide. The patient develops a urinary tract infection, and the prescriber orders TMP/SMZ. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Patients with diabetes have an increased risk of an allergic reaction.
B) Patients taking TMP/SMZ may need increased doses of glipizide.
C) The patient should check the blood glucose level more often while taking TMP/SMZ.
D) The patient should stop taking the glipizide while taking the TMP/SMZ.
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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25983
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a positive urine culture 1 week after completion of a 3-day course of antibiotics. The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will:
A) begin a 2-week course of antibiotics.
B) evaluate for a structural abnormality of the urinary tract.
C) initiate long-term prophylaxis with low-dose antibiotics.
D) treat the patient with intravenous antibiotics.
Q2) A patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of chills, severe flank pain, dysuria, and urinary frequency. The patient has a temperature of 102.9°F, a pulse of 92 beats/min, respirations of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 119/58 mm Hg. The nurse would be correct to suspect that the patient shows signs and symptoms of:
A) acute cystitis.
B) urinary tract infection.
C) pyelonephritis.
D) prostatitis.
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Chapter 90: Antimycobacterial Agents: Drugs for
Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium Avium Complex
Infection
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25984
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is performing a physical assessment on a patient with tuberculosis who takes rifampin [Rifadin]. What would be an expected finding?
A) Crystalluria
B) Myopathy
C) Peripheral neuropathy
D) Red-orange-tinged urine
Q2) A patient is about to begin therapy with ethambutol. The nurse knows that, before initiating treatment with this drug, it is important to obtain which test(s)?
A) Color vision and visual acuity
B) Complete blood cell (CBC) count
C) Hearing testing and a tympanogram
D) Hepatic function tests
Q3) A patient is beginning treatment for active tuberculosis (TB) in a region with little drug-resistant TB. Which treatment regimen will be used initially?
A) Isoniazid and pyrazinamide
B) Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
C) Rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
Page 92
D) Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
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Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:
Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25985
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will receive oral ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to treat a urinary tract infection. The nurse provides teaching for this patient. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may have abdominal pain and nausea, but these are usually mild."
B) "I should take this medication with food or milk to improve absorption."
C) "I should stop taking the medication immediately if I experience heel pain."
D) "I will need to use sunscreen every time I go outdoors."
Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer an antibiotic to a patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse would expect the healthcare provider to order which antibiotic?
A) Daptomycin [Cubicin]
B) Levofloxacin [Levaquin]
C) Norfloxacin [Noroxin]
D) Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]
Q3) Which fluoroquinolone antibiotics may be administered to children?
A) Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]
B) Levofloxacin [Levaquin]
C) Moxifloxacin [Avelox]
D) Norfloxacin [Noroxin]
E) Ofloxacin
Page 93
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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25986
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin treatment with posaconazole [Noxafil] to treat oropharyngeal candidiasis that has not responded to fluconazole. The provider has ordered 200 mg 3 times daily. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Administer the drug as ordered.
B) Contact the provider to discuss decreasing the dose to twice daily.
C) Discuss a 400-mg twice daily drug regimen with the provider.
D) Suggest to the provider that this dose may be too high for this indication.
Q2) A patient who is taking ketoconazole tells the nurse that her periods have become irregular. What will the nurse tell her?
A) This indicates that she should begin taking oral contraceptives.
B) This is caused by a reversible effect on estradiol synthesis.
C) This is a serious side effect that warrants discontinuation of the drug.
D) This is a sign of hepatic toxicity, and the drug dose should be lowered.
Q3) A patient has an invasive aspergillosis infection. Which antifungal agent is the drug of choice for this infection?
A) Amphotericin B
B) Fluconazole [Diflucan]
C) Posaconazole [Noxafil]
D) Voriconazole [Vfend]
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Page 95
Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-Hiv Viral
Infections
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25987
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with HIV contracts herpes simplex virus (HSV), and the prescriber orders acyclovir [Zovirax] 400 mg PO twice daily for 10 days. After 7 days of therapy, the patient reports having an increased number of lesions. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) extend this patient's drug therapy to twice daily for 12 months.
B) give intravenous foscarnet every 8 hours for 2 to 3 weeks.
C) increase the acyclovir dose to 800 mg PO 5 times daily.
D) order intravenous valacyclovir [Valtrex] 1 gm PO twice daily for 10 days.
Q2) A patient with HIV and mucocutaneous HSV is being treated with foscarnet after failing treatment with acyclovir. After 2 weeks, the patient's dose is increased to 90 mg/kg over 2 hours from 40 mg/kg over 1 hour. The patient reports numbness in the extremities and perioral tingling. What will the nurse do?
A) Notify the provider and request an order for a serum calcium level.
B) Notify the provider of potential foscarnet overdose.
C) Request an order for a creatinine clearance level.
D) Request an order of IV saline to be given before the next dose.
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25988
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to discharge a patient with HIV who will continue to take enfuvirtide [Fuzeon] at home. The nurse is providing patient education about the medication. What information about the administration of enfuvirtide is most appropriate for the patient?
A) The importance of injecting the drug into two alternating sites daily
B) How to reconstitute and self-administer a subcutaneous injection
C) The importance of taking the drug with high doses of vitamin E
D) Likely drug interactions between enfuvirtide and other antiretroviral drugs
Q2) The nurse asks a graduate nurse, "When a patient in the initial phase of HIV infection is assessed, which findings would you expect to see?" The graduate nurse would be correct to respond with which conditions?
A) Respiratory distress
B) Fever
C) Myalgia
D) Lymphadenopathy
E) Insomnia
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Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25989
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient admitted to the hospital is using metronidazole [Flagyl] 0.75% gel. The nurse understands that this agent is used to treat which condition?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Gardnerella vaginalis
C) Haemophilus ducreyi
D) Trichomonas vaginalis
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of adolescent students about sexually transmitted diseases. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of infections caused by C. trachomatis?
A) "C. trachomatis conjunctivitis in newborns can result in blindness."
B) "The CDC recommends screening for chlamydial infections in all sexually active men."
C) "Treatment for C. trachomatis should be initiated when infections are symptomatic."
D) "Women with asymptomatic Chlamydia trachomatis infections can become sterile."
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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25990
Sample Questions
Q1) Which compound can be used to treat localized skin infections and to irrigate wounds?
A) Benzalkonium chloride (BAC)
B) Hexachlorophene (pHisoHex)
C) Oxychlorosene sodium (Clorpactin WCS90)
D) Sodium hypochlorite
Q2) For which patient would a topical antiseptic be most appropriate?
A) A patient with a systemic infection
B) A patient with a medium-sized abscess
C) A patient who has a wound with moderate exudate
D) A patient who needs to have wounds cleansed for prophylaxis
Q3) A student has just performed a physical assessment on a patient who has an infection with B. anthracis. The student uses an alcohol hand rub while preparing to leave the room. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Ask the student to wash with soap and water before exiting the room.
B) Discuss the matter with the student later in a quiet area.
C) No action is required.
D) Report the student's action to the instructor.
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Chapter 97: Anthelmintics
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25991
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with strongyloidiasis is being treated with ivermectin [Stromectol]. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient?
A) A Mazotti-type reaction is likely.
B) Hypotension is a common side effect of the drug.
C) The drug should be taken every 6 to 12 months until symptoms have cleared.
D) The drug should be taken with water for 1 to 2 days.
Q2) A patient who is being treated for onchocerciasis with ivermectin [Stromectol] has a Mazotti reaction. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect?
A) Fever
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Rash with pruritus
D) Blurred vision
E) Bone and joint pain
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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25992
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the two most common forms of malaria, Plasmodium vivax malaria and Plasmodium falciparum malaria. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Once erythrocyte forms of P. falciparum are eliminated, relapse will not occur."
B) "Patients with P. vivax malaria experience relapse with increased frequency over time."
C) "Patients with P. falciparum malaria experience symptoms at irregular intervals."
D) "Patients with P. vivax malaria rarely encounter drug resistance."
Q2) Which are adverse effects of quinine [Qualaquin]?
A) Cinchonism
B) Hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency
C) Increased ventricular rate
D) Nightmares
E) Prolonged QT interval
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Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25993
Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-kg pediatric patient is being treated for toxoplasmosis, and the provider orders pyrimethamine [Daraprim] 10 mg twice daily. The nurse caring for this patient will anticipate which additional order from the provider?
A) Administer 10 to 15 mg of folinic acid with each dose of pyrimethamine.
B) Give the medication intravenously over 30 to 45 minutes.
C) Increase the dose to 20 mg twice daily after 2 to 4 days.
D) Teach the family to monitor for muscle pain and joint stiffness.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with severe symptomatic intestinal amebiasis who has just completed a 10-day course of metronidazole [Flagyl]. Which medication would the nurse expect to be ordered for the patient?
A) Atovaquone [Mepron]
B) Iodoquinol [Yodoxin]
C) Nitazoxanide [Alinia]
D) Pentamidine [Pentam]
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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25994
Sample Questions
Q1) Two days after a child is treated with permethrin [Nix] for head lice, a parent calls the clinic to report seeing nits and a few live lice on the child's scalp. The nurse will tell the parent to:
A) ask the provider about using benzyl alcohol [Ulesfia].
B) cut the areas of the child's hair where nits are present.
C) retreat the child's hair with permethrin [Nix].
D) use a fine-toothed comb to remove nits and live lice.
Q2) A patient who has scabies is treated with permethrin 5% cream. The patient calls the nurse 1 week after treatment to report continued intense itching. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "This is a hypersensitivity reaction to the permethrin."
B) "This is the body's normal response to the scabies mites."
C) "You will need a second treatment of the permethrin."
D) "You will need to take ivermectin to clear up the infestation."
Q3) Which patient should not use lindane?
A) A child with a history of seizures
B) A patient who has used lindane in the past 2 months
C) A person who weighs 115 pounds
D) A person with an autoimmune disorder
E) A person with atopic dermatitis
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Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25995
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has just been diagnosed with cancer and will begin chemotherapy. The patient asks the nurse about the possibility of nausea and vomiting. The nurse will tell the patient that:
A) nausea and vomiting can be avoided by having a snack before chemotherapy.
B) nausea and vomiting are common side effects and will abate over time.
C) nausea and vomiting are common and will be treated with antiemetics when they occur.
D) the provider will order drugs to help prevent nausea and vomiting before each dose.
Q2) These patients are receiving chemotherapy. Which patient should the nurse see first?
A) The patient with lightly bleeding gums
B) The patient with nausea and vomiting
C) The patient with a fever of 100.3°F
D) The patient with diarrhea and stomatitis
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Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25996
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient who will undergo chemotherapy with fluorouracil [Adrucil] to treat a solid tumor. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this chemotherapeutic agent's actions?
A) "Fluorouracil acts to deprive cancer cells of thymidylate needed to make DNA."
B) "Fluorouracil causes accumulation of adenosine, which inhibits DNA synthesis."
C) "Fluorouracil disrupts the biosynthesis of nucleic acids."
D) "Fluorouracil inhibits DNA polymerase in cancer cells."
Q2) A patient who has a brain tumor will receive a nitrosourea agent. A nursing student asks why this type of drug is used for this type of cancer. The nurse will tell the student that nitrosoureas are useful because they:
A) are lipophilic.
B) are bifunctional alkylating agents.
C) have a broad spectrum of antineoplastic characteristics.
D) have delayed bone marrow suppression.
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Page 105
Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,
Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25997
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient in the oncology unit who was recently diagnosed with advanced renal carcinoma. The nurse prepares to administer aldesleukin [Proleukin] as part of the treatment regimen. What is the primary adverse effect of this drug?
A) Hypertension
B) Capillary leakage syndrome
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Hyperuricemia
Q2) A patient with advanced prostate cancer will begin treatment with leuprolide [Lupron]. The provider has ordered flutamide to be given as adjunct therapy. The patient asks the nurse why both drugs are necessary. The nurse will tell the patient that:
A) flutamide reduces the side effects, such as hot flushes, caused by leuprolide.
B) flutamide suppresses initial tumor flare caused by leuprolide.
C) leuprolide helps to reduce the toxicity of flutamide.
D) the combination of both drugs increases cancer survival.
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Page 106
Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25998
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse administers timolol [Timoptic] ophthalmic drops to a patient who has glaucoma. The patient reports stinging of the eyes shortly after the drops were administered. What will the nurse do?
A) Monitor the patient's heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure.
B) Notify the provider that the patient shows signs of angle-closure glaucoma.
C) Reassure the patient that these are localized, reversible effects of the drug.
D) Request an order for an antihistamine to treat this allergic response to the drug.
Q2) A nurse in an ophthalmology clinic instills an anticholinergic agent into a patient's eyes. The nurse provides teaching when the patient asks the reason for the drops. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "The drops help prevent my lenses from moving during the exam."
B) "The drops will cause me to have blurred vision and sensitivity to light."
C) "These drops allow the ophthalmologist to see inside my eyes."
D) "This medication anesthetizes my eyes so that the exam won't be painful."
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107
Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25999
Sample Questions
Q1) An adolescent patient with moderate acne has begun a regimen consisting of combination clindamycin/benzoyl peroxide [BenzaClin] and tretinoin [Retin-A]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication regimen?
A) "I should apply the Retin-A immediately after bathing."
B) "I should apply the Retin-A twice daily."
C) "I should augment this therapy with an abrasive soap."
D) "I should use sunscreen every day."
Q2) A patient with severe psoriasis will begin taking acitretin [Soriatane]. The nurse obtains a health history and learns that the patient takes a combination oral contraceptive. What will the nurse do?
A) Counsel the patient to use another form of birth control along with the OCP.
B) Tell the patient she may stop using contraception when the medication is withdrawn.
C) Tell the patient that acitretin is safe to take during pregnancy.
D) Tell the patient to report spotting to the provider so that another form of contraceptive may be ordered.
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Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26000
Sample Questions
Q1) A 6-year-old child has otitis media and is being treated with amoxicillin [Amoxil] and ibuprofen [Motrin]. The child's parent calls the nurse to report that the child's pain is not relieved with the ibuprofen. The child is afebrile and there is no drainage from either ear. The nurse will discuss which additional treatment with the child's provider?
A) Adding acetaminophen [Tylenol] to the pain medication regimen
B) Applying antipyrine and benzocaine [Aurodex] solution to the ear canals
C) Changing the antibiotic to amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]
D) Performing a tympanostomy to relieve pressure in the middle ear
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with fungal otitis externa (otomycosis). The nurse correctly explains that for the first course of treatment the patient should expect:
A) acidifying drops for 1 week.
B) antibiotic ear drops.
C) intravenous (IV) antifungal agents.
D) oral antibiotics.
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Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26001
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse counsels a patient who is to begin taking gamma-hydroxybutyrate [Xyrem] for narcolepsy. It is important for the nurse to warn the patient that respiratory depression is a potential risk with concomitant use of:
A) alcohol.
B) beta blockers.
C) caffeine.
D) nicotine.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a premature infant who has received poractant alfa [Curosurf] 2.5 mL/kg via direct intratracheal instillation to prevent respiratory distress syndrome. The infant demonstrated initial improvement after the dose but has begun to deteriorate. Which treatment will the nurse expect the neonatologist to order?
A) A repeat dose of 1.25 mL/kg of poractant alfa
B) A repeat dose of 2.5 mL/kg of poractant alfa
C) A repeat dose of 5 mL/kg of poractant alfa
D) Administration of high-dose glucocorticoids
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110
Chapter 108: Complementary and Alternative Therapy
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26002
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse what companies are allowed to put on products which are considered alternative use drugs. Which general statements can be included on the label?
A) Energizes and rejuvenates.
B) Protects against cancer.
C) Improves symptoms of Alzheimer's disease.
D) Relieves menopausal hot flashes.
Q2) A patient will begin taking drugs for hyperlipidemia. The patient asks about using flaxseed supplements to increase fiber. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) Not to use defatted flaxseed
B) That flaxseed helps with the absorption of medications
C) That flaxseed is not recommended
D) To take the flaxseed 1 hour before taking the drug
Q3) Which claim may be made by manufacturers of dietary supplements?
A) "Energizes and rejuvenates."
B) "Promotes pulmonary health."
C) "Reduces pain and stiffness from arthritis."
D) "Reduces stress."
E) "Relieves hot flashes associated with menopause."
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Page 111
Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26003
Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber has ordered deferasirox [Exjade] to treat iron overload associated with chronic blood transfusions. The nurse learns that the patient takes cholestyramine to reduce cholesterol. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order to:
A) increase the cholestyramine dose.
B) increase the deferasirox dose.
C) monitor cholesterol levels.
D) monitor liver function tests.
Q2) A child is admitted to the hospital after a routine lead screen reveals an elevated serum lead level. The prescriber has ordered edetate calcium disodium (calcium EDTA) as a chelating agent. During this drug treatment, the nurse will expect to:
A) collect a daily urine specimen.
B) give the medication on an empty stomach.
C) monitor the child's heart rate and blood pressure.
D) request orders for liver function tests.
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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26004
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks a nurse about who is eligible to receive anthrax vaccine [BioThrax]. The nurse will respond by saying that which groups of people would be candidates for this vaccine?
A) Hospital personnel
B) Laboratory workers
C) Military personnel
D) Nursing home residents
E) Veterinarians
Q2) A group of people has been exposed to ricin by inhalation of ricin mist. When preparing to receive these victims in the emergency department, nurses will prepare to:
A) administer antidotes.
B) give chelating agents.
C) provide respiratory support.
D) start hemodialysis.
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