Course Introduction
Principles of Drug Action Test Questions
Principles of Drug Action explores the fundamental mechanisms by which drugs produce effects in the body, examining the interactions between chemical agents and biological systems. The course covers key concepts such as pharmacodynamics, which investigates how drugs interact with cellular receptors and tissues to elicit therapeutic and toxic responses, and pharmacokinetics, which delves into the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs. Students will gain a comprehensive understanding of factors that influence drug action, including dose-response relationships, drug-receptor binding, and individual patient variability. This foundational course equips learners with the critical skills necessary for understanding drug behavior, therapeutic efficacy, and safety considerations in clinical practice and drug development.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology An Introduction 6th Edition by Henry Hitner
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Pharmacology: An Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a graded dose-response curve,one would expect a more potent medication to cause the curve to shift in what direction?
A)Up
B)Down
C)Left
D)Right
Answer: C
Q2) Taking two aspirin tablets instead of one will always result in:
A) Two times the analgesic effect
B) An enhanced analgesic effect
C) No change in analgesic effect
D) Toxicity
Answer: B
Q3) The nonproprietary name of a medication is also known as the:
A) Trade name
B) Generic name
C) Chemical name
D) None of these are correct.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics and Factors of Individual
Variation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare the routes of administration based on the parameters of patient safety and ease of drug use in order to select the correct route of administration for a patient with a busy lifestyle and a hectic schedule.
A) Parenteral administration
B) Oral administration
C) Topical administration
D) Inhalation administration
Answer: B
Q2) Identify the dosage form that contains dried and finely ground drugs or drug extract.
A) Powders
B) Tablets
C) Troches
D) Capsules
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Geriatric Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How would an elderly patient who smokes and consumes alcohol tolerate an adult-strength dose of actively oxidized medication compared to an elderly patient who did neither of these activities?
A) Could not tolerate
B) Would tolerate the same
C) Would tolerate better
D) Would need a higher dose
Answer: C
Q2) The pharmacokinetic process most affected by age is:
A) Absorption
B) Metabolism
C) Distribution
D) Elimination
Answer: D
Q3) An elderly woman taking calcium supplements could improve absorption by:
A) Taking medication on an empty stomach
B) Increasing the medication dosage
C) Increasing the medication frequency
D) Taking medication with food
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Math Review and Dosage Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the correct number of drops per minute to be administered for a 1200-ml IV given over 5 hours using an administration set labeled 10 drops per ml.
A) 400 drops/minute
B) 240 drops/minute
C) 40 drops/minute
D) 4 drops/minute
Q2) Select the correct volume of the drug required to administer a dosage of 8 mg/kg for a patient who weighs 66 lbs and is 10 years old.The drug is available as a 2-gram,which will be mixed in enough water to make 100 ml of final solution (W/V).
A) 12 ml
B) 20 ml
C) 37 ml
D) 42 ml
Q3) Match the set of examples to the definition of a ratio.
A) 2.1, 3.5, 2.9
B) 1:5, 4:10, 10:100
C) The 3 in 3/4 or the 9 in 9/11
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 5: Introduction to the Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurons innervating increased heart rate and breathing originate from the:
A) Cranial and sacral regions
B) Lumbar and sacral regions
C) Thoracic and lumbar regions
D) Cranial and lumbar regions
Q2) The ultimate purpose of the autonomic nervous system is to:
A)Increase the action of involuntary muscles in the body
B)Increase the action of voluntary muscle in the body
C)Maintain blood pressure in the body
D)Maintain homeostasis in the body
Q3) A patient with tachycardia is experiencing:
A) Parasympathetic activation
B) Parasympathetic inhibition
C) Sympathetic activation
D) Sympathetic inhibition
Q4) Activation of the parasympathetic division will not directly reduce:
A) GI motility
B) Blood pressure
C) Urinary motility
D) Skeletal muscle contraction
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Chapter 6: Drugs Affecting the Sympathetic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Use the low-dose range of 0.5-2 mcg/kg/min to determine the appropriate dose range of dopamine that would result in vasodilation and increased renal blood flow for a patient who weighs 132 pounds.
A) 0.3-6.2 mg/hr
B) 1-4.5 mg/hr
C) 1.8-7.2 mg/hr
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Analyze the major adrenergic effects of the alpha drug class,and select the main drug effect that the alpha drugs have on the alpha-2 receptor site.
A) Negative feedback effect to decrease the release of epinephrine.
B) Negative feedback effect to decrease the release of norepinephrine.
C) Vasoconstriction of the smooth muscle.
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) The alpha and beta agonists are also known as sympathomimetics.You can conclude that these agonists:
A) Produce effects similar to the sympathetic nervous system
B) Produce effects similar to the parasympathetic nervous system
C) Produce effects similar to the cardiovascular system
D) None of these are correct.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Drugs Affecting the Parasympathetic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Indirect-acting anticholinesterase drugs are effective at treating glaucoma because they produce:
A) Mydriasis
B) Miosis
C) Cycloplegia
D) Diplopia
Q2) The injection of botulinin toxin will affect which type of cholinergic receptor?
A) Ganglionic
B) Muscarinic
C) Nicotinic-m
D) Nicotinic-n
Q3) What is a desirable property that would need to be enhanced in developing a new direct-acting cholinergic drug?
A) Longer duration of action
B) Shorter duration of action
C) Quicker absorption
D) Quicker elimination
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Ganglia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Match the drug preparation verenicline with the correct trade name:
A) Zyban
B) Commit
C) Chantix
D) Wellbutrin SR
Q2) A patient complains of weakness,dizziness,and feelings of faintness when standing up.Using your knowledge of ganglionic stimulants and blockers,you determine from the patient's medication profile that the drug that is probably causing these adverse effects is:
A) Mecamylamine
B) Buproprion
C) Chantix
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Integrating a nicotine replacement product while the patient continues to indulge in smoking cigarettes could lead to:
A) Toxic doses of nicotine in the body
B) Ganglionic blockade
C) Decreased respiratory function
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 9: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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Q1) Which of the following would be observed from a low dose of a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant used to promote a neuromuscular blockade?
A) Relaxation of facial muscles
B) Relaxation of arms and legs
C) Relaxation of trunk muscles
D) Relaxation of diaphragm
Q2) Two types of receptors that can be manipulated to reduce spasticity are:
A) Alpha-1 adrenergic and GABA
B) Serotonin and GABA
C) Histamine and cholinergic
D) Alpha-2 adrenergic and GABA
Q3) Dantrolene relaxes muscle by inhibiting the release of which ion from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
A) Sodium
B) Chloride
C) Potassium
D) Calcium
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Chapter 10: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the most common clinical use of local anesthetics.
A) Abolish painful stimulation prior to surgical procedures.
B) Abolish painful stimulation prior to tooth extractions.
C) Abolish painful stimulation prior to childbirth.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Using your knowledge of the mechanism of action of the local anesthetics,you determine that loss of sensory perception and motor function may persist for a short time after application.You instruct patients that:
A) They will not be able to respond to hot or cold stimuli.
B) They should avoid eating or drinking for 1 hour if oral topical anesthetics were used.
C) They will not be able to respond to scratching.
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) Identify the most commonly used local anesthetic technique.
A) Regional nerve block
B) Infiltration anesthesia
C) Intradermal anesthesia
D) Cryoanesthesia
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Chapter 11: Introduction to the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Body movement,posture,and equilibrium are maintained by the A) Cerebral cortex
B) Cerebellum
C) Pons
D) Thalamus
Q2) The pituitary gland is closely associated with which midbrain structure?
A) Pons
B) Thalamus
C) Hypothalamus
D) Medulla oblongata
Q3) Coordination and regulation of muscular activity is a major function of the A) Temporal lobe
B) Occipital lobe
C) Basal ganglia
D) Thalamus
Q4) Degeneration of neurons in the basal ganglia will lead to A) Stroke
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) Schizophrenia
D) Parkinson's disease
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Chapter 12: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs and Alcohol
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eszopiclone (Lunesta) is a hypnotic agent with a rapid onset of action,intermediate duration of action,and a half-life of 6 hours.Using half-life,at approximately what time would a dose administered to a patient at 8 a.m.be reduced to 50 percent?
A) 4 p.m.
B) 12 p.m.
C) 2 p.m.
D) 6 p.m.
Q2) Use critical thinking to determine the pharmacokinetic effect of barbiturates as a result of enzyme induction.
A) Enzyme induction leads to slower metabolism of the barbiturate in the liver and increased duration of action.
B) Enzyme induction leads to faster metabolism of the barbiturate in the liver and decreased duration of action.
C) Enzyme induction leads to slower metabolism of the barbiturate in the liver and decreased duration of action.
D) None of these are correct.
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14
Chapter 13: Antipsychotic and Antianxiety Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) One way to suppress the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia is by:
A) Supportive therapy
B) Completely discontinuing the antipsychotic drug
C) Tapering the dose of the antipsychotic drug
D) Increasing the dose of the antipsychotic drug
Q2) Situations that bring about stress and anxiety in a person will directly result in increased activity of which part of the brain?
A) Limbic system
B) Substantia nigra
C) Hippocampus
D) Thalamus
Q3) A special formulation of which type of atypical antipsychotic would be available for a difficult patient needing immediate treatment from a psychotic episode?
A) Aripiprazole
B) Clozapine
C) Risperidone
D) Olanzapine
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15
Chapter 14: Antidepressants, psychomotor Stimulants, and Lithium
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using the Physicians' Desk Reference,you determine that due to their alpha-blocking,anticholinergic and antihistaminic effects,the TCAs are contraindicated in patients suffering from:
A) Glaucoma and benign prostatic hypertrophy
B) Glaucoma and hypertension
C) Benign prostatic hypertrophy and hypertension
D) Glaucoma and epilepsy
Q2) Identify the common characteristics associated with mania.
A) Patient shows signs of hyperactivity.
B) Patient is very talkative.
C) Patient exhibits unrealistic thoughts.
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) The TCAs possess significant anticholinergic and alpha-blocking actions.Differentiate between the TCAs,and select the tricyclic agent that causes moderate sedation,moderate anticholinergic effects,and moderate alpha-blocking effect.
A) Doxepin
B) Amitriptyline
C) Nortriptyline
D) Imipramine
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Psychotomimetic Drugs of Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug abuser experiences a psychotomimetic flashback experience after using marijuana.What other drug was probably abused in the past?
A) Psilocybin
B) Mescaline
C) LSD
D) Amphetamines
Q2) _____ is an endogenous substance in the brain that is thought to bind to _____ receptors.
A) Anandamide, Kappa
B) Dynorphin, adrenergic
C) Anandamide, CB1
D) Dynorphin, CB2
Q3) Increased amphetamine usage results in behavior very similar to:
A) Hypomania
B) Paranoid schizophrenia
C) Manic depressive personality disorder
D) Neurosis
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17
Chapter 16: Antiepileptic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the type of seizure that does not involve any type of motor convulsion.
A) Atonic seizure
B) Myoclonic seizure
C) Absence seizure
D) Partial seizure
Q2) Using the available treatments for seizures,determine the recommended treatment for a patient with partial seizures who must be prescribed a liquid medication.
A) Carbamazepine, phenytoin, or valproic acid
B) Lamotrigine, phenytoin, or levotiracetam
C) Diazepam, lacosamide, and phenytoin
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Explain why diazepam (Valium),although effective in the treatment of status epilepticus,may require additional administration of the drug to control the seizures.
A) Diazepam has a quick onset of action.
B) Diazepam has a short duration of action.
C) Diazepam has a long half-life.
D) None of these are correct.
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18
Chapter 17: Antiparkinson Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is an excitatory neurotransmitter released from the _____ area of the basal ganglia
A) Dopamine, corpus striatum
B) Acetylcholine, corpus striatum
C) Dopamine, substantia nigra
D) Acetylcholine, substantia nigra
Q2) Levodopa use is delayed in the beginning stages of Parkinson's disease.
A) To avoid drug-food interactions that may occur
B) To avoid having to use multiple medications
C) To avoid tolerance to levodopa over time
D) To avoid the development of movement disorders that develop over time
Q3) Inhibition of all of the following enzymes are important in increasing brain levels of dopamine except
A) DOPA decarboxylase
B) COMT
C) MAO-B
D) MAO-A
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Chapter 18: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the part of the brain that influences mood,motivation,and the ability to perceive pain.
A) Hypothalamus
B) Thalamus
C) Medulla oblongata
D) Cerebral cortex
Q2) Using the physiological effects of the injected benzodiazepine and barbiturate anesthetic agents on the respiratory system,select the true statement.
A) Benzodiazepines and barbiturates produce a dose-dependent respiratory depression.
B) Benzodiazepines and barbiturates decrease respiratory rate and tidal volume.
C) Patients with underlying chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are more susceptible to respiratory depression from the use of benzodiazepine and barbiturate anesthetic agents, even at doses that would be considered therapeutic in healthy individuals.
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 19: Opioid Analgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Constipation is a side effect from opioid use due to:
A) Spasmogenic activity on smooth muscle and mu<sub>2</sub> receptors in the GI tract
B) Spasmolytic activity on smooth muscle and mu<sub>2</sub> receptors in the GI tract
C) Spasmogenic activity on smooth muscle and mu<sub>1</sub> receptors in the GI tract
D) Spasmolytic activity on smooth muscle and mu<sub>1</sub> receptors in the GI tract
Q2) Two naturally occurring opiates derived from the poppy plant are:
A) Morphine and heroin
B) Morphine and codeine
C) Codeine and heroin
D) Codeine and marijuana
Q3) Patients with _____ should be careful when using opioid analgesics because of the effect histamine may have on the ______.
A) CHF, myocardium
B) Asthma, bronchial smooth muscle
C) Hypertension, skeletal muscles
D) Diabetes, uptake of glucose
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Chapter 20: Nonopioid Analgesic, nonsteroidal
Antiinflammatory, and Antigout DR
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Q1) Use the clinical indications for the use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs to select the true statement about their use.
A) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are approved for the relief of pain arising from local inflammatory responses including headache, dental extraction, soft tissue injury, sunburn, musculoskeletal, and joint overexertion and strain.
B) Because of the direct action on regional prostaglandin production, NSAIDs are indicated for the chronic treatment of dysmenorrhea and for controlling the signs and symptoms of osteo- and rheumatoid arthritis.
C) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are approved for the relief of mild to moderate pain where opioids are not indicated or warranted.
D) All of these are true.
Q2) Identify the drug agent that irreversibly inhibits the aggregation of platelets necessary for blood clot formation.
A) Aspirin
B) Acetaminophen
C) Naproxen sodium
D) None of these are correct.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Review of Cardiac Physiology and Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excitation and contraction of the heart occurs with:
A) Contraction of the right side of the heart followed by contraction of the left side
B) Contraction of the left side of the heart followed by contraction of the right side
C) Contraction of both ventricles followed by contraction of both atria
D) Contraction of both atria followed by contraction of both ventricles
Q2) A decrease in myocardial function will immediately result in:
A) Thromboembolisms
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Ischemia
D) Arteriosclerosis
Q3) _____ blood is pumped from the _____ through the pulmonary arteries to the lungs.
A) Deoxygenated, left ventricle
B) Deoxygenated, right ventricle
C) Oxygenated, left ventricle
D) Oxygenated, right ventricle
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Heart Failure
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Q1) Select the correct statement related to the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone (RAA) mechanism.
A) A drop in systemic blood pressure or a decrease in renal blood flow stimulates the release of renin from the kidneys. Renin initiates reactions that lead to the formation of angiotensin II. Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction and the release of aldosterone (sodium retention) and ADH (water retention). These actions normally function to maintain normal blood pressure and blood volume.
B) An increase in systemic blood pressure or an increase in renal blood flow stimulates the release of renin from the kidneys. Renin initiates reactions that lead to the formation of angiotensin II. Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction and the release of aldosterone (sodium retention) and ADH (water retention). These actions normally function to maintain normal blood pressure and blood volume.
C) A drop in systemic blood pressure or a decrease in renal blood flow stimulates the release of renin from the kidneys. Renin initiates reactions that lead to the formation of angiotensin II. Angiotensin II causes vasodilation and the release of aldosteone (sodium retention) and ADH (water retention). These actions normally function to maintain normal blood pressure and blood volume.
D) None of these are correct.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
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Q1) A type of arrhythmia that originates in the SA node and causes a sustained heart rate over 100 beats per minute.
A) Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
B) Ventricular tachycardia
C) Supraventricular tachycardia
D) Sinus tachycardia
Q2) Antiarrhythmic drugs primarily affect the activity of the following ion channels except
A) Cl
B) Na
C) K
D) Ca
Q3) Disopyramide produces a _____ in conduction and _____ of the refractory period.
A) Increase, contraction
B) Increase, prolongation
C) Decrease, contraction
D) Decrease, prolongation
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25
Chapter 24: Antianginal Drugs
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Q1) Alice is experiencing periods of angina,and she places a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet under her tongue as directed by her physician.After 5 minutes have passed,she is not feeling any relief.What step should be implemented next?
A) Seek medical assistance immediately.
B) Place another sublingual nitroglycerin tablet under her tongue.
C) Swallow the nitroglycerin tablet in order to get better absorption.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Distinguish between the available dosage forms and strengths of nitrogylcerin,and select the available strengths of the sublingual nitroglycerin tablet Nitrostat.
A) 2.5-, 5-, and10-mg sublingual tablets
B) 0.3-, 0.4-, and 0.6-mg sublingual tablets
C) 40-mg CR tablets and capsules
D) 1-, 2-, and 3-mg extended-release buccal tablets
Q3) Identify the term used for the reduction in blood flow caused by atherosclerosis.
A) Stable angina
B) Variant angina
C) Ischemia
D) Exertional angina
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Chapter 25: Diuretics
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Q1) Spironolactone produces its potassium-sparing diuretic effect by being an aldosterone receptor:
A) Agonist that stimulates sodium and potassium exchange
B) Agonist that stimulates hydrogen and potassium exchange
C) Antagonist that inhibits sodium and potassium exchange
D) Antagonist that inhibits hydrogen and potassium exchange
Q2) What is the precursor to hydrogen ion production from carbonic anhydrase activity?
A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Carbon tetrachloride
C) Hydrochloric acid
D) Carbonic acid
Q3) Diuretics can be used to manage all of these conditions except:
A) Anuria
B) Hypotension
C) Hypertension
D) Edema
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Chapter 26: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the factor pair that determines cardiac output.
A) Heart rate and peripheral resistance
B) Heart rate and stroke volume
C) Peripheral resistance and stroke volume
D) Heart rate and blood pressure
Q2) Use the recommended dose (3 mcg/kg/min) to determine the appropriate dose of sodium nitroprusside that would be administered by slow intravenous infusion for a patient who weighs 242 pounds.
A) 240 mcg/kg/min
B) 180 mcg/kg/min
C) 280 mcg/kg/min
D) 330 mcg/kg/min
Q3) Use the recommended dose (3 mcg/kg/min) to determine the appropriate dose of sodium nitroprusside that would be administered by slow intravenous infusion for a patient who weighs 176 pounds.
A) 240 mcg/kg/min
B) 180 mcg/kg/min
C) 280 mcg/kg/min
D) 320 mcg/kg/min
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Anticoagulants and Coagulants
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Q1) The mechanism of action for which medication works by converting plasminogen to plasmin?
A) Aspirin
B) Alteplase
C) Enoxaparin
D) Heparin
Q2) Standard heparin is preferred for pregnant patients needing an anticoagulant because:
A) Molecular size will allow it to cross the placenta to help the offspring.
B) The offspring will receive the full anticoagulant effect.
C) Molecular size will not allow it to cross the placenta to affect the offspring.
D) The offspring will receive only a partial anticoagulant effect.
Q3) Patients with a tendency to develop blot clots have a problem with which regulatory process?
A) Hematopoiesis
B) Leukopoiesis
C) Hemostasis
D) Hemopoiesis
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Chapter 28: Nutrition and Therapy
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Q1) Use your knowledge of vitamins and nutritional therapy to determine the instructions that you must give a patient regarding therapy with nutritional supplements.
A) Nutritional supplements should be taken with meals to avoid GI distress.
B) Extended-release formulations of vitamins should not be chewed or crushed.
C) If pregnancy is suspected, the supplements should not exceed the recommended maximum daily amounts.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) The normal daily intake of fluids by an average-size adult is approximately 2500 ml.Select the statement that best explains how the body uses the 2500-ml fluid intake.
A) Respiration uses 500 ml, sweat uses 1000 ml, and urine uses 1500 ml of the normal daily fluid intake.
B) Urine production and sweat secretion use all of the normal daily fluid intake.
C) Feces use 200 ml, respiration uses 300 ml, cutaneous transpiration uses 400 ml, sweat uses100 ml, and urine uses 1500 ml of the normal daily fluid intake.
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 29: Hypolipidemic Drugs
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Q1) Fat streaks in the arteries begin from the
A) Oxidized LDL which attracts more chylomicrons and increases foam cells
B) Oxidized HDL which attracts more chylomicrons and increases foam cells
C) Oxidized LDL which attracts more macrophages and increases foam cells
D) Oxidized HDL which attracts more macrophages and increases foam cells
Q2) Endogenous cholesterol synthesis takes place in the _____ and _____.
A) Liver and small intestines
B) Liver and pancreas
C) Pancreas and spleen
D) Pancreas and gall bladder
Q3) Rhabdomyolysis is a serious side effect that may be experienced by patients on statin medications because
A) Immunoglobulin molecules can disrupt blood flow and cause renal failure
B) Myoglobin molecules can disrupt blood flow to kidneys and cause renal failure
C) Immunoglobulin molecules can disrupt blood flow and cause an aneurism
D) Myoglobin molecules can disrupt blood flow and cause myocardial infarction
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Chapter 30: Antianemics
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Q1) Identify the correct definition of the term hypochromic by breaking the word into its component parts.
A) Hypo- refers to less than normal and -chromic means size.
B) Hypo- refers to more than normal and -chromic means color.
C) Hypo- refers to less than normal and -chromic means color.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Select the proper treatment for anemia resulting from altered RBC production or from increased RBC destruction.
A) Replace iron or cyanocobalamin in the diet or supplementally.
B) Replace iron or copper in the diet or supplementally.
C) Give a blood transfusion.
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) Select the false statement about erythropoietin and its use.
A) Erythropoietin is an enzyme produced in the liver that is necessary for the metabolic process of the body's cells.
B) Erythropoietin stimulates production of red blood cells in the bone marrow.
C) Erythropoietin production is impaired in patients who have renal failure, leading to erythropoietin deficiency.
D) None of these are correct.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Antihistaminic Drugs and Mast Cell Release
Inhibitors
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Q1) Life-threatening arrhythmias can occur with astemazole and terfenadine because of:
A) Atrial flutter in patients with congestive heart failure
B) Ventricular fibrillation in patients who have a pacemaker
C) Ventricular arrhythmias that result from overstimulation of the SA node
D) Ventricular arrhythmias that result from improper ion channel conduction
Q2) Nonselective interactions of first-generation antihistamines include:
A) Relief of allergy symptoms and ulcers
B) Relief of ulcers and sedation
C) Relief of allergy symptoms and sedation
D) Relief of ulcers and anticholinergic activity
Q3) Why would Dr.Smith not prescribe an antihistamine for his patient with asthma?
A) Antihistamines produce more disturbances in intestinal activity, rather than a therapeutic response.
B) Antihistamines are not therapeutically useful in the treatment of asthma.
C) Antihistamines allow for the production of nasal and bronchial mucus.
D) A life-threatening reaction called the Response of Lewis can occur.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Respiratory Pharmacology, treatment of
Asthma, and Copd
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Q1) Describe the proper method of administration of acetylcysteine (Mucosil) to decrease the possibility of irritation and bronchospasm.
A) Addition of a bronchodilator to the inhalation mixture will decrease irritation and bronchospasm.
B) Addition of a bronchoconstrictor to the inhalation mixture will decrease irritation and bronchospasm.
C) Addition of a leukotriene inhibitor to the inhalation mixture will decrease irritation and bronchospasm.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Use the mechanism of action of the corticosteroids to determine the physiologic action that results from their administration.
A) Corticosteroids inhibit the production of allergic antibodies.
B) Corticosteroids inhibit the release of inflammatory mediators from the mast cells.
C) Corticosteroids inhibit the production and secretion of mucus.
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 33: Therapy of Gastrointestinal Disorders: Peptic Ulcers,
gerd, and Vom
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Q1) Symptoms of chronic erosion of mucosal lining and perforation would include
A) Hyperglycemia
B) High levels of IgE antibodies
C) Hypertension
D) Presence of blood in stool or vomit
Q2) When taking oral H2 receptor antagonists,it is important to remember that
A) The medication will interact with citrus juices
B) The medication could interact with certain cardiovascular medications
C) The medication must be taken on an empty stomach
D) The medication can be taken with food
Q3) Omeprazole works by
A) Inhibiting a hydrogen-potassium pump in mucosal cells
B) Inhibiting a sodium-potassium pump in mucosal cells
C) Inhibiting a hydrogen-potassium pump in parietal cells
D) Inhibiting a sodium-potassium pump in parietal cells
Q4) Gastric juices are released during the gastric phase from
A) Gastrin and secretin
B) Gastrin and cholecystokinin
C) Sensory and mental input
D) Distention of the stomach when food enters
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Chapter 34: Agents That Affect Intestinal Motility
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Q1) Using your knowledge of the causes and treatments of diarrhea,select the correct recommendation for a patient who comes into the office asking for advice to prevent diarrhea while he is away on a business trip overseas.
A) Lotronex taken daily (0.5-1 mg two times a day)
B) Pepto-Bismol, taken prophylactically (2 tablets or 2 oz four times a day)
C) Imodium A-D taken prophylactically (4 mg up to 8 mg per day)
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Select the statement that best describes the involvement of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system in the movement of feces.
A) Stimulation of the adrenergic fibers that innervate the intestines increases intestinal motility, whereas stimulation of the cholinergic fibers decreases motility.
B) Stimulation of the cholinergic fibers that innervate the intestines increases intestinal motility, whereas stimulation of the adrenergic fibers decreases motility.
C) Stimulation of the cholinergic fibers that innervate the intestines increases intestinal motility, whereas antagonism of the adrenergic fibers decreases motility.
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 35: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Q1) Tropic hormones are to control _____ circulation to control the activities of other endocrine glands.
A) Portal artery in the brain
B) Portal vein in the brain
C) General circulation
D) Hepatic portal circulation
Q2) An example of a therapeutic use for a hormone for a condition other than hormone insufficiency would be
A) Administering insulin to a type 1 diabetic
B) Administering cortisol to a patient with Addison's disease
C) Administering cortisol to a patient after an organ transplant
D) Administering somatotropin to a patient with dwarfism
Q3) Somatostatin is
A) A releasing hormone that promotes the release of growth hormone
B) An inhibitory hormone released from the target organ
C) An inhibitory hormone released from the pituitary gland
D) An inhibitory hormone released from the hypothalamus
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Chapter 36: Adrenal Steroids
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Q1) Select the reason why alternate-day therapy is used in cases where prolonged use of steroids is necessary.
A) Alternate-day therapy is intended to reduce or eliminate the adverse effects of prolonged steroid treatment.
B) Alternate-day therapy is intended to facilitate treatment for patients with hectic or busy lifestyles.
C) Alternate-day therapy is intended to reduce or eliminate the stress on the liver that must metabolize the glucocorticoids.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Compare the mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids,and select the true statement about these hormones.
A) The glucocorticoids are hormones secreted by the inner layer of the adrenal gland.
B) Deficiency of mineralocorticoids leads to Cushing's disease.
C) The main effect of the mineralocorticoid hormones is to regulate the metabolism of carbohydrates and proteins.
D) The main effect of the mineralocorticoid hormones is to regulate the fluid balance of the body.
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Chapter 37: Gonadal Hormones, oral Contraceptives, and Erectile Dysfunction Dru
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Q1) Estrogens released from the ovary will:
A) Increase secretion of GnRH through positive feedback
B) Decrease secretion of GnRH through negative feedback
C) Increase secretion of FSH and LH through positive feedback
D) Decrease secretion of FSH and LH through negative feedback
Q2) Ovulation occurs as a result of a surge from which hormone?
A) LH
B) FSH
C) GnRH
D) Progesterone
Q3) A triphasic oral contraceptive contains:
A) Two different-strength estrogen pills and a progestin pill
B) Three different strengths (dose ratio) of estrogen to progestin in a pill
C) Two different strengths (dose ratio) of estrogen to progestin in a pill
D) Three different strengths (dose ratio) of progestin to estrogen in a pill
Q4) How does clomiphene work as a synthetic ovulation stimulant?
A) As an estrogen agonist that inhibits negative feedback to the pituitary
B) As an estrogen agonist that promotes negative feedback to the pituitary
C) As an estrogen antagonist that inhibits negative feedback to the pituitary
D) As an estrogen antagonist that promotes negative feedback to the pituitary
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Chapter 38: Drugs Affecting the Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands
and Bone Degener
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Q1) Identify the condition characterized by a significant reduction in bone mass.
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Agranulocytosis
C) Osteoporosis
D) Cretinism
Q2) Using your knowledge of the mechanism of action of the bisphosphonates,select the true statement related to their use in the treatment of osteoporosis.
A) It is advisable not to take the bisphosphonates within 2 hours of calcium supplements, caffeine, or antacids because absorption will be increased.
B) It is advisable not to take the bisphosphonates within 1 hour of calcium supplements, caffeine, or antacids because absorption will be decreased.
C) It is advisable not to take the bisphosphonates within 1 hour of calcium supplements, caffeine, or antacids because absorption will be increased.
D) It is advisable not to take the bisphosphonates within 2 hours of calcium supplements, caffeine, or antacids because absorption will be decreased.
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Chapter 39: Pancreatic Hormones and Antidiabetic Drugs
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Q1) The need for amputation for diabetics occurs because of:
A) An increase in levels of stored glucose in the extremities
B) A decrease in immune response with high levels of insulin
C) A decrease in immune response with high levels of glucagon
D) Inadequate circulation to the extremities
Q2) Once potassium channels are closed from the production of ATP in the beta cell,what is needed for the release of insulin?
A) Depolarization caused by sodium influx
B) Repolarization caused by potassium efflux
C) Depolarization caused by calcium influx
D) Hyperpolarization caused by potassium efflux
Q3) Which glucose receptor also functions as a carrier channel in cells?
A) GLUT1
B) GLUT2
C) GLUT3
D) GLUT4
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Chapter 40: Posterior Pituitary Hormones: Antidiuretic Hormone
and Oxytocin
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Q1) Summarize the uses of desmopressin or DDAVP.
A) Desmopressin is used to prevent or relieve abdominal distention associated with surgical procedures.
B) Desmopressin is used for the treatment of diabetes insipidus.
C) Desmopressin is proven effective in the treatment of nocturnal enuresis when administered prior to bedtime
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Identify the primary function of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
A) Antidiuretic hormone is a substance that regulates water balance in the body by controlling the amount of the sodium ions in the body.
B) Antidiuretic hormone is a substance that regulates water balance in the body by controlling water loss in the urine.
C) Antidiuretic hormone is a substance that regulates water balance in the body by controlling the sodium potassium exchange in the body.
D) None of these are correct.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) Which group of penicillins has shown beta-lactamase resistance?
A) First-generation penicillins
B) Second-generation penicillins
C) Third-generation penicillins
D) Fourth-generation penicillins
Q2) An antibiotic will have no effect on an infection if:
A) The antibiotic is broad-spectrum.
B) The bacteria is not resistant to the antibiotic.
C) The bacteria does not lie within the drug's antibacterial spectrum.
D) Beta-lactamase activity is not present.
Q3) Nephrotoxicity is a concern in which families of antibiotics?
A) Tetracyclines and second-generation cephalosporins
B) Sulfonamides and third-generation cephalosporins
C) Macrolides and fourth-generation cephalosporins
D) Aminoglycosides and first-generation cephalosporins
Q4) Meningitis can be effectively treated with:
A) First-generation cephalosporins
B) Second-generation cephalosporins
C) Third-generation cephalosporins
D) Fourth-generation cephalosporins
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Antifungal and Antiviral Drugs
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Q1) Differentiate between hair/scalp infections and fingernail/toenail infections,and select the true statement related to their treatment with griseofulvin.
A) Griseofulvin is usually taken for 3 to 4 months for hair and scalp infections.
B) Griseofulvin is usually taken for 4 to 6 weeks for fingernail infections.
C) The duration of therapy coincides with the pattern of hair or nail growth to incorporate griseofulvin into the keratin.
D) Griseofulvin is usually taken for at least 6 months for hair and scalp infections.
Q2) Identify the primary reason why griseofulvin is an effective treatment option for dermatophytic infections.
A) Griseofulvin changes the cell-wall synthesis of the fungus.
B) Griseofulvin binds to the keratin protein that the dermatophyte needs for survival.
C) Griseofulvin incorporates itself into the fungal DNA
D) All of these are correct.
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44
Chapter 43: Parasitic Infections: Antiprotozoal and Anthelmintic Drugs
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Q1) A patient with severe liver disease and dysentery arrives at the hospital.Can the patient receive metronidazole?
A) Yes, but treatment should be supplemented with vitamin B<sub>12</sub>.
B) Yes, but close monitoring will be required.
C) No. This has been shown to increase the patient's risk for developing cancer.
D) No. This can cause a disulfiram-like reaction in the patient.
Q2) In order to avoid toxoplasmosis,pregnant women should stay away from a cat's litter box for:
A) Only the first trimester
B) The first and second trimester
C) All three trimesters
D) Only the third trimester
Q3) Where is the location of the malarial microorganism when a human is first exposed?
A) White blood cell
B) Red blood cell
C) Liver
D) Kidney
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) Identify the definition of the term sterilization.
A) Process that inhibits the growth of disease-causing microorganisms.
B) Process that completely eradicates all microorganisms and spores.
C) Process that inhibits the growth of microorganisms.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Differentiate between the bactericidal and bacteriostatic properties of the antiseptics,and select the true statement.
A) Bacteriostatic antiseptics can eradicate bacteria only at high concentrations.
B) Bacteriostatic antiseptics inhibit the growth and reproduction process of the bacteria but do not kill the bacteria.
C) All bactericidal antiseptics have broad-spectrum activity.
D) All bacteriostatic antiseptics have narrow-spectrum activity.
Q3) Match the definition "a thick crust or scab that develops at the site of a skin burn or contact with corrosive chemicals" with the correct term.
A) Eschar
B) Lyse
C) Argyria
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Agents
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Q1) A medication that can be taken prophylactically by women who have a family history of developing breast cancer is:
A) Anastrozole
B) Tamoxifen
C) Leuprolide
D) Flutamide
Q2) A patient experiences severe tissue damage after receiving an intravenous injection of a chemotherapy agent.This effect is a result of:
A) Overdose of kanamycin
B) Extravasation of doxorubicin
C) Compromised liver function
D) Problems with renal tubular reabsorption
Q3) Mr.Smith is not showing a positive response after receiving his chemotherapy.What would be the next step in his treatment?
A) Increase the dose of the current chemotherapy medication.
B) Change to a different chemotherapy medication in the same family.
C) Initiate combination therapy.
D) Change to a completely different chemotherapy medication.
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Chapter 46: Immunopharmacology
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Q1) Explain the main immunosuppressive effect of the corticosteroids.
A) The main immunosuppressive effect of the corticosteroids is to inhibit the synthesis of purine nucleotides that are required for the synthesis of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and for cell growth and reproduction.
B) The main immunosuppressive effect of the corticosteroids is to kill and suppress the function of lymphocytes.
C) The main immunosuppressive effect of the corticosteroids is to cause lymphocytes in the blood to be redistributed into the bone marrow.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Using the steps in the immune response,select the true statement about macrophages and their role in the immune response process.
A) Macrophages release interleukins that activate the T-cells.
B) Macrophages are classified as antigen-presenting cells.
C) Macrophages kill cells that are infected with foreign organisms.
D) Macrophages produce immunoglobulins or antibodies.
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