Course Introduction
Principles of Drug Action Study Guide Questions
Principles of Drug Action explores the fundamental mechanisms by which drugs interact with biological systems to exert their effects. The course covers key concepts such as pharmacodynamics, pharmacokinetics, drug-receptor interactions, dose-response relationships, and the factors influencing absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs. Students will gain an understanding of how physiological, biochemical, and molecular processes affect drug action and learn about variability in drug responses among individuals. Emphasis is placed on the application of these principles to the safe and effective use of drugs in clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 8th Edition by Shane Bullock
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Sociocultural Aspects
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by the term 'de facto direct-to-consumer advertising'?
A) When a professional pharmacy body advertises in a popular magazine about a particular medicine.
B) When a professional nursing body advertises in a nursing journal about a particular medicine.
C) When a pharmaceutical company provides information about specific characteristics of a particular medication in the popular media but does not mention the name of the medication.
D) When a professional pharmacy body provides information about specific characteristics of a particular medication in the popular media but does not mention the name of the medication.
Answer: C
Q2) The generic name of a medication is the:
A) name given by the biochemical scientist who invented the medication.
B) name given to the pharmaceutical company that manufactures the medication.
C) chemical name of the medication.
D) shortened, simplified version of the chemical name.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Health Professionals and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) After giving a verbal order,the health professional must:
A) confirm the verbal order in writing within 48 hours.
B) confirm the verbal order in writing within 24 hours.
C) ensure that the medication is administered by the health professional.
D) ensure that a health professional has co-signed the verbal order.
Answer: B
Q2) Australian regulations require nursing staff to maintain a ward register for administration of controlled drugs and periodically check the balance of ampoules,tablets and volumes of liquid.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) When the drug order is unclear,the health professional should:
A) ask a colleague to interpret the writing.
B) check what other medications the patient is taking and have an educated guess.
C) question the prescriber about what was intended.
D) withhold the medication.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Macroallocation and microallocation of resources are principles related to what aspect of ethical conduct?
A) Autonomy
B) Beneficence
C) Veracity
D) Justice
Answer: D
Q2) Ms B has an operable brain tumour but refuses life-saving treatment after an acute bleeding episode.Her partner supports the decision.What ethical principle do the health professionals apply to justify doing nothing?
A) Non-maleficence
B) Confidentiality
C) Autonomy
D) Justice
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
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Q1) A client is recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.Her mother has also been diagnosed some years ago.Which of the following teaching principles will be most helpful in client teaching?
A) Passive participation
B) Prior knowledge and experience
C) Repetition will not be required.
D) The patient is genetically predisposed to be prepared for accompanying pain.
Q2) Which of the following factors has an effect on medication adherence? Select all that apply.
A) Age extremes
B) Communication barriers
C) Polypharmacy
D) Single illness with uncomplicated treatment regimen
Q3) In their role as client advocate,health professionals inform people about their rights in relation to drug therapy,other health care-related matters,or when confronted by adversaries,to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
Professionals in Medicine Management
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Q1) Which of the following health professionals maintain a person's airway,breathing and circulation in medical emergency situations,and are permitted to administer medicines for chronic and life-threatening conditions?
A) Pharmacist
B) Paramedic
C) Physiotherapist
D) Podiatrist
Q2) The target group for a medication review by pharmacists are individuals who:
A) are at risk of medication misuse due to age, social circumstances, complexity of their medication regimen, their health care status, and knowledge about their medicines.
B) are recommended to have a review by their general practitioner.
C) live in a nursing home.
D) live at home alone.
Q3) The educational preparation for a nurse practitioner is:
A) a Master's degree.
B) a Bachelor's degree.
C) extensive training in the clinical setting.
D) a professional doctorate.
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Chapter 6: Medicine Formulations, Storage and Routes of Administration
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Q1) Which is true of a linctus?
A) It needs to be stored at or below 25°C.
B) It is administered without water.
C) It is a viscous liquid with expectorant, sedating and cough-suppressing properties.
D) All of the above.
Q2) The shelf life of glyceryl trinitrate tablets after opening the container is:
A) 80 days.
B) 85 days.
C) 90 days.
D) 100 days.
Q3) A drug formulated into a(n)________ will penetrate the deeper layers of the skin most effectively.
A) lotion
B) gel
C) ointment
D) cream
Q4) Nasal preparations are not absorbed systemically.
A)True
B)False
8
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Chapter 7: the Clinical Decision-making Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:
A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Australia's National Medicines Policy?
A) Timely access to the medicines that Australians need, at a cost individuals and the community can afford
B) Medicines meeting appropriate standards of quality, safety and efficacy
C) Quality use of medicines
D) Consumers and health professionals communicating effectively about medicines management
Q3) What is the first step in the clinical decision-making process?
A) evaluation
B) assessment
C) planning
D) prognosis
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9
Chapter 8: Medicine Administration Strategies and Documentation
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Q1) A nursing student involved in checking blood products should be accompanied to the bedside of the patient by:
A) one registered nurse.
B) two registered nurses.
C) bedside checks are not required if the products and paperwork have been double-checked by two registered nurses.
D) students should never check medications or blood products.
Q2) Sympathomimetic agents such as adrenaline,noradrenaline and dopamine,which are commonly used in critical care areas,cannot be given through a peripheral vein because:
A) it would be difficult for the nurse to control the flow rate of a peripheral infusion.
B) a volumetric pump cannot be connected to a peripheral intravenous line.
C) there is greater risk of infection around the cannula site.
D) the agents can cause permanent necrosis of extremities.
Q3) Medication ordered at particular time intervals should be given on time to:
A) ensure that health professionals provide their care efficiently.
B) maintain consistent blood levels of the medication.
C) ensure that medications are not wasted.
D) ensure that patients have a structured approach to their care.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Medication Errors
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Q1) Following the five rights"will help reduce medication errors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following are potential sources of medical errors? Select all that apply.
A) The wrong dose of a medication is given.
B) The person's identity is not checked.
C) The manufacturer changes inert ingredients.
D) The person takes all of their medicines at the same time every day.
Q3) In order to avoid medication errors,it is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:
A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.
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11
Chapter 10: Management of Common Adverse Drug
Reactions
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Q1) Which drug is the most common cause of an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Aspirin
B) Contrast media
C) Penicillin
D) Transfused blood
Q2) A conscious client with respiratory depression should be placed in a:
A) flat position.
B) semi-upright position.
C) side position.
D) prone position.
Q3) What is the mainstay of treatment for anaphylactic shock?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Adrenaline
C) Salbutamol
D) Promethazine
Q4) Postural hypotension is an adverse effect often associated with drugs that:
A) block \(\alpha\)-adrenoceptors.
B) stimulate \(\alpha\)-adrenoreceptors.
C) block \(\beta\)-adrenoreceptors
D) stimulate \(\beta\)-adrenoreceptors
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Chapter 11: Risk Communication: Balancing the Benefits and Risks of Drug Treatment
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Q1) Although few,there are risk-free medications in use.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A study examining the risks and benefits of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)finds the number needed to treat with HRT to prevent an osteoporotic fracture is 300.This figure means 300 women need to be treated to prevent:
A) one woman from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
B) five women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
C) 110 women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
D) 220 women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
Q3) When comparing absolute risk reduction to relative risk reduction,one must consider:
A) the incidence of an outcome event.
B) the incidence of a sentinel event.
C) That only the relative risk statistics are accurate.
D) that more weight is given to absolute risk data.
Q4) Another name for absolute risk is risk difference.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Drug Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
Q2) Individual drugs can be classified according to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and New Zealand?
A) Frusemide
B) Furomide
C) Furosemide
D) Lasix
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Chapter 13: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption and Distribution
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Q1) Drugs that are liver enzyme inducers may:
A) increase a drug's half-life.
B) increase a drug's metabolism.
C) inhibit a drug's therapeutic effect.
D) increase tissue distribution of another drug.
Q2) Highly lipophilic substances can cross the blood-brain barrier.Which of the following cannot cross the blood-brain barrier in normal circumstances?
A) Alcohol
B) Penicillin
C) Glucose
D) Antihistamines
Q3) Drugs are best absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract if they are:
A) hydrophilic.
B) amphipathic.
C) lipophobic.
D) lipophilic.
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Chapter 14: Pharmacokinetics Metabolism and Excretion
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Q1) Clearance of an acidic drug by the kidneys may be increased by:
A) alkalising the urine.
B) administering amphetamines.
C) administering ascorbic acid.
D) administering sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Q2) Phase 1 metabolism of a drug can involve:
A) glucuronidation.
B) sulphation.
C) conjugation.
D) oxidation.
Q3) Explain what is meant by drug clearance.
Q4) Drugs are metabolised by the liver to make them more:
A) amphipathic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) lipophilic.
D) hydrophobic.
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16
Chapter 15: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common drug-food interaction is between grapefruit juice and:
A) aspirin.
B) paracetamol.
C) felodipine.
D) ibuprofen.
Q2) When suxamethonium and thiopentone are mixed in the same syringe,the drug-drug interaction that results is:
A) summation.
B) chemical drug incompatibility.
C) potentiation.
D) augmentation.
Q3) In which way can hepatic enzymes be altered by drug metabolism?
A) Can cause enhancement or inhibition of metabolism
B) Can interact with the external environment
C) Are only altered in conjunction with food
D) Are only considered with regard to synergistic effects between drugs
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17
Chapter 16: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The extent of binding of a drug to a receptor is termed:
A) potency.
B) specificity.
C) affinity.
D) efficacy.
Q2) A drug mechanism that works to neutralise stomach acid is considered to be:
A) an action targeting ion channels.
B) a chemical action.
C) an agonist action.
D) a physical action.
Q3) Which one of the following statements about pharmacodynamics is true?
A) A partial agonist can be as effective as an antagonist.
B) Ion channels do not have receptors.
C) Second messenger systems always involve G-proteins.
D) The antiasthma agent theophylline acts via a tyrosine kinase-linked receptor.
Q4) In disrupting the synthesis of folic acid in bacteria,sulfonamides act:
A) as competitive inhibitors.
B) as non-competitive inhibitors.
C) by physical action.
D) by none of the above.
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Chapter 17: Drug Development, Evaluation and Safety
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Q1) Subacute toxicity tests are characterised by:
A) repeated drug doses over a period of days to reveal tissue targets for damage.
B) tissue targets for damage associated with high single drug doses.
C) repeated drug doses for a period of months in order to assess the toxic dose ranges.
D) the effects of the drug on fertility, implantation and the developing human.
Q2) Which of the following tests characterises the drug screening process?
A) Testing for drug potency in humans
B) The monitoring of adverse effects after the drug is released into the marketplace
C) The identification of a chemical with potential therapeutic action
D) The assessment of drug toxicity in animals
Q3) Only a few medicines are excreted in breast milk.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The terms side effect and adverse effects are interchangeable.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Genetic Considerations in Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following are ethical issues associated with pharmacogenetics? Select all that apply.
A) Keeping data secure
B) Insurance risk
C) Cost of therapy
D) Lack of data on effectiveness of treatment
Q2) Cost-effectiveness is a potential barrier to genetic-based therapies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many human enzymes have been associated with drug metabolism and polymorphisms?
A) Less than 20
B) More than 20
C) A minimum of 50
D) None
Q4) Two techniques used in gene therapy include in vitro and vector methods.
A)True
B)False
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Pharmacokinetic Factors That Modify Drug Action
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Q1) During pregnancy,drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of drug absorption from the small intestines?
A) A small-sized drug molecule
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) An increase in gut blood flow
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state
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Chapter 20: Paediatric and Geriatric Pharmacology
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Q1) Paediatric drug dosage can be calculated by using the body surface area,age and bodyweight.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In paediatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) leave medications on the bedside locker for later administration.
B) use the vastus lateralis muscle for intramuscular injection.
C) prepare medicines for injection in front of the child.
D) advise the child that injections are painless.
Q3) Compared to a young adult,which of the following tends to increase in the elderly?
A) The rate of gastric emptying
B) Plasma protein concentration
C) Metabolic processes
D) Adipose tissue levels
Q4) Compared to neonates,do the elderly have greater or diminished drug effects due to variation in the volume of body fluid?
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Chapter 21: Poisoning and Envenomation
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Q1) Which of the following best characterizes the mode of action of cyanide poisoning?
A) Central nervous system depressant
B) Displaces essential trace elements and accumulates in tissues
C) Permanently disables the enzyme cholinesterase
D) Diminishes cellular energy
Q2) Which of the following best characterises the main principles associated with the emergency management of poisoning?
A) Life support, clinical assessment, decontamination and detoxification, neutralisation and elimination of the poison
B) The monitoring of adverse effects after ingestion of the poison
C) The identification of the chemical associated with the poisoning and administration of decontaminating agents
D) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following is an iron chelating agent?
A) Disodium edetate
B) Deferasirox
C) d-penicillamine
D) Calcium gluconate
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Chapter 22: the Management of Acute Clinical Overdose
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Q1) The principle of management of clinical drug overdose that takes precedence over all others is:
A) life support.
B) patient assessment.
C) drug detoxification.
D) drug elimination.
Q2) The passing of a patient's blood across a medium containing adsorbent beads is called:
A) haemoperfusion.
B) haemosiderosis.
C) haemodialysis.
D) haemolysis.
Q3) Which one of the following is NOT a component of patient assessment in the management of clinical drug overdose?
A) Determining the time that poisoning occurred
B) Determining if the client had any previous episodes of drug overdose
C) Recognising the clinical manifestations of the overdose
D) Ordering laboratory tests of the patient's blood
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Chapter 23: Contemporary Drugs of Abuse
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Q1) Therapeutic uses of marijuana include:
A) glaucoma.
B) emesis control.
C) hypertension.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal?
A) Hallucinations
B) Palpitations
C) Headaches
D) Muscle tremors
Q3) Which of the following medications can be used to treat alcohol addiction?
A) Metronidazole
B) Disulfiram
C) Acamprosate
D) Both B and C
Q4) Nicotine can have the following effect EXCEPT:
A) weight gain.
B) stimulation.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) appetite suppression.
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Chapter 24: Drug Abuse in Sport
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Q1) Which one of the following could be perceived as a benefit associated with anabolic-androgenic steroid use?
A) Mood swings
B) Premature completion of long bone growth
C) Increased skeletal muscle mass
D) An altered blood lipid profile
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to detection of drug use in sport?
A) Individual differences in pharmacokinetics affect the results of drug tests.
B) Sportswomen can use some drugs on the WADA banned list that sportsmen cannot.
C) Peptide hormone misuse can be difficult to detect.
D) Low-dose anabolic-androgenic steroid use causes feminisation in men.
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT usually given by sportspeople as a reason for drug doping?
A) To increase popularity amongst peers
B) To gain a competitive edge
C) To cope with stress
D) Dissatisfaction with current performance
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Chapter 25: General Aspects of Neuropharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following best characterizes the anatomic and physiological difference between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system?
A) The sympathetic nervous system has short postganglionic fibres, while the parasympathetic nervous system has long postganglionic fibres.
B) The sympathetic nervous system has ganglia located within a few cm of the CNS, while the parasympathetic nervous system ganglia is located close to the visceral organs served.
C) The sympathetic nervous system originates from cranial nerves, while the parasympathetic nervous system originates from the lateral horn of grey matter of the spinal cord segments.
D) The sympathetic nervous system has minimal degrees of branching of preganglionic fibres, while the parasympathetic nervous system has extensive degrees of branching of preganglionic fibres.
Q2) What effect does the parasympathetic system have on the heart?
A) Increases heart rate
B) Decreases heart rate
C) Causes vasodilation
D) Increases the force of the heart
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Chapter 26: Adrenergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following adrenergic agonists stimulate both \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) receptors?
A) Noradrenaline
B) Adrenaline
C) Dopamine
D) Both A and B
Q2) Which enzyme is responsible for the inactivation of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)into 5-AMP?
A) Phosphodiesterase
B) Phospholipase
C) Adenylate cyclase
D) Cholinesterase
Q3) Which secondary messenger is associated with \(\alpha_{1}\) receptor activation?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and C
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28
Chapter 27: Cholinergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following agent is used for the management of malignant hyperthermia?
A) Atropine
B) Suxamethonium.
C) Tubocurarine.
D) Dantrolene
Q2) Which set of drug responses best matches the action of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
A) Feelings of relaxation, increased skeletal muscle tone, increased autonomic tone and the release of catecholamines
B) Bronchoconstriction, increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, increased skeletal muscle tension and bradycardia
C) Tachycardia, facial flushing, decreased gastrointestinal motility, dry mouth and urinary retention
D) Tachycardia, histamine-induced hypotension, muscle relaxation and decreased gastrointestinal motility
Q3) Acetylcholinesterase breaks acetylcholine into choline and acetate.
A)True
B)False
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Page 29
Chapter 28: An Introduction to Chemical Mediators
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Q1) Which of the following mediators acts on a distant target?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Classic hormone
C) Local hormone
D) Autacoid
Q2) Mediators that induce their effect without entering the circulation are referred to as:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) autacoids.
D) second messengers.
Q3) Which of the following mediators is released directly into the bloodstream?
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Autacoids
D) None of the above
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Chapter 29: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Q1) Blocking which histamine receptor would help in the management of excessive gastric acid secretion?
A) H<sub>1</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>
C) H<sub>3</sub>
D) H<sub>4</sub>
Q2) Which of the following mediators plays a role in modulating allergic reactions?
A) Serotonin
B) Histamine
C) Pepsin
D) None of the above
Q3) Which secondary messenger is associated with H<sub>1</sub> receptor activation?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Q4) First-generation antihistamines have a longer duration of action.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Prostaglandins and Serotonin
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Q1) Prostaglandin analogues have been used for:
A) termination of pregnancy.
B) glaucoma.
C) treatment of impotence.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Drugs that inhibit the synaptic serotonin reuptake are used for:
A) autism.
B) depression.
C) glaucoma.
D) termination of pregnancy.
Q3) Common eicosanoids include:
A) thromboxanes.
B) leukotrienes.
C) hydroperoxyeicosatrienoic acids.
D) all of the above.
Q4) 5-HT<sub>3</sub> receptor antagonists have been used for: A) nausea.
B) somnolence.
C) REMS sleep disorder.
D) GERD.
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Chapter 31: Nitric Oxide and the Endothelins
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Q1) Endothelin receptor antagonists have been used for the treatment of:
A) pulmonary hypertension.
B) ischemic valve disease.
C) peripheral vascular disease.
D) none of the above.
Q2) Endothelin receptor antagonists can be used safely in pregnant patients.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many endothelin receptor subtypes have been identified?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q4) Nitric oxide is a highly stable gas used for the management of cyanide poisoning.
A)True
B)False
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Page 33
Chapter 32: General concepts of Psychopharmacology
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Q1) With which neurotransmitter system are NMDA receptors primarily associated?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Glutamate
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
Q2) Which part of the human brain is not considered part of the brainstem?
A) Medulla oblongata
B) Midbrain
C) Pons
D) Cerebrum
Q3) Which description best matches the role of the thalamus?
A) A sorting area for sensory and motor impulses that relays the information to the most appropriate brain region
B) An area involved in appetite, body temperature, thirst and hormone release
C) The area involved in the primary perception and interpretation of sensation as well as the initiation of skeletal muscle movement
D) A region involved in equilibrium, postural control and coordinated movement
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Chapter 33: Antipsychotics
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Q1) An example of a psychosis is:
A) schizophrenia.
B) depression.
C) anxiety.
D) panic disorder.
Q2) Psychoses include the following conditions EXCEPT:
A) depression.
B) schizophrenia.
C) severe agitation.
D) some forms of dementia.
Q3) Which dopamine receptor is most frequently associated with psychotic illness?
A) D1
B) D2
C) D3
D) D4
Q4) Which of the following is an atypical antipsychotic agent?
A) Trifluoperazine
B) Prochlorperazine
C) Haloperidol
D) Clozapine
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Chapter 34: Anxiolytics and Hypnotics
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Q1) Which of the following benzodiazepine agents would be suitable for a plane journey where the traveller is having trouble getting to sleep?
A) Clobazam
B) Diazepam
C) Triazolam
D) Nitrazepam
Q2) Which benzodiazepine is sometimes useful in the treatment of endogenous depression?
A) Alprazolam
B) Triazolam
C) Diazepam
D) Flunitrazepam
Q3) Explain why hypnotic agents should not be used for long-term therapy.
Q4) Which benzodiazepine agent would be considered suitable for a person who has problems with early morning awakening?
A) Triazolam
B) Diazepam
C) Temazepam
D) Flunitrazepam
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Chapter 35: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilisers
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Q1) The potential role of antiseizure drugs in the management of bipolar disorder is to:
A) elevate the synaptic levels of noradrenaline and serotonin.
B) antagonise the effects of GABA.
C) substitute for sodium ion in neuronal processes.
D) stabilise the erratic firing in pathways associated with mood.
Q2) All of the following antidepressants are suitable forms of therapy for a woman with postpartum depression who is breastfeeding,EXCEPT for:
A) paroxetine.
B) fluoxetine.
C) sertraline.
D) fluvoxamine.
Q3) In terms of the proposed sites of action of antidepressant drugs,which of the following would be expected to produce a therapeutic benefit?
A) The induction of monoamine oxidase activity
B) An increase in the synaptic levels of neurotransmitters serotonin and/or noradrenaline
C) A centrally acting \(\beta_{2}\) agonist
D) Depletion of amine transmitter levels in the presynaptic nerve terminal
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Chapter 36: Medicines Used in Neurodegenerative Disorders
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Q1) Parkinson's disease is a defect in the function of which transmitter system in the basal ganglia?
A) Noradrenaline
B) Acetylcholine
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
Q2) Neuroleptic drug-induced Parkinsonian symptoms are often treated with:
A) an antimuscarinic agent.
B) a serotonin receptor agonist.
C) an antiemetic agent.
D) an increase in neuroleptic dose.
Q3) Mr Penson was being treated with drugs for Parkinson's disease and noted an increase in his libido.What drug may have caused this?
A) The dopamine precursor, levodopa
B) The antimuscarinic, benzhexol
C) Amantadine
D) The MAO-B inhibitor, selegiline
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Antiseizure Agents and Muscle Relaxants
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Q1) A seizure characterised by an unresponsive,blank state and stereotypic behaviours (such as eyelid fluttering)is:
A) an absence seizure.
B) a psychomotor seizure.
C) a Jacksonian seizure.
D) tonic-clonic seizure.
Q2) Spasmolytic muscle relaxants enhance the inhibitory transmitter GABA.How does this action produce a therapeutic effect in seizure management?
A) By reducing hyperexcitability of the motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord
B) By inducing sedation in the patient
C) By altering calcium levels that reduce skeletal muscle contraction
D) Stimulation of GABAergic pathways in the spinal cord
Q3) Which of the following drug mechanisms of action is desirable in the management of seizures?
A) The stabilisation of the nerve membrane
B) Inhibiting the action of glutamate
C) The enhancement of GABA activity
D) All of the above
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Chapter 38: Central Nervous System Stimulants
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Q1) 'Drug holidays' from dexamphetamine may be important to avoid:
A) addiction.
B) growth retardation.
C) insomnia.
D) cognitive impairment.
Q2) Modafinil is useful in the treatment of:
A) ADD.
B) ADHD.
C) narcolepsy.
D) amphetamine addiction.
Q3) Behaviour associated with ADD in children includes: A) forgetfulness.
B) daydreaming.
C) lack of interest.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 39: Opioid Analgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following narcotics has a prolonged duration of action?
A) Pethidine
B) Methadone
C) Codeine
D) Fentanyl
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of oxycodone?
A) It has less of a hepatic first pass than morphine.
B) It has a shorter half-life than morphine.
C) It comes as a suppository formulation, which is useful for overnight analgesia.
D) It comes as a scored tablet formulation, which can be crushed and given with water to clients who have difficulties in swallowing tablets whole.
Q3) Which of the following pain medicines produce a constipating effect?
A) Pethidine
B) Aspirin
C) Morphine
D) Paracetamol
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which enzyme is the target for inhibition by the NSAIDs?
A) Cyclo-oxygenase
B) Phospholipase A
C) Adenylate cyclase
D) 5-Lipoxygenase
Q2) NSAIDs may not be suitable for use in individuals with renal impairment because they:
A) increase sodium excretion.
B) increase body temperature.
C) reduce the glomerular filtration rate.
D) reduce pepsin levels in the stomach.
Q3) Describe the effects of prostaglandins on inflammation and pain.
Q4) Controlled-release preparations of ketoprofen should be taken ________ to improve the symptoms of arthritic pain.
A) immediately after meals
B) 15 minutes before physical activity
C) at bedtime
D) upon rising in the morning
Q5) Which individuals may be more susceptible to paracetamol overdose? Why?
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Chapter 41: Medicines Used to Treat Migraine
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Q1) Which of the following is true of ergotamine for migraine prophylaxis?
A) Caffeine enhances its absorption and onset of action.
B) No more than five doses should be taken in any one week.
C) Doses should be closely monitored due to the risk of rebound headaches and dependence.
D) All of the above.
Q2) Analgesic agents that are effective in treating mild to moderate acute migraine headaches include:
A) ibuprofen and indomethacin.
B) aspirin and paracetamol.
C) piroxicam and sulindac.
D) propranolol and ketamine.
Q3) Preventive therapies for migraine should be used for a period of:
A) three to six days.
B) three to six weeks.
C) three to six months.
D) six to twelve months.
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Chapter 42: General Anaesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect; this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear
C) Tachycardia
D) Intestinal obstruction
Q3) The rate of absorption of inhaled anaesthetic into the bloodstream is dependent on the ________ of the gas.
A) rate of osmosis
B) partial pressure
C) volume
D) surfactant levels
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Chapter 43: Local Anesthesia
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Q1) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine
Q2) Which of the following routes of administration has the highest rate of systemic absorption of local anaesthetic agents?
A) Epidural administration
B) Intercostal administration
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Brachial plexus administration
Q3) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) GABA
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Chapter 44: Medicines Used to Lower Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients on atorvastatin should avoid ________ during therapy because it may increase the amount of atorvastatin in their circulation and therefore increase the chances of adverse effects occurring.
A) alcohol
B) milk
C) grapefruit juice
D) leafy green vegetables
Q2) In considering therapy with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors,it is important for the client to have regular:
A) liver function tests.
B) renal function tests.
C) blood clotting tests.
D) respiratory function tests.
Q3) The inclusion of ________ in the diet may help to avoid hypercholesterolaemia.
A) chicken
B) sardines
C) mutton
D) beef
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Chapter 45: Antihypertensive Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications used for hypertensive emergencies dilates both arteries and veins?
A)Hydralazine
B)Minoxidil
C)Sodium nitroprusside
D)Diazoxide
Q2) Which of the antihypertensive groups is least likely to be used as first-line treatment for hypertension?
A) -blockers
B)ACE inhibitors
C)Calcium channel blockers
D)Centrally acting medicines
Q3) If a second dose of diuretic is required,this is usually administered:
A) mid-morning.
B) midday or early afternoon.
C) early evening.
D) at bedtime.
Q4) Describe the method of action of ACE inhibitors.
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Chapter 46: Medicines Used to Promote Tissue Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker that:
A) is used widely in the management of angina.
B) is relatively selective for cerebral blood vessels.
C) increases cardiac workload.
D) is most beneficial when it is administered prophylactically.
Q2) Which of the following nitrate formulations is not used to prevent angina symptoms?
A) Oral isosorbide dinitrate controlled-release tablets
B) Oral isosorbide mononitrate controlled-release tablets
C) Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate
D) Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate
Q3) The cardiac glycoside digoxin is also known as:
A) digitalis.
B) ACE.
C) carvedilol.
D) captopril.
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Chapter 47: Antithrombotic, Fibrinolytic and Haemostatic Agents
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Q1) The benefit of ________ for the treatment of thrombosis is that it is clot-specific,thereby reducing the risk of generalised haemorrhage.
A) warfarin
B) urokinase
C) streptokinase
D) tissue plasminogen activator
Q2) What is the haemostatic agent used in colposcopy procedures?
A)Monsel's solution
B)Calcium alginate
C)Eltrombopag
D)Octocog alfa
Q3) The benefits of enoxaparin over heparin include that it:
A) is less likely to cause thrombocytopaenia and is more effective in reducing mortality and myocardial infarction in unstable angina.
B) has a longer half-life requiring less frequent monitoring and is safer in pregnancy.
C) A and B.
D) neither A nor B.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Diuretics and Other Renal Medicines
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Q1) Which of the following diuretic agents is not recommended to be given with an ACE inhibitor?
A) Chlorothiazide
B) Frusemide
C) Ethacrynic acid
D) Spironolactone
Q2) Metabolic imbalances associated with thiazides can be avoided by:
A) starting off with a small dose and titrating according to therapeutic response.
B) starting off with a high dose and gradually titrating according to therapeutic response.
C) administering the dose once a day.
D) administering the dose two times a day.
Q3) Urinary alkalisation is possible only if creatinine clearance is at what level?
A)At least 20 mL/min
B)At least 30 mL/min
C)No more than 30 mL/min
D)No more than 20 mL/min
Q4) Explain why acidification of urine might be undertaken in individuals with urinary tract infections or urinary catheters.
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Chapter 49: Topic: Medicines Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Q1) To use ivabradine,the patient's heart rate must be at least ________ beats per minute.
A)50
B)60
C)70
D)80
Q2) According to guidelines developed by the National Heart Foundation and Cardiac Society of Australia and New Zealand,what is the first medication to consider for heart failure?
A) -blockers
B)Calcium channel blockers
C)ACE inhibitors
D)Aldosterone antagonist
Q3) Which one of the following is NOT a pathophysiological change associated with heart failure?
A) Increased myocardial oxygen demand
B) Myocardial remodelling
C) Decreased angiotensin II production
D) Decreased myocardial contractility
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Chapter 50: Medicines Used to Treat Cardiac Dysrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Verapamil is a class IV antidysrhythmic agent.Verapamil belongs to what class of drug?
A)Calcium channel blockers
B)ACE inhibitors
C) -blockers
D)Inotropic agents
Q2) Which of the following are mechanisms of action of the class I antidysrhythmics?
A)They have local anaesthesia properties.
B)They have a high affinity for blocking active sodium channels.
C)They affect phase four of the action potential.
D)All of the above.
Q3) Which is an example of a prodysrhythmic agent?
A)Fexofenadine
B)Clarithromycin
C)Haloperidol
D)All of the above
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Chapter 51: Fluid and Potassium Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mild hypokalaemia should be treated in what manner?
A)Dietary supplementation
B)Oral potassium supplementation
C)Slow-release oral potassium
D)Parenteral potassium
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an isotonic solution?
A) 4% glucose with 0.18% sodium chloride
B) 0.45% sodium chloride
C) 10% glucose
D) 25% mannitol
Q3) Infusing a hypotonic solution will have which of the following cellular effects?
A) There will be no net shift of fluid.
B) Fluid will shift from the intracellular space to dilute the extracellular space, causing cell shrinkage.
C) Sodium will move from the extracellular space into the intracellular space.
D) Fluid will shift from the extracellular space to a more concentrated intracellular space, causing cell swelling.
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Chapter 52: Antianaemic Agents
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Q1) Which one of the following is considered a cause of anaemia?
A) Vitamin D<sub>3</sub> deficiency
B) Exposure to anabolic steroids
C) Chronic renal failure
D) Elemental iron overload
Q2) Treatment with iron supplementation is usually continued for about ________ to ensure replenishment of iron stores in iron deficiency anaemia.
A) two weeks
B) one month
C) two months
D) three months
Q3) High doses of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> may cause
A) hypotension.
B) hypokalaemia.
C) constipation.
D) folate deficiency.
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Chapter 53: Medicines Used to Maintain Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following respiratory illnesses affects approximately 10% of adult Australians?
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Chronic bronchitis
C) Emphysema
D) Cystic fibrosis
Q2) Which one of the following statements about oxygen therapy is true?
A) Prolonged therapy with 100% oxygen can lead to toxicity regardless of underlying pathology.
B) Standard oxygen therapy for clients with long-term chronic obstructive airways disease will lead to hyperventilation.
C) Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is useful in the care of premature infants.
D) Peak flow readings determine the level of oxygen therapy required.
Q3) Inhaled corticosteroids should be considered as part of the medication regime for asthma if the person is using their \(\beta_{2}\) agonists more than:
A) one time each month.
B) three times each month.
C) three to four times each week.
D) two times each month.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Medicines for Upper Respiratory Tract
Conditions
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Q1) Cough suppressants should not be given to children under ________ years of age.
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
Q2) To which drug group do many cough suppressants belong?
A) NSAIDs
B) Narcotics
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Dopamine antagonists
Q3) Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients taking:
A) antihistamines.
B) certain types of antidepressants.
C) antitussive agents.
D) salicylate preparations.
Q4) Hyoscine is contraindicated in patients with:
A) glaucoma.
B) depression.
C) heart failure.
D) diabetes.
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Chapter 55: Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) Antacids containing aluminium and divalent ions can be problematic because they:
A) make the gut too acidic.
B) are known to induce Alzheimer's disease.
C) interact with tetracycline antibiotics and inactivate them.
D) form a viscous jelly that can obstruct the gastrointestinal tract.
Q2) Ranitidine is an example of which class of medicines?
A) Proton pump inhibitor
B) H<sub>2</sub> antagonist
C) Antacid
D) Prostaglandin
Q3) In order to determine the effectiveness of Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy,which of the following tests is usually performed?
A) Gastroscopy
B) Barium swallow
C) Urea breath test
D) Gastrointestinal biopsy
Q4) Explain how a hiatus hernia can cause gastric reflux.
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Chapter 56: Lower Castrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) Pectin is an example of what type of antidiarrheal?
A) Absorbent
B) Adsorbent
C) Opioid derivative
D) Belladonna alkaloid
Q2) In perianal disease,________ laxatives should be used to prevent straining.
A) stimulant
B) lubricant
C) bulk
D) softener
Q3) Sennosides are best administered:
A) at bedtime.
B) before lying down.
C) with meals.
D) in the recumbent position.
Q4) Docusate is a:
A) faecal softener.
B) lubricant.
C) stimulant.
D) bulk laxative.
58
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Chapter 57: Antiemetic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is important to advise a person who is pregnant about the possible teratogenetic effects of antiemetics during the:
A) first trimester of pregnancy.
B) second trimester of pregnancy.
C) third trimester of pregnancy.
D) labour period.
Q2) Medication adherence can be affected by the frequency of administration of a medication regimen.Once-a-day regimens are likely to bring about better medication adherence than two- to three-times-a-day regimens.Which of the following setrons used in the treatment of chemically induced nausea and vomiting need to be administered two to three times a day?
A) Granisetron
B) Ondansetron
C) Tropisetron
D) Dolasetron
Q3) Which of the following antiemetic agents may cause extrapyramidal side effects?
A) Prochlorperazine
B) Domperidone
C) Ondansetron
D) Dolasetron
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Chapter 58: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Q1) What finding must be present in order to proceed with enteral feedings?
A) Bowel sounds
B) Normal blood sugar
C) Normal faeces
D) Sufficient kidney function
Q2) Parenteral solutions are usually prepared:
A) by the health facility kitchen staff.
B) onsite in the ward or clinical area.
C) ideally by the dietetics department.
D) under sterile conditions in the pharmacy.
Q3) Which complication would be least common with an enteral feed?
A) Electrolyte imbalance
B) Entry of feed into the lungs
C) Clogging of the tube
D) Intracranial penetration
Q4) Which complication would be least common with an enteral feed?
A) Electrolyte imbalance
B) Entry of feed into the lungs
C) Clogging of the tube
D) Intracranial penetration
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Chapter 59: Medicines and the Pituitary Gland
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Q1) Which one of the following statements about oxytocin is correct?
A) There are no clinical uses for oxytocin.
B) Oxytocin is believed to have strong serotonergic and \(\alpha\)-adrenergic activity.
C) The anterior pituitary lobe secretes oxytocin.
D) Oxytocin promotes breast milk let-down and facilitates placental delivery.
Q2) A serious adverse effect associated with drugs that act like or stimulate release of endogenous gonadotrophin is:
A) low levels of oestrogens in the blood.
B) ovarian cysts that may rupture.
C) colon cancer.
D) gonadal atrophy.
Q3) Somatropin is administered by daily subcutaneous injections to stimulate skeletal and cellular growth.What is a major reason why some individuals fail to respond to treatment?
A) The development of somatropin antibodies by the individual taking the somatropin
B) Use of somatropin extracted from the pituitary glands of human cadavers
C) Lack of rotation of injection sites
D) Use of different brands during a treatment regimen
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Chapter 60: Medicines and the Thyroid
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Q1) Which of the following is true about the action of iodide solutions for hyperthyroid states?
A) High doses of iodide cause an immediate reduction in the release of thyroid hormone.
B) Iodide reduces the blood supply to the thyroid gland and makes it firmer.
C) Iodide has a long half-life and greatly reduces the release of thyroid hormone for up to one month.
D) Both A and B.
Q2) The clinical effects of thionamides for hyperthyroid states do not become apparent until stores of thyroid hormones become depleted,which takes about ________ days after the start of therapy.
A) 2 to 3
B) 5 to 7
C) 7 to 14
D) 21 to 28
Q3) What purpose do \(\beta\)-blockers serve in treating thyroid disease?
A) They directly lower thyroid levels.
B) They are only used for well-controlled patients.
C) They are used to alleviate symptoms caused by adrenergic stimulation.
D) They have no clinical indication in treating thyroid disease.
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Page 62
Chapter 61: Medicines and the Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the treatment of type 2 diabetes,a sulfonylurea agent is administered with food to reduce the:
A) incidence of diarrhoea.
B) incidence of hypoglycaemia.
C) incidence of vomiting.
D) drug's metabolism.
Q2) Glycosylated haemoglobin level (HbA<sub>1c</sub>)is an indicator of:
A) insulin overdose.
B) normal growth in children with diabetes mellitus.
C) stress.
D) longer-term glycaemic control.
Q3) The type of insulin preparation with an onset of action around 0.5-1 hour and a duration of action of 6--8 hours is:
A) neutral insulin.
B) isophane insulin.
C) ultralente insulin.
D) an insulin analogue.
Q4) The majority of cases of diabetes mellitus are type 1.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 62: Medicines Affecting the Adrenal Cortex
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Sample Questions
Q1) A specific immune-related effect associated with glucocorticoid action is:
A) destabilisation of T lymphocytes.
B) increased protein synthesis.
C) increase in neutrophil and macrophage response.
D) reduction in the size and substance of the lymph nodes and spleen.
Q2) When the oral dose exceeds mg daily of prednisolone or equivalent dose,the person will benefit from receiving gastric acid-suppressive therapy.
A) 4
B) 6
C) 10
D) 15
Q3) During spironolactone therapy,the blood levels of ________ should be monitored.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) urea
D) calcium
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Chapter 63: Medicines and the Gonads
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the gonadal hormones induces effects that include increased libido,enhanced red blood cell production and raised basal metabolic rate?
A) Oestrogen
B) Testosterone
C) Progesterone
D) Inhibin
Q2) Women treated with oestrogen-only preparations may be at an increased risk of developing:
A) colon cancer.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) osteoporosis.
D) breast cancer.
Q3) The AAS nandrolone may be used in the treatment of:
A) menopausal symptoms.
B) osteoporosis.
C) enhanced healing after surgery.
D) breast cancer.
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65
Chapter 64: Medicines and Bone Metabolism
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Q1) Which factors play a role in calcium absorption in women? Select all that apply.
A) Minimal dietary calcium
B) Menopause
C) Vitamin D deficiency
D) Chronic kidney disease
E) Diabetes
Q2) The mechanism of action of the bisphosphonates is to:
A) release calcium from bones.
B) inhibit bone breakdown and resorption.
C) increase the sensitivity of the calcium-sensing receptors on parathyroid gland cells.
D) raise the blood levels of oestrogen.
Q3) Describe the role of parathyroid hormone with regards to regulation of blood calcium levels.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT true about vitamin D?
A) Deficiency in the vitamin leads to an increase in bone mineralisation.
B) It is absorbed via the gastrointestinal system from vegetable products and some fish.
C) It is essential in the regulation of calcium and phosphorous in the body.
D) It can be made as long as the skin has enough exposure to UV rays.
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Page 66
Chapter 65: Hyperuricaemia and Gout
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Q1) Colchicine has NSAID properties,but also has specific mechanisms including ________ to treat gout.
A) stimulating prostaglandin synthesis and secretion
B) disruption of leukocyte microtubule function, which inhibits cell migration to the site of inflammation
C) activation of xanthine oxidase
D) creating more acidic urine, which increases excretion of uric acid
Q2) Which one of the following drugs or drug groups acts to increase the excretion of uric acid?
A) The corticosteroids
B) Colchicine
C) Probenecid
D) Allopurinol
Q3) A characteristic of gout is that:
A) it manifests as a form of arthritis.
B) it is more prevalent in women.
C) the risk of developing it can be reduced by eating foods such as sardines or offal.
D) it is not associated with any genetic predisposition.
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Chapter 66: Obesity and Its Treatment
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Q1) Stimulant anorectics are only recommended for short-term treatment of obesity for a period of up to ________ weeks.
A) 2
B) 6
C) 12
D) 24
Q2) When food intake equals energy consumed by the body's cells,the person is said to be in:
A) a malnourished state.
B) an obese state.
C) energy balance.
D) a sedentary state.
Q3) Which of the following chemical mediators stimulates feeding?
A) Serotonin
B) Noradrenaline
C) Peptide YY
D) Neuropeptide Y
Q4) Describe some nonpharmacological strategies for weight loss.
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Page 68
Chapter 67: Introduction to Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which anti-infective agent would have the highest risk if used in pregnancy?
A) Selected penicillins
B) Nystatin
C) Amphotericin
D) Nitrofurantoin
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a likely cause of antimicrobial resistance?
A) Using narrow-spectrum antibiotics instead of broad-spectrum antibiotics
B) Excessive use of antibiotics in animals bred for human consumption
C) Failure to conform to the dosing regime
D) Spraying excess antibiotic in the air after drawing it up for injection
Q3) An antimicrobial agent with a narrow spectrum of activity reflects a drug that has:
A) only a weak antibiotic action.
B) effectiveness against a relatively small number of microbes.
C) a low potency.
D) a narrow margin of safety.
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Chapter 68: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Q1) A premixed combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is called:
A) trimethoxazole.
B) co-trimoxazole.
C) sulphaprim.
D) blephamide.
Q2) The actions of the sulfonamides and trimethoprim:
A) are considered bactericidal.
B) are identical, as they interrupt the process at the same point.
C) interfere with nucleic acid synthesis.
D) are not influenced by folic acid stores.
Q3) What should a person be advised to do when taking sulfonamide therapy?
A) Ensure an adequate fluid intake.
B) Monitor folate status during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
C) Have a full blood examination during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
D) All of the above.
Q4) Trimethoprim is best taken as a single daily dose:
A) in the morning.
B) at midday.
C) in the mid-afternoon.
D) at bedtime.
Page 70
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Chapter 69: Antibacterial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the indication for rifaxim?
A) Hepatic encephalopathy
B) Viral encephalitis
C) Hepatitis
D) Hepatic insufficiency
Q2) Quinolones are contraindicated in pregnant women and children for what reason?
A) They are ototoxic at small doses
B) They can permanently discolour teeth
C) They can damage developing joints permanently
D) They are only useful for Gram positive bacterium
Q3) Cross-sensitivity can occur between penicillin and which other drugs?
A) Cephalosporins
B) Carbapenems
C) -lactams
D) All of the above
Q4) The main monobactam in use is:
A) imipenem.
B) aztreonam.
C) ertapenem.
D) doripenem.
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Chapter 70: Antituberculotic and Antileprotic Agents
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Q1) In the context of antituberculotic drug action,a bactericidal drug:
A) kills all tuberculosis bacteria.
B) targets dividing bacteria.
C) kills persistent dormant bacteria.
D) targets bacteria in the lungs.
Q2) An unusual consequence of rifampicin antituberculotic therapy is that:
A) faeces turn black.
B) faeces turn white.
C) urine turns red.
D) urine turns bright yellow.
Q3) Which of the following factors would cause favourable conditions for tuberculosis to spread?
A) Social inequity
B) Overcrowding
C) Exposure to livestock/wildlife that may be infected
D) All of the above
Q4) Treatment for tuberculosis consists of a bactericidal phase and a sterilising phase.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 71: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) An example of an antiseptic is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
Q2) What is the main difference between antiseptics and disinfectants?
A) Antiseptics are for use on inanimate objects
B) Disinfectants are used on the human body
C) Antiseptics are used on the human body
D) Both can be used on either surface
Q3) Cetrimide inhibits bacterial growth because of its ________ properties.
A) detergent
B) oxidising
C) alkylating
D) reducing
Q4) An example of a disinfectant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
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Chapter 72: Antiparasitic Agents
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Q1) A drug used to treat amoebiasis is:
A) vancomycin.
B) tinidazole.
C) lincosamide.
D) pyrantel.
Q2) Malaria can be caused by at least ________ species of Plasmodium.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
Q3) It has been estimated that the carrier rate of Entamoeba hystolitica in poorly sanitised areas is:
A) 50 per cent.
B) 20 per cent.
C) 10 per cent.
D) 75 per cent.
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Chapter 73: Antiviral Agents
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Q1) Which one of the following are adverse effects of the influenza drug zanamivir?
A) Nausea.
B) Bronchospasm.
C) Dyspnoea.
D) All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a common adverse effect of HIV treatment with the viral protease inhibitor atazanavir?
A) Photosensitivity
B) Nausea or vomiting
C) Diarrhoea
D) Lipodystrophy
Q3) Viruses are best defined as:
A) infectious agents.
B) primitive bacteria.
C) microorganisms.
D) mycoplasma.
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Page 75
Chapter 74: Antifungal Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tinea barbae affects the:
A) nails.
B) beard.
C) groin.
D) head.
Q2) Which are qualities of subcutaneous mycoses? Select all that apply.
A) It is most common in northern countries.
B) It can be grossly disfiguring.
C) It involves skin, fascia and bone.
D) It is caused by dermatophytes.
E) Is commonly referred to as candidiasis.
Q3) The antifungal amphotericin can be used:
A) topically, intravenously and in lozenge form.
B) intramuscularly, intrathecally and transdermally.
C) intramuscularly and intravenously.
D) topically and orally.
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Chapter 75: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which types of white blood cells are involved in allergic reactions? Select all that apply.
A) Monocytes
B) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
D) Neutrophils
Q2) A patient is admitted with a snake bite from an unknown species.Which antivenom would be most useful?
A) A bivalent preparation
B) A trivalent preparation
C) A polyvalent preparation
D) No treatment can be given without identifying the snake
Q3) To generate immunity to some diseases,vaccines contain live microbes that have been attenuated and inactivated,so it is impossible for the recipient to develop the illness.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the difference between the terms vaccination and immunisation.
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Chapter 76: Cytotoxic Chemotherapeutic Agents
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Q1) Which of the following drug groups directly targets the intracellular cascade of reactions leading to proliferation and survival of cancerous cells?
A) S-phase inhibitors
B) Monoclonal antibodies
C) Radioactive samarium
D) Protein kinase inhibitors
Q2) Which of the following are NOT Classic cytotoxic chemotherapeutic agents?
A) Alkylating agents
B) Colony stimulating factors
C) Antibiotic-type cytotoxic agents
D) Cell cycle-specific agents
Q3) Why would erythropoietin be given to a patient undergoing cancer treatment?
A) To counteract anaemia
B) To minimise nausea
C) To control pain
D)To protect against bone loss
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Chapter 77: Medicines Used in Diseases of the Skin
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Q1) Psoriasis is thought to involve:
A) an inflammatory response involving T cell activation.
B) an allergic reaction where skin mast cells degranulate.
C) immune complexes lodging in the skin and triggering a hypersensitivity reaction.
D) a viral infection of the skin and adjacent mucous membranes.
Q2) Acne rosacea is best treated with topical:
A) erythromycin.
B) clindamycin.
C) metronidazole.
D) clotrimazole.
Q3) Dandruff can be caused in part by a fungal infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When using the vitamin D analogue calcipotriol for psoriasis,it can be carefully applied to lesions located on the:
A) scalp.
B) face.
C) body surface.
D) skin folds.
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Chapter 78: Medicines and the Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first-choice treatment for glaucoma is:
A) miotics.
B) -blockers.
C) sympathomimetic agents.
D) diuretics
Q2) Drugs related to the antiviral agent aciclovir are used in the management of ophthalmic conditions such as:
A) trachoma.
B) CMV-induced retinitis.
C) Candida albicans infection.
D) purulent bacterial infections.
Q3) Which one of the following is an accessory structure of the eye?
A) Iris
B) Ciliary bodies
C) Lacrimal apparatus
D) Sclera
Q4) Describe the pathophysiology of glaucoma.
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Chapter 79: Herbal Medicines
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Q1) Chamomile should be avoided in patients who:
A) have potential for anaphylaxis.
B) are on anticoagulant therapy.
C) are on prescription sleep aids.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Which herbal medicine should be avoided in people with schizophrenia?
A) Evening primrose
B) Aloe vera
C) Echinacea
D) Garlic
Q3) Which of the following statements about cranberry are true? Select all that apply.
A) It is safe in pregnancy.
B) Too much can cause renal calculi.
C) Patients should not drink more than 1 litre a day.
D) It is thought to acidify the urine.
Q4) Echinacea consistently shows effectiveness in clinical trials.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List some Common herbal medicines that are unsafe for use in pregnancy.
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