Principles of Dental Hygiene Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Principles of Dental Hygiene offers a comprehensive introduction to the foundational concepts and practices essential for promoting oral health. The course covers the anatomy and physiology of oral structures, the etiology and prevention of common dental diseases, and the role of the dental hygienist in patient education and care. Emphasis is placed on the scientific principles underlying dental hygiene techniques, infection control, and the ethical and professional responsibilities of dental health practitioners. Students will develop a thorough understanding of strategies for effective oral hygiene instruction, preventive measures, and maintenance of oral and overall health, preparing them for advanced study and clinical practice in dental hygiene.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Hygiene Theory and Practice 4th Edition by Michele Leonardi
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64 Chapters
1581 Verified Questions
1581 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1166 Page 2
Chapter 1: The Dental Hygiene Profession
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23019
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the seven roles of a dental hygienist?
A) Clinician
B) Public Health
C) Interpreter
D) Researcher
Answer: C
Q2) The importance of a conceptual model is to provide philosophic and practical perspectives about dental hygiene's paradigm concepts. Dental hygiene's paradigm is operationalized via the Human Needs Conceptual Model.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Answer: A
Q3) The dental hygienist must be _____ in the jurisdiction in which they practice.
A) licensed
B) certified
C) accredited
D) educated
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Human Needs Theory and Dental Hygiene Care
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regular maintenance intervals of no more than 3 months are recommended for clients with a deficit in skin and mucous membrane integrity of the head and neck because they are not motivated to maintain oral health at home.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Answer: C
Q2) What is the term for a tension within a person?
A) Self-tolerance
B) Human need
C) Facial image stressors
D) Immunosuppression
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Decision Making
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organizations is solely dedicated to producing systematic reviews?
A) American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry
B) American Academy of Periodontology
C) American Dental Association
D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
E) Cochrane Collaboration
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement?
A) Evidence alone does not tell practitioners what to do.
B) All evidence is equal on the hierarchy.
C) The number of studies increase as you move up the hierarchy.
D) The clinical relevance of studies decreases as you move up the hierarchy.
E) None of the above are true statements.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Health and Health Promotion
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Access to dental hygiene care enables clients to access disease treatment and disease prevention interventions. Access to dental hygiene care helps address a determinant of health.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Which of the following approaches is descriptive of a health promotion strategy?
A) Diagnostic workup
B) Process of elimination
C) Preventive intervention
D) Create supportive environments
E) Field study
Q3) Examples of tertiary prevention include the following dental hygiene interventions except for one? Which is the one exception?
A) Dietary counseling for person with dental decay
B) Tobacco cessation program for smoker
C) Fluoride varnish for person with rampant decay
D) Mouth guard fabrication for hockey player
E) Periodontal debridement for person with localized periodontal disease
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Chapter 5: Changing Behaviors
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15 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ Model of behavioral change is effective for use with young school-age children
Q2) Although perceptions are formed based on past experience, they are easily changed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Communication generally stops with one encoded and decoded message.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Andragogy is the art and science of helping the _________________________ learn.
Q5) Interpersonal communication is the process by which a person sends a message to another person with the intention of evoking a response.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The Zones of touch are _________________ and _______________________.
Q7) The two types of asking questions are __________ and ___________.
Page 7
Q8) The CARE principle identifies _____, _____, _____, and _____ as important aspects of effective dental hygienist-client helping relationships. (Show your answer in alphabetical order.)
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Cultural Competence
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19 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonverbal communication is important in a culturally sensitive environment. The clinician should be sensitive to:
A) gestures.
B) eye contact.
C) personal space.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Statement 1: Complex societies are homogenous. Statement 2: Immigrants of the first generation share the same culture as the second or third generation of immigrants.
A) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
B) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
C) Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
D) Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
Q3) Statement 1: Symbols can play an important role in culture. Statement 2: Culture is set by historical developments and will not change.
A) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
B) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
C) Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
D) Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
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Chapter 7: Professional Portfolios
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Sample Questions
Q1) When writing a Philosophy of Practice statement, the dental hygienist should consider the following topics to include except one. What is the one exception?
A) Define career goals and objectives.
B) Highlight your personal life, family, and hobbies.
C) Discuss the ethical considerations of dental hygiene practice.
D) Discuss your commitment to cultural diversity.
Q2) A recent dental hygiene graduate is preparing to apply for jobs and wants to use her portfolio as part of the interview process. She has heard that the dentist is looking for a dental hygienist with experience with a very diverse client population. The student decides to amend her charts of client experiences to show a greater number of clients seen than she actually cared for during her dental hygiene education. Which ethical principal did the student violate?
A) Autonomy
B) Veracity
C) Nonmaleficence
D) Beneficence
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10
Chapter 8: The Dental Hygiene Care Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Automatic processors with a daylight loader require a dark room and a safelight 4 feet away.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true.
Q2) In which area of the dental office does pouring of impressions, trimming study models, and creation of custom whitening trays and mouth guards occur?
A) Darkroom
B) Business area
C) Reception area
D) Dental laboratory
Q3) Most treatment areas have which of the following pieces of equipment:
A) storage cabinets
B) computers for scheduling
C) sink
D) alcohol hand rub
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Chapter 9: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Low- to intermediate-level disinfectants used to clean environmental surfaces:
A) rapidly inactivate human immunodeficiency virus and hepatitis B virus on clinical contact and housekeeping surfaces.
B) must be FDA registered and appropriate to disinfect floors, depending on type of contamination.
C) do both of the above.
D) do neither of the above.
Q2) Which type of infection-control precautions guards against exposure, not just to blood, but to all body fluids except sweat and tears in healthcare settings?
A) Generic
B) Universal
C) Standard
D) Transmission based
E) Isolation
Q3) Transmission-based precautions may be necessary to prevent the spread of:
A) varicella.
B) hepatitis B.
C) hepatitis C.
D) HIV.
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Page 12
Chapter 10: Medical Emergencies
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30 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the term used to describe the level of care or intervention used for victims of life-threatening illnesses or injuries until they can be given full medical care at a healthcare facility offering such services?
A) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
B) Rescue breathing
C) Conscious sedation
D) Basic Life Support (BLS)
Q2) A good Samaritan is someone who renders aid in an emergency to an injured person on a voluntary basis. There is no need for consent for the care provided to a conscious or an unconscious person.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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13
Chapter 11: Ergonomics
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sharp instruments are essential to the elimination of fatigue and stress on the clinician's hand, wrist, arm, and shoulders, which cause repetitive stress injuries (RSIs). Dull instruments that deviate from their original design cause the clinician to apply additional force, resulting in increased lateral pressure, excess stroke repetitions, and a tightened grasp.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) What is the foremost risk factor for carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)?
A) Holding instruments too tightly
B) Repetition
C) Use of vibrating instruments
D) Cold room temperatures
Q3) Which is a common symptom of thoracic outlet compression?
A) Numbness and tingling in the fingertips
B) Neck and shoulder muscle spasms
C) Warm extremities
D) Prominent or enhanced radial pulse
Q4) What causes the shoulder injury trapezius myalgia?
Page 14
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Chapter 12: The Health History
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are requirements for the legal preparation of the health history document except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Written with ink
B) Error is marked through with one line and "error" written above
C) Error should be initialed and dated
D) Form is signed by client or guardian
E) Patient aged 16 can sign personal health history
Q2) Which of the following questions are inappropriate when questioning the client about antibiotic prophylaxis?
A) What antibiotic was taken?
B) What dose was taken?
C) How long ago was the antibiotic taken?
D) Did insurance cover the cost of the antibiotic?
Q3) All of the following are related to clinical issues of liver disease except one. Which is the exception?
A) Bleeding problems
B) Oral ulcerations
C) Risk of blood-borne contagion
D) Careful consideration of a prescription for drugs
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Page 15
Chapter 13: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The four vital signs used to detect a client's cardiovascular and systemic health are:
A) height, weight, age, and race.
B) respiration, temperature, pulse, and blood pressure.
C) speed, temperature, gait, and electrocardiogram.
D) cholesterol, blood pressure, vision, and blood sugar.
Q2) If you have taken the client's blood pressure and the reading is abnormal, you should:
A) tell the client that they need to take medication for their high blood pressure.
B) ask the client about environmental factors.
C) take the blood pressure again.
D) do nothing.
Q3) The client's pulse and respiration should be measured together. Measuring the respiration without the knowledge of the client ensures a more accurate reading.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Pharmacologic History
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best recommendation that the dental hygienist can give to a client to reduce her risk for developing recurrent oral fungal infections?
A) Instruct the client to change toothbrushes frequently.
B) Advise the client to rinse twice daily with an antiseptic mouth rinse.
C) Teach the client not to share toothpaste or cosmetics.
D) Encourage the client to chew xylitol gum preventively.
Q2) Which of the following substances are glycoproteins that provide lubrication to protect the oral mucous membranes from injury, ulceration, and toxins?
A) Mucins
B) Urea
C) Immunoglobulin A
D) Lactoferrin
Q3) A drug that alters the pH of the stomach alters which aspect of pharmacokinetics of a second administered drug?
A) Absorption
B) Distribution
C) Metabolism
D) Excretion
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Chapter 15: Extraoral and Intraoral Clinical Assessment
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral cancer when detected early usually has a 5-year survival rate of:
A) less than 20%.
B) at 90%.
C) less than 30%.
D) more than 90%.
Q2) After a lymphadenopathy, which of the following is the specific reason that a head and neck lymph node feels tender to the client when palpated by the clinician?
A) Change in consistency
B) Mobility in tissue
C) Attachment to underlying tissues
D) Pressure on area nerves
Q3) Which of the following nodes serve as secondary lymph nodes for the occipital lymph nodes in the head?
A) Deep cervical lymph nodes
B) Submandibular lymph nodes
C) Auricular lymph nodes
D) Submental lymph nodes
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18
Chapter 16: Dentition Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following teeth is the least frequently absent?
A) First permanent molar
B) Third permanent molar
C) Maxillary lateral incisors
D) Mandibular premolars
Q2) What term is used to describe the occlusion when there is a deviation in the ideal relationship of the maxillary and mandibular teeth when they are in centric occlusion?
A) Prognathic
B) Retrognathic
C) Occlusion
D) Malocclusion
Q3) What is the eruption period for the mandibular permanent canine?
A) 9 to 10 years
B) 11 to 12 years
C) 10 to 12 years
D) 11 to 13 years
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Chapter 17: Oral Hygiene Assessment: Soft and Hard Deposits
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is a need for knowledge about effective control of oral biofilm because a high percentage of the population exhibits some type of periodontal disease.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) A major risk factor for caries and periodontal diseases is:
A) amount of materia alba.
B) food debris.
C) dental plaque.
D) extrinsic stain.
Q3) A significant percentage of the population exhibits some type of periodontal disease. Effective oral hygiene assessment provides which of the following benefits? Select all that apply.
A) Communicates unmet needs to a client
B) Instructs a client in effective, individualized self-care
C) Protects a client from health risks
D) Determines a client's unmet needs
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Dental Caries Management by Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a white spot lesion?
A) A demineralized area due to loss of minerals in the subsurface
B) A demineralized area in the surface of the enamel
C) A remineralized area that has been treated with fluoride
D) An area to watch for development of a carious lesion
Q2) Placement of restorations reduces the bacterial challenge. Bacterial challenge can be reduced by antibacterial therapy.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) All of the following statements are true regarding xylitol except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Xylitol enhances remineralization.
B) Xylitol inhibits the transfer of bacteria from person to person.
C) Xylitol inhibits future recolonization.
D) Xylitol use is recommended twice daily.
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21
Chapter 19: Periodontal and Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is a gram-negative micro-organism associated with periodontitis, except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Porphyromonas gingivalis
B) Treponema denticola
C) Streptococcus mutans
D) Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
Q2) Which of the following medications has a beneficial effect on the periodontium?
A) Phenytoin
B) Nifedipine
C) Cyclosporine
D) Tetracycline
Q3) Upon examination of the furca, the Nabers probe will go completely through the furcation that is covered by soft tissue. This is classified as what furcation type?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
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22
Chapter 20: Potential Impact of Periodontal Infections on
Overall General Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) People with uncontrolled or poorly controlled diabetes mellitus:
A) have high levels of glucose in the blood.
B) are more susceptible to infections.
C) have more severe periodontitis compared with diabetics whose condition is medically well controlled.
D) All of the above are correct.
Q2) Aspiration pneumonias may develop when:
A) oral fluids containing large numbers of microorganisms are aspirated into the bronchial tree and lungs.
B) periodontal infections alter the local intraoral environment in such a way that the mouth becomes colonized with elevated numbers of respiratory pathogens.
C) the metabolic control of blood sugar levels is hampered by the presence of periodontal infections.
D) both a and b occur.
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Chapter 21: Dental Hygiene Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dental hygiene diagnosis is written in a three-part statement that includes all of the following except:
A) unmet human need.
B) cause.
C) length of time the patient has had the problem.
D) defining characteristics (signs and symptoms).
Q2) Some legal jurisdictions allow a dental hygienist to identify oral disease such as moderate pregnancy-associated gingivitis or early chronic periodontitis as long as it is not the final dental diagnosis. What is this type of diagnosis called?
A) Early dental diagnosis
B) Final dental diagnosis
C) Preliminary dental diagnosis
D) None of the above
Q3) The dental hygiene diagnosis can be based on just one sign or symptom. This is to simplify the dental hygiene diagnostic process.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Page 24
Chapter 22: Dental Hygiene Care Plan, Evaluation, and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select three dental hygiene services completed at the Phase IV.
A) Maintenance Therapy continued care visit.
B) Reassess client's continued oral health and adherence to oral self-care recommendations.
C) Complete simple restorative needs.
D) Implement supportive, preventive, and therapeutic maintenance therapy.
E) Review, modify, and reinforce oral self-care as needed.
F) Complete extraction of hopeless teeth.
Q2) Which component of the dental hygiene care plan defines the client's desired outcome of care?
A) Dental hygiene diagnosis
B) Client-centered goals
C) Dental hygiene intervention strategies
D) Appointment schedule
Q3) During the implementation phase of care, evaluation strategies are applied to:
A) determine a dental hygiene prognosis of care.
B) determine a supportive continued cycle of care.
C) monitor the client's progress toward achieving a desired outcome of care.
D) evaluation strategies are not applied during the implementation phase of care.
Page 25
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Chapter 23: Toothbrushing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Desirable characteristics of a toothbrush include all of the following except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Easily held and used
B) Smallest size, shape, and weight
C) Inexpensive and durable
D) Flexible, comfortable, effective
E) Adequate strength, rigidity, and weight
Q2) Toothbrushes can be a mode of indirect transmission for pathogenic organisms. Solid rather than hollow designs and toothbrush caps reduce toothbrush contamination.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) What is the recommended duration of toothbrushing?
A) 1 minute
B) 1 1/2 minutes
C) 2 minutes
D) 2 1/2 minutes
E) 3 minutes
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Chapter 24: Mechanical Oral Biofilm Control: Interdental and Supplemental Self-Care Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tongue cleaners are most useful in improving which of the following oral conditions?
A) Caries
B) Gingivitis
C) Malodor
D) Bleeding
Q2) Which of the following devices is not recommended for use with dental implants?
A) Braided floss
B) Brush with foam tip
C) Clasp brush
D) Dental water jet
Q3) The hydrokinetic activity produced by a dental water jet produces a compression and decompression action. The compression action has which impact on the subgingival bacteria?
A) Moves bacteria around the pocket
B) Flushes bacteria out of the pocket
C) Dilutes the bacteria in the pocket
D) Increases concentration of bacteria
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Chapter 25: Dentifrices
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following therapeutic agents is considered to be an antitartar product?
A) Potassium nitrate
B) Zinc citrate
C) Chlorhexidine
D) Peroxide
Q2) The loss of dental substance can be caused by many factors. Other than the brushing technique used, it may possibly be brought about by:
A) eating habits.
B) the dentifrice.
C) xerostomia.
D) all of the above.
Q3) The incorporation of fluoride ions into enamel crystals is facilitated by the _____ the dentrifice.
A) presence of fluoride ions in
B) neutral pH of
C) acidic pH of
D) basic pH of
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28
Chapter 26: Hand-Activated Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following fulcrum placements will aid in effectively scaling heavy calculus deposits with periodontal pockets in the maxillary right posteriors except:
A) extraoral.
B) intraoral.
C) opposite arch.
D) palm up.
Q2) The best stroke to detect burnished calculus is which of the following?
A) Root planing stroke
B) Exploratory stroke
C) Scaling stroke
D) Horizontal stroke
Q3) The pressure applied during periodontal assessment and treatment varies depending on the purpose of the instrumentation. To explore for calculus deposits, the stroke must have _____ pressure.
A) light
B) light to moderate
C) moderate to firm
D) firm
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29
Chapter 27: Ultrasonic Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following necessitate precautions when mechanized instrumentation is used?
A) Pacemakers, demineralized tooth surfaces, and children
B) Tobacco stain, orthodontic cement, and pericoronitis
C) Necrotizing periodontal diseases, communicable diseases, and immunosuppression
D) Periodontal debridement, dysphagia, and intrinsic tooth stain
E) Restorations, periodontal debridement, and coffee staining
Q2) Which of the following is the main difference between a manually tuned and an autotuned ultrasonic instrument or unit?
A) The manually tuned instrument has less "clinical power" than the autotuned instrument.
B) The autotuned unit has a preset frequency, and the manually tuned unit does not.
C) The manually tuned unit does not require water as a coolant, but the autotuned unit does.
D) Amplitude is greater with the autotuned unit than with the manually tuned unit.
E) Autotuned units have inserts and manually tuned have tips to contact the tooth.
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Chapter 28: Root Morphology and Instrumentation
Implications
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Q1) What term is used specifically for the bone between the roots of a molar?
A) Furcal
B) Interradicular
C) Interseptal
D) Alveolar
Q2) The area of No. 11 and No. 12 will provide instrumentation challenges due to which of the following canine and first premolar features?
A) Inclined axial positioning of the maxillary canine and narrow premolar proximal surfaces
B) Ovoid maxillary canine root shape and cone-shaped premolar root
C) Prominent maxillary canine root concavities and prominent distal premolar root concavity
D) Long canine crown with a broad distal crest of curvature and short first premolar crown with a prominent mesial concavity
Q3) Which of the following teeth is most likely to have a facial and lingual root?
A) Maxillary lateral incisor
B) Mandibular canine
C) Maxillary first premolar
D) Mandibular first molar
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Chapter 29: Stain Management and Tooth Whitening
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specially developed prophylaxis paste marketed to restore the original luster to veneer, composite, gold, and porcelain restorations contains which key abrasive agent?
A) Microfine arginine bicarbonate particles
B) Microfine calcium phosphate particles
C) Microfine diamond particles
D) Microfine white sapphire particles
Q2) All of the following bleaching agents are contraindicated for use in home-bleaching trays except:
A) 8.6% sodium perborate.
B) 10.0% carbamide peroxide.
C) 35.0% hydrogen peroxide.
D) 25.0% sodium hypochlorite.
Q3) All of the following systemic client conditions contraindicate the use of air polishing except:
A) hypoglycemia.
B) emphysema.
C) active tuberculosis.
D) asthma.
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Chapter 30: Decision Making Related to Nonsurgical
Periodontal Therapy
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23048
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the first clinical feature of inflammatory periodontal disease?
A) Tooth mobility
B) Drifting of the anterior teeth
C) Periodontal pocket formation
D) Bleeding on probing
E) Edema
Q2) When periodontitis is recognized, nonsurgical periodontal therapy (NSPT) is initiated for all of the following purposes except:
A) modifying host risk factors.
B) establishing an environment to resolve inflammation.
C) eliminating the need for periodontal surgery in the future.
D) eliminating or controlling the infection to prevent reinfection.
E) modifying environmental risk factors.
Q3) Laser therapy may prove useful in NSPT in the future for which of the following?
A) Gingival curettage
B) Elimination of subgingival periodontal pathogens
C) Assisted periodontal debridement
D) Periodontal debridement therapy
E) Antimicrobial therapy
Page 33
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Chapter 31: Chemotherapy for the Control of Periodontitis
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23049
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding the chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG) chip?
A) Must be professionally removed
B) Marketed under the trade name Atridox
C) Suppresses bacteria for several weeks after release
D) Contraindicated for clients allergic to the tetracycline family of antibiotics
Q2) Which of the following is the term used to describe the needlelike tip used for professional irrigation?
A) Jet tip
B) Cannula
C) Irrigant
D) Microsphere
Q3) What is the most effective antiplaque and antigingivitis OTC proprietary agent having received the ADA seal for therapeutic efficacy?
A) Atridox
B) Peridex
C) Listerine
D) Cepacol
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Chapter 32: Acute Gingival and Periodontal Conditions,
Lesions of Endodontic Origin, and Avulsed Teeth
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23050
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following factors is most important in the emergency management of an avulsed tooth?
A) Handle only by the crown and do not dry the tooth
B) Store in tap water
C) Dental hygienist treatment
D) Dry the tooth
Q2) What are the signs and symptoms of gingival abscess?
A) Reddened tissue (marginal gingival), as well as swelling and pain
B) Inflammatory exudates seeping into the oral cavity
C) Occurrence in chronic periodontitis sites
D) Tooth mobility
Q3) What are the signs and symptoms of acute periodontal abscesses?
A) Reddened tissue (marginal gingival), as well as swelling and pain
B) Appear as shiny, red, raised, and rounded masses, and pain on the gingiva or mucosa
C) An abscess that is confined to the marginal gingiva and often occurs in previously healthy gingival areas
D) No tooth mobility
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Page 35
Chapter 33: Fluorides, Chlorhexidine, Amorphous Calcium
Phosphate, and Xylitol
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23051
Sample Questions
Q1) Vertical caries transmission is from parent-to-child. Horizontal transmission is from person-to-person.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Xylitol is a noncariogenic sweetener, a sugar alcohol, and inhibits the attachment of Streptococcus mutans. Xylitol is not fermented by cariogenic bacteria and, therefore, decreases S. mutans infection.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) The CLD is the amount of fluoride that can be ingested without causing serious side effects. The STD is the amount of fluoride that will result in client death.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Page 36
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Chapter 34: Pit and Fissure Sealants
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23052
Sample Questions
Q1) The appearance of a tooth after acid etching has been accomplished and dried should appear:
1) chalky.
2) glossy.
3) dull.
4) frosty.
5) smooth.
A) 1
B) 1, 3, and 4
C) 2 and 5
D) 3, 4, and 5
Q2) Pit and fissure sealants:
1) render pits and fissures more cleansable.
2) arrest incipient caries.
3) mechanically fill the pits and fissures.
4) prevent caries in newly erupted teeth.
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 3 and 4
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
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Page 37
Chapter 35: Nutritional Counseling
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23053
Sample Questions
Q1) Based on her BMI, Martha would be considered which of the following?
A) Healthy
B) Overweight
C) Obese
D) Underweight
Q2) Elderly adults have a higher protein requirement due to which of the following?
A) Decrease in lean body
B) Decrease in calorie needs
C) Increase in lean body
D) Increase in calorie needs
Q3) During the oral assessment of a 46-year-old male client, the dental hygienist notes that the client's gums are swollen, spongy, and bleeding. Which of the following nutrients might be deficient in the client's diet?
A) Vitamin B
B) Folacin
C) Vitamin C
D) Riboflavin
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Chapter 36: Tobacco Cessation
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23054
Sample Questions
Q1) A mechanism for coping with cravings is realizing that cravings last only 3 to 5 minutes and trying to wait them out. The human need for freedom from fear and stress is usually unmet in clients seeking dental hygiene care.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Withdrawal symptoms of tobacco cessation peak within:
A) 12 to 24 hours
B) 24 to 48 hours
C) 48 to 72 hours
D) 1 to 2 weeks
E) 2 to 4 weeks
Q3) All of the following are nicotine replacement products except:
A) nicotine gum.
B) nicotine lozenge.
C) nicotine patch.
D) varenicline.
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Chapter 37: Impressions, Study Casts, and Oral Appliances
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23055
Sample Questions
Q1) Silicone alginate-alternative impression materials are especially helpful when:
A) setting time is a concern.
B) elasticity is a concern.
C) dimensional stability is a concern.
D) multiple molds may be needed.
E) Both c and d are correct.
Q2) A rope of utility or beading wax may be placed on the periphery of the stock tray to:
A) lengthen the tray.
B) help direct the impression materials into a high palatal vault.
C) prevent material from flowing out of the tray.
D) do all of the above.
Q3) The setting time of a mix of dental stone ends when the:
A) exothermic reaction is complete.
B) stone no longer flows.
C) model can be separated from the impression.
D) material is the consistency of sour cream.
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Chapter 38: Restorative Therapy
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23056
Sample Questions
Q1) When polishing amalgams, green and brown cups and points are used to:
A) remove large voids.
B) remove excess amalgam.
C) prepare the surface for finishing.
D) polish amalgam to a high luster.
Q2) Which of the following polishing agents is used to polish amalgam restorations to a shiny surface?
A) Zirconium silicate
B) Aluminum oxide
C) Garnet
D) Tin oxide
Q3) The process of abrading the surface of an amalgam to reduce the size of the scratches until the surface appears shiny is called:
A) polishing.
B) finishing.
C) cutting.
D) abrading.
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Chapter 39: Dental Hypersensitivity Management
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23057
Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to refer to sites of tooth structure wear commonly found on the incisal or occlusal surfaces of teeth as a result of masticatory forces?
A) Abrasion
B) Erosion
C) Attrition
D) Abfraction
Q2) Intrinsic erosion is a result of dietary factors that contribute to a highly acidic oral environment. The frequent consumption of acidic, carbonated, sports, or fruit drinks or frequent sugar consumption can cause intrinsic erosion.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) Dentinal hypersensitivity is most common on what region of the tooth?
A) Lingual
B) Buccal cervical
C) Facial
D) Occlusal
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Chapter 40: Local Anesthesia
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23058
Sample Questions
Q1) Contraindications to local anesthetics and vasoconstrictors are divided into two categories: absolute and relative. Absolute contraindications require that the drug in question not be administered to the individual under any circumstances and a relative contraindication means that the drug in question may be administered to the client after careful weighing of the risk of using the drug against its potential benefit.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) What is the next step when you aspirate and get a positive aspiration?
A) Stop, withdraw the needle, and change the cartridge.
B) Do not stop the procedure if the aspiration is a small red drop.
C) Stop, withdraw the needle, and change to a new needle.
D) Stop, withdraw the needle, and change the needle and cartridge.
Q3) What two branches of nerves descend from the infraorbital nerve?
A) The posterior superior alveolar (PSA) and the middle superior alveolar (MSA)
B) The middle superior alveolar (MSA) and the anterior superior alveolar (ASA)
C) The anterior superior alveolar (ASA) and the nasopalatine nerve (NP)
D) The nasopalatine nerve (NA) and the greater anterior palatine nerve (GP)
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Page 43
Chapter 41: Nitrous Oxideoxygen Analgesia
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23059
Sample Questions
Q1) The proportion of nitrous oxide the client in question 11 is receiving is which of the following?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
E) None of the above
Q2) Headache, grogginess, and a "hung-over" feeling after nitrous oxide-oxygen analgesia are symptoms of which of the following?
A) Polyerythemia vera
B) Overdose of oral medications
C) Diffusion hypoxia
D) Postural hypotension
E) None of the above
Q3) Oversedation with nitrous oxide may be manifested by which of the following?
A) Loss of consciousness
B) Allergic reaction
C) Tingling sensation
D) A slight heaviness in the client's chest
E) Both a and b
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Chapter 42: Persons With Disabilities
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23060
Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), in public facilities both architectural and communication barriers must be removed. A dentist who leases an office is not responsible for ensuring the office is accessible to people with disabilities.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) When performing a transfer (using a sliding/transfer board) from the wheelchair to the dental chair, the dental professional must do all of the following except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Stabilize the client's legs.
B) Clear the area of any obstacles.
C) Secure a transfer belt to the client.
D) Raise the dental chair above the wheelchair height.
E) Grasp the client under the arms and around the back.
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Chapter 43: Cardiovascular Disease
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23061
Sample Questions
Q1) Clients receiving antihypertensive drug therapy may experience all of the following except:
A) orthostatic hypotension.
B) xerostomia.
C) metallic taste.
D) fatigue.
Q2) What is the most frequent form of heart disease leading to death?
A) Congenital heart disease
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Coronary heart disease
D) Valvular heart disease
Q3) What is the most frequently occurring valvular heart defect that can result in cardiovascular damage?
A) Mitral valve prolapse
B) Heart murmur
C) Endocarditis
D) Rheumatic heart disease
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Page 46
Chapter 44: Diabetes Mellitus
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23062
Sample Questions
Q1) Interventions shown to prevent type 2 diabetes by 58% to 71% include:
A) 30 minutes of walking 5 times a week, and 7% weight reduction.
B) eating less sugar.
C) frequent self-monitoring of blood glucose.
D) all of the above.
Q2) What is the most common type of diabetes mellitus?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Prediabetes
Q3) When a person with diabetes displays signs of confusion, sweating, irritability, and tachycardia, the medical emergency is most likely to be:
A) myocardial infarction.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) hypoglycemia.
D) convulsions.
Q4) Dental hygiene care should not begin until the diabetic condition is controlled.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Oral Care of Persons With Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23063
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following oral infections is not caused by a decrease in immune response (immunosuppression) because of chemotherapy?
A) Dysphagial infection
B) Fungal infection
C) Viral infection
D) Bacterial infection
Q2) Between 2004 and 2008, the incidence rate for oral cancer decreased in women and stabilized for men. Unfortunately, cancers of the lip, associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV), have seen an increase in recent years.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) All of the following are considered to be a measure to manage for radiation-induced mucositis except:
A) prescribed local anesthetics.
B) phenol-based mouth rinses.
C) baking soda and salt-based mouth rinse.
D) over-the-counter (OTC) or prescribed systemic analgesics.
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Page 48
Chapter 46: Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23064
Sample Questions
Q1) The risk of contracting HIV following percutaneous exposure is most approximately one in:
A) a hundred.
B) a thousand.
C) ten thousand.
D) a million.
Q2) Why should immunocompromised patients avoid hydrogen peroxide rinses?
A) It causes accelerated tissue breakdown.
B) It is associated with oral candidiasis.
C) It is associated with oral herpes.
D) It is associated with worsening necrotizing periodontal disease.
E) It is associated with halitosis.
Q3) Since 1992, the number of documented cases of HIV following occupational exposure in the dental or dental hygiene care setting is:
A) 0.
B) 1.
C) 2.
D) 3.
E) 4.
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Page 49
Chapter 47: Persons With Neurologic and Sensory Deficits
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23065
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common cause of spinal cord dysfunction?
A) Bone cancer
B) Diving accidents
C) Polio
D) Spina bifida
Q2) Oral self-care instructions for the client with Bell palsy should include which of the following?
A) Using a brushing pattern so no areas are missed
B) Rinsing with water after eating
C) Using an oral irrigator
D) All of the above
Q3) Special considerations for the client with trigeminal neuralgia should include which of the following?
A) An upright client position with the clinician performing stand-up hygiene
B) Avoidance of local anesthetic because the client is already numb
C) Short appointments
D) Protective eyewear to prevent foreign matter from entering the eye
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Chapter 48: Persons With Autoimmune Diseases
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23066
Sample Questions
Q1) Autoantibodies can cause disease without directly causing tissue injury because antibodies can stimulate receptors that effect hormonal or neuromuscular behavior.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Which autoimmune disease most often presents with a painful, burning tongue and oral ulcerations?
A) Pemphigus vulgaris
B) Cicatricial pemphigoid
C) Sjögren's syndrome
D) Pernicious anemia
E) Scleroderma
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Chapter 49: Renal Disease and Organ Transplantation
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23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23067
Sample Questions
Q1) Signs and symptoms of CKD include all of the following except which one?
A) No change in urine output
B) Fluid retention
C) Fatigue
D) Urticaria
Q2) Peritoneal dialysis is typically performed in which of the following?
A) Hospital
B) Dialysis center
C) Home
D) Urgent care center or emergency room
Q3) When dental hygiene care plans are prepared for pre-solid organ or post-solid organ transplant recipients, there are:
A) clear-cut guidelines based on the American Heart Association guidelines.
B) universal guidelines, depending on which organ is transplanted.
C) no universal guidelines.
D) guidelines based on the cause of the disease.
Q4) Renal dialysis is usually initiated as a maintenance treatment at stage 5 of chronic kidney disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 50: Respiratory Diseases
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23068
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms has been associated with chronic bronchitis?
A) Blue bloater
B) Barrel chest
C) Mantoux skin screening
D) Cavitation
Q2) Which of the following terms best defines difficulty in breathing?
A) Dyspnea
B) Cavitation
C) Status asthmaticus
D) Xerostomia
Q3) Under what conditions should a client with active tuberculosis be treated?
A) Using nitrous-oxide sedation in a dental office for routine procedures
B) Using strict infection-control procedures in a dental office especially equipped for clients with tuberculosis
C) In a dental office using universal precautions
D) In a hospital setting for emergency dental care only
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Chapter 51: Cognitively and Developmentally Challenged
Persons
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23069
Sample Questions
Q1) The language of children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) consists mainly of naming nouns and adjectives that identify objects and indicating colors and numbers that represent nothing specific. This type of language is referred to as:
A) articulation disorder.
B) stuttering.
C) excellent rote memory.
D) apraxia.
Q2) When treating ASD children, the dental hygienist should try to alleviate fear of dental instruments by:
A) distracting conversation not related to procedure.
B) remaining silent during treatment.
C) explaining each procedure and the use of each instrument to the client.
D) allowing them to touch the instruments.
Q3) When selecting a toothbrush for clients with disabilities the dental hygienist must take into account all of the following except:
A) grip problems.
B) use of fine motor skills.
C) client's ability to open.
D) food allergies.
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Chapter 52: Alcohol and Substance Abuse Problems
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23070
Sample Questions
Q1) If a chemically dependent client is not ready to change unwanted behavior, the dental hygienist should:
A) alert the police.
B) dismiss client from the practice.
C) refer to primary care physician.
D) refer to intervention treatment facility.
E) state concerns and modify dental treatment.
Q2) Select all intraoral methamphetamine mouth signs.
A) Rampant decay
B) Xerostomia
C) Bruxism
D) Severe gingivitis
Q3) Use of local anesthetic is contraindicated when treating:
A) recovering alcoholics.
B) a cocaine user.
C) a marijuana user.
D) an anabolic steroid user.
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Chapter 53: Eating Disorders
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25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23071
Sample Questions
Q1) After discussion with a client with an eating disorder, which of the following actions should be taken initially by the dental hygienist for legal purposes?
A) Consider referral of the client to an eating disorder clinic.
B) Direct the client to begin restorative dental care.
C) Document appointment discussion and decisions in the client's chart.
D) Share the findings with dental personnel in the dental hygiene practice setting.
E) Obtain informed consent form from the client to contact other healthcare providers.
Q2) Perimylolysis is commonly characterized by each of the following criteria except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Pitting appearance on the incisal edges of maxillary anterior teeth
B) Glossy appearance of enamel
C) Dished out shape of lingual surface of teeth
D) Vertical reduction of tooth height
E) Amalgams appear raised above the surrounding enamel
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Chapter 54: Womens Health and the Health of Their
Children
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23072
Sample Questions
Q1) Fetal alcohol-syndrome (FAS) may damage the infant's central nervous system causing characteristics, such as:
A) short palpebral fissures, a flat midface, an indistinct philtrum, and a thin upper lip.
B) short palpebral fissures, a flat midface, a distinct philtrum, and thick upper lip.
C) long palpebral fissures, a flat midface, an indistinct philtrum, and a thin upper lip.
D) long palpebral fissures, a pronounced midface, an indistinct philtrum, and a thin upper lip.
Q2) Which of the following would not exacerbate gingival inflammation?
A) Anticonvulsant medications
B) Pubertal hormone changes
C) Ovulation induction
D) Biofilm management
Q3) All of the following are inappropriate ways to give babies pacifiers except:
A) dipping in sugar or honey to sooth/distract baby.
B) dipping in juice or soda to sooth/distract baby.
C) "cleaning" by rinsing with tap water before giving to the baby.
D) "cleaning" by putting in caregiver's mouth before giving to the baby.
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Page 57
Chapter 55: The Older Adult
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23073
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are expected to decline normally in aging except:
A) vision.
B) hearing.
C) thickness of epithelium.
D) salivary function.
Q2) Unlike dental decay, gingival recession, loss of periodontal attachment, and periodontitis can be attributed to the normal aging process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The need for dental care for the elderly is expected to greatly increase by the year 2030, primarily because of the large expected increase in the percentage of older adults living in nursing care facilities.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 56: Persons With Fixed and Removable Dental
Prostheses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alkaline peroxide cleansers should not be used on dentures that have:
A) metal clasps.
B) porcelain teeth.
C) soft-tissue liners.
D) acrylic bases.
Q2) The most effective and safe way to maintain denture hygiene for a physically capable person is:
A) mechanically with a soft bristled brush and mild liquid soap and water.
B) mechanically with a soft bristled brush and toothpaste.
C) overnight soaking in a weak sodium hypochlorite solution.
D) immersion in a chemical cleanser.
Q3) Sodium hypochlorite cleansers should be avoided with dentures that have:
A) acrylic components.
B) metal components.
C) porcelain components.
D) staining.
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59
Chapter 57: Orofacial Clefts and Fractured Jaw
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23075
Sample Questions
Q1) There is a female predominance for orofacial clefts that involve:
A) cleft lip only.
B) cleft palate only.
C) cleft lip and palate.
D) none of these; there is no female predominance.
Q2) Caries incidence is more evident in the primary dentition. Which of the following is least likely to be affected?
A) Mandibular incisors
B) Maxillary incisors
C) Teeth adjacent to the cleft
D) Maxillary and mandibular molars
Q3) The disturbance or underdevelopment of the bone on the affected side of the fracture is called:
A) ankylosis.
B) malunion.
C) nonunion.
D) osteomyelitis.
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Chapter 58: Osseointegrated Dental Implants
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Q1) Which form of an endosteal implant consists of a small titanium cylinder and an abutment surgically inserted into the bone that acts as a root system?
A) Blade form
B) Cylinder form
C) Screw form
D) Rectangular form
Q2) If a client receives a dental implant and continues to exhibit inadequate oral biofilm control, he or she may be at risk for which one of the following diseases that would jeopardize the implant?
A) Periodontal disease
B) Gingivitis
C) Peri-implantitis
D) Implant gingivitis
Q3) All of the following are roles of the dental hygienist in implant maintenance except one. Which one is the exception?
A) identification of potential implant clients
B) fitting of the implant
C) education and motivation through treatment
D) probing when necessary
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Page 61
Chapter 59: Persons With Orthodontic Appliances
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Q1) A skeletal malocclusion is treated by which of the following?
A) Camouflage of the discrepancy
B) Growth modification to the jaws to correct the malocclusion
C) Surgical therapy to correct the discrepancies in the jaws
D) All of the above, depending on the age of the client and the severity of the malocclusion
Q2) The process of "settling" of the teeth occurs during which of the following stages?
A) First stage of comprehensive orthodontic treatment: alignment and leveling
B) Second stage of comprehensive orthodontic treatment: correction of molar relationship and space closure
C) Third stage of comprehensive orthodontic treatment: the finishing stage
D) All of the above
Q3) The most ideal relationship of the second molars in a primary dentition is which of the following?
A) Mesial step relationship
B) Distal step relationship
C) Proximal terminal plane relationship
D) Flush terminal plane relationship
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Chapter 60: Abuse and Neglect
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Q1) Which of the following has the highest prevalence among victims of child maltreatment?
A) Neglect
B) Physical abuse
C) Sexual abuse
D) Emotional or psychologic abuse
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following signs is suggestive of sexual abuse in children?
A) Postnatally acquired gonorrhea and syphilis
B) Nontransfusion-acquired human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
C) Intraoral venereal warts
D) Palatal petechiae
E) All of the above
Q3) Signs of dental neglect may manifest as:
A) poor oral hygiene.
B) untreated dental disease.
C) failure to follow through with recommended treatment.
D) failure to seek care to ensure oral health.
E) all of the above.
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Page 63
Chapter 61: Palliative Oral Care
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Q1) Which of the following is the most common factor in preventing the onset of mucositis?
A) Keeping the patient's mouth clean and hydrated
B) Warm baking soda, saline, and water rinses
C) Chlorhexidine
D) Topical corticosteroids
Q2) Mucositis commonly occurs among patients undergoing chemotherapy and radiation, because it increases the mitosis rate of cells in the oral tissue causing atrophy of the tissue.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) Which oral complication is associated with a change in the consistency and volume of saliva?
A) Oral candidiasis
B) Mucositis
C) Drug-induced xerostomia
D) Ulcers
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Chapter 62: Practice Management
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Q1) Practice management includes all the following except:
A) facilitating high quality care.
B) efficient use of time.
C) reduced stress of employees and clients.
D) increased supervision of employees.
E) enhanced professional satisfaction.
Q2) To effectively establish a positive relationship with the client, the provider should understand _____ needs.
A) physical
B) psychologic
C) spiritual
D) emotional
E) None of the above are correct.
F) All of the above are correct.
Q3) If a client decides to refuse the treatment recommended by the provider, the office should:
A) dismiss the client from the practice.
B) document the refusal and have the client sign the refusal.
C) refer the client to another practice.
D) continue to suggest the treatment until the client accepts.
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Chapter 63: Career Planning and Job Searching
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Q1) Personal testimonies to a job candidate's competence and character is a(n):
A) mentor.
B) character witness.
C) reference.
D) advisor.
Q2) All of the following should be included on a résumé except:
A) name.
B) place of birth.
C) email address.
D) educational background.
E) work experience.
Q3) Electronic portfolios are a means to provide potential employers information related to your work history. Electronic portfolios may be used instead of a résumé.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 64: Legal and Ethical Decision Making
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Q1) The dental hygiene care plan is presented to the client by the dental hygienist. The specific procedures to be provided are described, including the rationale for care and the risks and benefits of the procedures. The client asks some specific questions, and the questions are clearly answered by the dental hygienist. The client then agrees to the care prescribed in the care plan. Which of the following ethical principles is the practitioner upholding?
A) Beneficence
B) Autonomy
C) Justice
D) Veracity
Q2) Which of the following are recommended risk management strategies for appropriately maintaining client records?
A) Entries should be accurate, concise, and written in black ballpoint pen.
B) Entries should include patient cancellations and late arrivals.
C) Errors can be erased or blacked out if corrections are clearly documented.
D) Both a and b are correct.
E) Options a, b, and c are correct.
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