Principles of Criminal Law
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Criminal Law provides a comprehensive examination of the foundational concepts, theories, and doctrines that define the criminal justice system. The course explores the elements and classifications of crimes, the purposes and principles of punishment, and the structure of criminal liability, including actus reus and mens rea. Students will analyze key topics such as defences to criminal responsibility, the distinction between felonies and misdemeanors, the role of intent, and the application of these principles through case law. The course aims to develop critical thinking about the functioning of criminal law in society and its impact on individuals and communities.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Law 1st Edition by John L. Worrall
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Chapter 1: The Basics of Criminal Law
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Q1) Criminal procedure consists of a vast set of rules and guidelines describing how suspected and accused criminals are to be handled and processed by the justice system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The lowest courts at the state level are courts of general jurisdiction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What protects offenders by ensuring proportionate and non-arbitrary punishment?
A)Criminal law
B)Criminal action
C)Criminal rights
D)Criminal activists
Answer: A
Q4) _______________ is the assumption that when would-be offenders see a criminal held accountable, they opt to abide by the law for fear of suffering the same fate.
Answer: General deterrence
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Limitations on the Criminal Law
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Q1) Which of the following is true about the Furman decision in Furman v. Georgia?
A)The decision was far-reaching.
B)The decision brought executions to a halt.
C)The decision emptied death rows across the country.
D)All the above
Answer: A
Q2) Members of the executive branch include all high-level officials except for the president and his cabinet.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The U.S. Constitution divides governmental authority into three branches: ___________, __________________, and ______________.
Answer: Executive, legislative, judicial
Q4) The First Amendment literally forbids the abridgement only of which action?
A)Oppression
B)Governmental control
C)Speech
D)Public meetings
Answer: C
Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Elements of Criminal Liability
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Q1) Based on the general interpretation, what must happen to establish a mistake?
A) A person knows what he or she is doing is wrong, but is not completely clear as to why.
B) A person thinks what he or she is doing is legal, but is not correct in this knowledge.
C) A person thinks he or she is not liable for violating the law because he or she is a foreigner to this land.
D) Both a and b
Answer: D
Q2) When determining whether to file charges, why is it important to distinguish between a defendant who does not know there is a law applying to his or her activity versus a defendant who knows there is a relevant law, but is not sure whether it applies in the exact circumstances in question?
A) One applies to mistake of law and the other applies to ignorance of law.
B) One applies to ignoring the law and the other applies to mistake of law.
C) One applies to criminal law and the other applies to civil law.
D) None of the above.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Justification Defenses
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Q1) The necessity defense, also called the ________________ defense, justifies certain types of criminal activity when it cannot be avoided.
Q2) What is a defendant's acquittal as the result of the prosecution failing to prove one or more of the elements of the crime or leaving reasonable doubt in the mind of the jury?
A)Failure of proof defense
B)Failure of defense
C)Failure of proof affidavit
D)None of the above
Q3) There are four general requirements for a successful modern-day claim of self-defense: an unprovoked attack, imminent danger, absence of alternatives, and ________________.
Q4) Deadly force may be used in defense-of-property if the situation involved in defense-of-property evolves into a self-defense or defense of others that justifies the use of deadly force.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Battered woman syndrome rarely succeeds as a defense when the abuser is __________ when he posed no immediate danger.
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Chapter 5: Excuse Defenses
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Q1) Which of the following may allow the defendant in an entrapment case to escape conviction via a due process argument, rather than an affirmative defense?
A)If government officials use violence
B)If government officials supply contraband that is wholly unobtainable
C)If government officials engage in a criminal enterprise
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following represents the three claims of excuse defenses a defendant may claim?
A)The action was involuntary.
B)The action was the product of a cognitive deficiency (insanity).
C)The action resulted from a volitional deficiency (outside source compelling the action).
D)All the above
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of intoxication mentioned in the Model Penal Code?
A)Self-induced intoxication
B)Intoxication through group participation
C)Intoxication that is not self-induced
D)Pathological intoxication
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Chapter 6: Complicity and Vicarious Liability
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Q1) What happens if a person commits an offense because another person convinces that person that the act is actually legal or that the victim has given consent?
A)The actor may be acquitted, but the accomplice may still be convicted.
B)The actor and the accomplice will both be convicted regardless of the actor's belief of innocence.
C)The accomplice will be acquitted because he did not actually commit the crime or participate in the crime.
D)None of the above
Q2) An accomplice is "one who unknowingly, involuntarily, and with lack of common intent unites with the principal offender in the commission of a crime."
A)True
B)False
Q3) Who does the principal in the first degree refer to in a crime?
A)The secondary offender
B)The victim
C)The accomplice
D)The primary offender
Q4) Being an __________________ is not quite as serious a being an accomplice.
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Chapter 7: Inchoate Crimes
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Q1) What charges may be filed against Fred and Susan, if Fred and Susan plan to kill John and even purchase the gun but do not complete the crime?
A)Conspiracy factor
B)Absolute factor
C)Complicity factor
D)None of the above
Q2) Res ipsa loquiter is Latin for "the act speaks for itself" and applies to which test for determining the actus reus in attempt?
A)Unequivocality Test
B)Probable Desistance Test
C)Indispensible Test
D)None of the above
Q3) Students are sometimes confused as to the relationship between complicity and ????????? ___________.
Q4) The ___________ looks at the likelihood of the offender stopping once the wheels have been set in motion.
Q5) Identify and discuss the first two elements required for inchoate offenses. Why are these elements important when developing charges against suspects?
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Chapter 8: Homicide
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Q1) Circumstances that would lend toward a lighter or reduced criminal penalty during sentencing are known as ______________.
Q2) The common law "year-and-a-day" rule is still followed in U.S. courts today.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Criminal Negligence Manslaughter and Criminal Act Manslaughter are two types of what type of offense?
A)Voluntary manslaughter
B)Involuntary manslaughter
C)Second-degree murder
D)None of the above
Q4) John is fired from a local chemical plant, and out of revenge, John returns that evening and intentionally sets fire to the plant. John is not aware that a night watchman is asleep in one of the offices of the chemical plant. The watchman dies in the fire. John may be liable for felony murder.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _________________ occurs when an unintentional death results from another non-felonious criminal act.
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Chapter 9: Assaultive Offenses
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Q1) Rape shield laws restrict the admissibility of the victim's past sexual history during a trial.
A)True
B)False
Q2) George is a local drug dealer who has a professionally trained pit bull that has been taught to respond to George's second language, which is German. During a traffic stop, the law enforcement officer discovers the drugs in the trunk of George's vehicle, subsequent to George's verbal consent to search the vehicle. Upon discovery of the drugs, George commands his pit bull in German to attack the law enforcement officer. George may be charged with assault and battery by means of a____________________.
Q3) Sam is working his typical racket of picking victims pockets and purses during concerts at the local convention center. However, one victim notices Sam's slight of hand and attempts to close her purse to secure the personal property within. Sam reacts by grabbing the purse with his other hand and threatening to stab the victim unless she lets Sam take the purse. A security guard sees the scuffle and takes Sam into custody. Sam may be charged with __________________.
Q4) The essence of consent is that it is given out of free will, which is why consent can be
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Chapter 10: Property Damage and Invasion
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Q1) Vandalism
A)Breaking into computer systems with the intent to alter or modify settings.
B)Physical entry onto another persons property without consent.
C)The practice of obtaining passwords or other sensitive information from individuals through the use of fraud or deception.
D)A politically motivated attack using computers or other technology.
E)Sometimes considered a form of criminal mischief, willful or malicious acts intended to damage property.
F)Breaking and entering into the dwelling or structure of another with the intent to commit a felony inside.
G)Intentionally damaging or destroying anothers property.
H)A criminal offense committed with the use of a computer or other electronic device.
I)Federal legislation that criminalizes various types of cybercrime.
J)A person has lawful access the property, but then remains until he or she no longer does, and intends to commit a crime.
Q2) A number of cities in America criminalize the mere _________________ of graffiti-related tools.
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Chapter 11: Theft and Analogous Offenses
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Q1) George steals a checkbook and endorses the check with the owner's actual name. He then cashes the check at a local bank. George is guilty of forgery and ________________.
Q2) What is the legal term for a person to whom goods or property are entrusted.
A)Bailee
B)Bailor
C)Bondee
D)Bonder
Q3) What is one of the two basic forms of account fraud?
A)The misspelling of the victims name
B)The unlawful access to victim's computer
C)The misuse of a victim's existing account
D)None of the above
Q4) Sally takes Ruth's car without her permission and stops to get a tattoo in a high-crime area of town. She leaves the car unlocked with the keys in the ignition because she can see the car from the window of the store. Thieves steal the car. Sally is guilty of _______________________.
Q5) The trespass element of larceny stems from the Latin term _________________.
Q6) Compare the elements of larceny and burglary. What element separates larceny from burglary?
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Chapter 12: Public Order, Morality, and Vice Crimes
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Q1) What mens rea is required to convict a suspect of the crime of prostitution?
A)Knowingly
B)Recklessly
C)Negligently
D)None of the above
Q2) Jack and five other people gather to protest a military funeral in Texas. All members of the group may be charged with what crime?
A)Desecration of a grave site
B)Unlawful assembly
C)Illegal gathering
D)None of the above
Q3) Steve is what the locals refer to as a street bum. He spends his days and evenings confronting patrons leaving stores and restaurants for the purpose of begging for food or money. What act is Steve committing?
A)Loitering
B)Homeless gathering
C)Bumming
D)Panhandling
Q4) In some cases, ____________, alone is the key element in a crime.
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Chapter 13: Terrorism and Offenses Against the State
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Q1) Domestic terrorism may be a local citizen or local group receiving direction from international sources.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Proceedings for deportation of aliens must conform to constitutional requirements, especially due process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Even though the 9/11 incidents were prime examples of terrorism, there is no single definition of terrorism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The USA PATRIOT Act address all the present terrorism threats and issues and made no changes in past law and practice.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The requirement of adding taggants, or chemical markers, to certain explosives during manufacture is one of the key provisions of _________________.
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