Principles of Criminal Justice Exam
Solutions
Course Introduction
Principles of Criminal Justice provides an introduction to the foundational elements of the criminal justice system, examining its main components: law enforcement, courts, and corrections. The course explores the historical development of criminal justice, the roles and responsibilities of system actors, and the procedures governing criminal cases from investigation through adjudication and punishment. Key concepts such as due process, crime causation, the rights of the accused, and ethical considerations are addressed, along with the impact of contemporary issues such as technology, diversity, and reform movements. By analyzing both theory and practice, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how justice is administered in society.
Recommended Textbook
CJ2 2nd Edition by Larry K. Gaines
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17 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Criminal Justice Today
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Q1) Rising crime rates in the 1970s and 1980s led to:
A) a get tough on crime attitude
B) a decrease in prison admissions
C) a decrease in arrests
D) the creation of a Department of Homeland Security
Answer: A
Q2) According to the consensus model, society _______ ________ to control and prevent deviant behavior, thereby setting the boundaries for acceptable behavior within the group.
Answer: passes laws
Q3) __________ law enforcement officials have national jurisdiction over crime in the United States.
A) Local
B) County
C) State
D) Federal
Answer: D
Q4) __________ is a police officer's authority to choose between and among alternative courses of actions.
Answer: discretion
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Chapter 2: Causes of Crime
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Q1) Briefly list and explain the three branches of social process theories. Explain how one of the theories might be used to explain the crime of theft.
Answer: -Learning theory is the hypothesis that delinquents and criminals must be taught both the practical and emotional skills necessary to participate in illegal activity (Example:a child watches his mother steal from the convenience store every day and so starts to steal from the store himself when he visits)
-Control theories are a series of theories that assume that all individuals have the potential for criminal behavior, but are restrained by the damage that such actions would do to their relationships with family, friends, and members of the community (Example:a child does not steal at school even though he really wants the Nike's his locker mate just received as a present because he is fearful he will be caught and will get in trouble by parents)
-Labeling theories support the hypothesis that society creates crime and criminals by labeling certain behavior and certain people as deviant (Example:a teacher thinks a child is stealing things from other students at school, once the child realizes this and is talked to about this, he begins to steal since others think he is labeled as such already)
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Chapter 3: Defining and Measuring Crime
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Q1) First degree felonies, punishable by a maximum penalty of _______ ________.
Answer: life imprisonment
Q2) The "dark figure of crime" in the United States is:
A) much smaller than the UCR and NCVS would suggest.
B) about that same as the UCR and NCVS suggest.
C) much larger than the UCR and NCVS suggest.
D) really has no relevance to the figures found in the UCR or NCVS.
Answer: C
Q3) Which misdemeanors are punishable by fewer than thirty days in jail?
A) involuntary
B) negligent
C) civil
D) petty
Answer: D
Q4) A homicide committed without malice towards the victim is known as:
A) capital murder
B) criminal homicide
C) manslaughter
D) murder
Answer: C
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Inside Criminal Law
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Q1) __________ __________are the rules of law announced in court decisions.
Q2) A regulatory agency is a federal, state, or local government agency established to perform a specific function.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain why societies need laws to function and why they are important in American society?
Q4) The authority of a court to hear and decide cases within an area of the law or a geographic territory is called __________.
A) case law
B) statute
C) jurisdiction
D) negligence.
Q5) When using deadly-force in self-defense, which of the following must be true?
A) A gun must be used on your own property against you.
B) The crime must take place at night on your own property.
C) There is a reasonable belief that imminent death or bodily harm will occur.
D) The defender has to have initiated or provoked the attack.
Q6) __________ _________ is a person's mental state, or intent.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Law Enforcement Today
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Q1) The __________ is a federal law enforcement organization with the primary responsibility of protecting the president, the president's family, the vice president, and other important political figures.
Q2) When law enforcement officers use their judgment in deciding which offenses to punish and which to ignore, they are said to be using __________.
Q3) List and explain the four basic responsibilities of the police.
Q4) Mandatory arrest policies remove an officer's ability to use discretion in a situation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is NOT one of the issues associated with private security in the U.S. today?
A) lack of standards
B) lack of state regulation
C) low pay and lack of benefits
D) rigorous training
Q6) The branch of the Department of Justice that is responsible for investigating violations of federal law is the __________.
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Chapter 6: Challenges to Effective Policing
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Q1) According to Gay, Schell, and Schack, officers tend to spend how much of their time on patrol responding to calls for service?
A) one-quarter
B) half
C) three-quarters
D) all
Q2) Which of the following type of crime tends to have the lowest clearance rates by law enforcement?
A) violent crimes
B) sexually based crimes
C) property crimes
D) juvenile crimes
Q3) Criminal investigations that are not cleared after a certain amount of time are called:
A) old cases
B) cold cases
C) closed cases
D) cleared cases
Q4) The primary police investigator of crimes is called a __________.
Q5) Describe how forensic experts use ballistics to solve crimes.
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Chapter 7: Police and the Constitution: The Rules of Law Enforcement
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Q1) What is the terminology that is used to describe the reasonable grounds to believe the existence of facts warranting certain actions, such as the search or arrest of a person?
A) reasonable suspicion
B) reasonableness
C) probable cause
D) exigent circumstances
Q2) The standard that the Supreme Court uses now to determine whether a stop is based on reasonable suspicion is called:
A) totality of circumstances
B) probable cause
C) reasonableness
D) Terry standard
Q3) One of the hoped-for consequences of the exclusionary rule is that it forces police to gather evidence properly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Taking a person into custody who is suspected of criminal activity is called a/an
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Chapter 8: Courts and the Quest for Justice
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Q1) Explain how a court case reaches the U.S. Supreme Court.
Q2) A request from a higher court asking a lower court for the record of a case is called a ?__________.
Q3) A _______________ is an election in which candidates are presented on the ballot without any party affiliation.
Q4) For the most part, criminal jurisdiction is determined by __________.
A) judges
B) grand juries
C) prosecutors
D) legislation
Q5) Domestic courts hear which of the following types of cases?
A) crimes that involve the illegal use of firearms
B) crimes committed by minors
C) crimes of domestic violence, such as child and spousal abuse
D) crimes involving the special needs of the elderly victims
Q6) Explain how the courtroom workgroup gets formed.
Q7) The __________ function of the courts is to protect individuals from the unfair advantages that the government-with its immense resources- automatically enjoys in legal battles.
Q8) Explain how the Missouri Plan of judicial selection occurs. Page 10
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Chapter 9: Pretrial Procedures: The Adversary System in Action
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Q1) Explain the factors that affect case attrition.
Q2) Explain the Strickland Standard and why it came about. Is it difficult to prove both prongs of the Strickland standard? Why or why not?
Q3) In court the interests of the state or federal government are represented by the:
A) defendant
B) defense attorney
C) public prosecutor
D) victim
Q4) The average bail amount for violent felonies is highest for the crime of rape.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The process through which prosecutors effect an overall reduction in the number of persons prosecuted is called __________.
Q6) Which of the following holds that the government must provide a public defender For those defendants too poor to hire one for themselves?
A) The Strickland Standard
B) The Gideon Protection
C) attorney-client privilege
D) adversarial standard
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Chapter 10: The Criminal Trial
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Q1) Evidence that may be excluded if it would tend to distract the jury from the main issues of the case, mislead the jury, or cause jurors to decide the issue on an emotional basis is called:
A) direct evidence
B) prejudicial evidence
C) circumstantial evidence
D) relevant evidence
Q2) Explain what "taking the Fifth" really means and why this is critical right in the U.S. justice system.
Q3) When a defendant refuses to testify in court due to the fact that the information might incriminate them, this is known as ______________.
Q4) Individuals may be tried twice for the same crime if new evidence is found. A)True
B)False
Q5) What is writ of habeas corpus? How is a writ of habeas corpus different from an appeal?
Q6) Explain the typical qualifications that are necessary for jurors.
Q7) Explain the difference between real evidence and testimonial evidence.
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Punishment and Sentencing
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Q1) Some judges are mandated by statute to focus on the actual behavior or ______________of the defendant,regardless of the conviction.
A) original offense
B) real offense
C) first count
D) original jurisdiction
Q2) A third party facilitator between the victim and the offender is called a __________.
A) mediator
B) prosecutor
C) probation officer
D) public defender
Q3) The main method of execution in the United States is:
A) gas chamber
B) hanging
C) electric chair
D) lethal injection
Q4) Explain the concept of "good time" and truth in sentencing.
Q5) Capital offenses are another name for crimes whose punishment results in
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Chapter 12: Probation and Community Corrections
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Q1) Explain how an electronic monitoring device meets many of the goals of intermediatesanctions?
Q2) Indeterminate sentencing guidelines are theoretically the same as community-based corrections.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain alternative sentencing arrangements.
Q4) The theory behind __________ is that by getting a taste of the brutalities of the daily prison grind, the offender will be deterred from future criminal activity.
A) split-sentence probation
B) home confinement
C) shock incarceration
D) electronic monitoring
Q5) ISP is a form of probation in which the offender is placed under stricter and more frequent surveillance and control than in conventional probation
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain how probation can be revoked.
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Chapter 13: Prisons and Jails
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Q1) A disciplinary action taken by prison officials in which all inmates are ordered to their quarters and nonessential prison activities are suspended is known as
Q2) A minimum-security prison would NOT be likely to house which of the following types of offenders?
A) white-collar criminals
B) rapists
C) first-time offenders
D) non-violent offenders
Q3) Disenfranchisement refers to which of the following?
A) barring felons from possessing a firearm
B) barring felons from obtaining driver's license
C) barring felons from voting
D) barring felons from seeing their lawyer
Q4) A correctional institution designed and organized to control and discipline for the most dangerous felons in the U.S. is called a(n) __________.
Q5) Individuals who spend the time prior to their trial incarcerated in jail are called
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Chapter 14: Behind Bars: The Life of an Inmate
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a role of the parole board?
A) to decide which offenders should be placed on parole
B) to determine the conditions of parole and aid in the continuing supervision of the parolee
C) to discharge the offender when the conditions of parole have been met
D) to personally track down parole violators when violations occur
Q2) Explain the concept of a total institution as it relates to correctional facilities.
Q3) The practice of separating inmates based on a certain characteristic, such as age, gender, type of crime committed, or race is called __________.
A) prisonization
B) prison segregation
C) relative deprivation
D) jailing
Q4) The socialization process through which a new inmate learns the accepted norms and values of the prison population is called __________.
Q5) Describe at least three of the different job categories for correctional officers according to Lucien Lombardo.
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Chapter 15: The Juvenile Justice System
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Q1) A __________ is the notification process through which a law enforcement officer or other concerned citizen makes the juvenile court aware of a juvenile's unlawful or unruly conduct.
Q2) In the 1899 Illinois juvenile court the child being prosecuted was called a:
A) defendant
B) offender
C) respondent
D) plaintiff
Q3) The child-savers movement led to the Illinois Juvenile Court Act.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is true regarding school violence?
A) students are safer in schools than they are on the streets
B) students are more likely to be killed in schools than in their neighborhoods
C) the media under reports the violence in schools
D) school violence has increased since 1995
Q5) Explain the development of the concept of parens patriae.
Q6) Explain the difference between an adjudicatory hearing and a disposition hearing.
Q7) Explain the relationship between age and crime?
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Homeland Security
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Q1) A court that is operated by the military rather than the criminal justice system and is presided over by military officers rather than judges is called a(n) __________.
Q2) Individuals who use violence to further political goals such as the formation or destruction of a particular government are called __________.
Q3) Attempting to stop a criminal or terroristic action before it occurs by law enforcement is
Known as:
A) preventive policing
B) terrorism preparedness
C) unconstitutional
D) counterintelligence
Q4) Identify and explain three important trends in international terrorism.
Q5) Which of the following is one of the main issues with border security today?
A) the lack of drugs coming across the border
B) the ease with which proven and potential terrorists can enter the United States
C) the inability of individuals to make it into the United States
D) the ease of tracking down illegal immigrants in the United States
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Chapter 17: Cyber Crime and the Future of Criminal Justice
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Q1) Outline the three major reasons why the Internet is conducive to the dissemination of child pornography.
Q2) When cyber criminals want to take their money-laundering operations one step Further and avoid legitimate banks altogether, they can make use of
A) digital banking
B) cyber money mules
C) laundering mules
D) digital currency
Q3) __________ is the willful and repeated emotional harm inflicted on another individual through the use of electronic devices such as computers and cell phones.
Q4) There are _____ state laws that target cyberbulling in the United States.
A) 24
B) 36
C) 44
D) 49
Q5) A __________ is a person who uses one computer to break into another.
Q6) _______________ is tThe application of computer technology to finding and utilizeing evidence of cyber crimes. is called __________.
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