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Principles of Chemistry introduces students to the fundamental concepts underlying the behavior and properties of matter. Topics include atomic and molecular structure, stoichiometry, chemical bonding, states of matter, chemical reactions, thermochemistry, and periodic trends. The course emphasizes problem-solving skills, laboratory techniques, and real-world applications, providing a strong foundation for further study in Chemistry and related scientific disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of General Organic and Biological Chemistry 8th Edition by John E. McMurry
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Q1) How long is 1 cm?
A)0.01 mm
B)1 mm
C)10 mm
D)100 mm
E)1000 mm
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following are states of matter?
A)solid
B)suspension
C)solution
D)precipitate
E)all of the above
Answer: A
Q3) Why is the number 32 (and not some other value)used in the formula for converting between Celsius and Fahrenheit temperatures?
Answer: The 32 compensates for the fact that the Celsius scale uses zero as its reference point for the freezing point of water,but the Fahrenheit scale uses 32 as this reference point.
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Q1) Transition metals can also be called
A)s-block elements.
B)p-block elements.
C)d-block elements.
D)f-block elements.
E)precious metals.
Answer: C
Q2) Another name for atomic mass unit (amu)is the A)avogadro.
B)dalton.
C)Kekule
D)kelvin.
E)mendeleev.
Answer: B
Q3) Give the electron dot structure for an element in Group 7A.
Answer: Any of the following could be a correct structure: 11ea7e31_c15c_997c_9bba_eda4fc36eec1_TB4943_00
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Q1) What is the formula of the carbonate ion?
A)CO<sub>2</sub><sup>3-</sup>
B) CO<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup>
C) C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>
D) C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub><sup>1-</sup>
E)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub><sup>1-</sup>
Answer: B
Q2) An element belonging to the alkaline earth family would be expected to have a ________ ionization energy and a ________ electron affinity.
A)large;large
B)large;small
C)small;small
D)small;large
E)none of the above
Answer: C
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Q1) Which element listed is the least electronegative?
A)nitrogen
B)hydrogen
C)oxygen
D)fluorine
E)chlorine
Q2) When a non-metal atom bonds with another non-metal atom,an ionic bond is formed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A chemical bond formed when two atoms share one pair of electrons is a ________ bond;it is best described as ________.
A)double;covalent
B)double;ionic
C)single;covalent
D)single;ionic
E)triple;covalent
Q4) Draw the Lewis structure for the a molecule of ethylamine,CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>NH<sub>2.</sub>
Q5) Explain why it is unlikely that an organic molecule would have an odd number of valence electrons.
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Q1) The oxidation number of sulfur in calcium sulfate,CaSO<sub>4</sub>,is A)+6.
B)+4.
C)+2.
D)0.
E)-2.
Q2) LX(aq)+ MY(aq) LY(s)+ MX(aq)
A)redox
B)acid-base
C)precipitation
Q3) Which statement regarding balanced chemical equations is not true?
A)The number of each kind of atom must be the same on each side.
B)Coefficients are used in front of formulas to balance the equation.
C)Subscripts may be changed to make an equation simpler to balance.
D)When no coefficient is written in front of a formula,the number "one" is assumed.
E)Reactants are written to the left of the arrow.
Q4) Write and balance the following acid-base neutralization reaction: KOH(aq)+ H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> aq)
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Q1) The number of grams in 0.350 mol of Na is
A)0.350.
B)8.05.
C)11.0.
D)23.0.
E)65.7.
Q2) The molecular weight of PCl<sub>3</sub> is ________ amu.
A)66.42
B)136.00
C)137.33
D)139.00
E)199.26
Q3) Consider the reaction N<sub>2</sub>(g)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g) 2 NO(g).
A)How many g NO can be produced when 25.0 g of nitrogen reacts?
B)How many g NO can be produced when 25.0 g of oxygen reacts?
C)Based on your answers in a and b,predict the amount of NO that can be produced when 25.0 g nitrogen is reacted with 25.0 g of oxygen.
D)Explain the reasoning used in part c.
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Q1) All of the statements are true for spontaneous reactions except
A)the value of G is less than zero.
B)the value of G is unaffected by a catalyst.
C)they are said to be exergonic.
D)if the enthalpy change is unfavorable,they occur at a high temperature.
E)the reaction rate is determined by the value of G.
Q2) Which of the following can affect the activation energy of a reaction?
A)increase in concentration of products
B)increase in concentration of reactants
C)surface area of reactants
D)use of a catalyst
E)temperature of the reaction
Q3) Which of the following contains kinetic energy?
A)bicylce at the top of a hill
B)ball laying on the ground
C)a moving car
D)a battery
E)a piece of chocolate
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Q1) What is the pressure in a 1.00 liter container of methane,CH<sub>4</sub>,that contains 40.0 g of the gas at 25.0°C?
A)5.13 atm
B)61.0 atm
C)82.1 atm
D)979 atm
E)3920 atm
Q2) Which assumption of Kinetic Molecular Theory is not followed when a real gas shows non-ideal behavior?
A)Gas molecules move at random with no attractive forces between them.
B)The velocity of gas molecules is proportional to their Kelvin temperature.
C)The amount of space occupied by a gas is much greater than the space occupied by the actual gas molecules.
D)In collisions with the walls of the container or with other molecules,energy is conserved.
E)Collisions with the walls of the container or with other molecules are elastic.
Q3) List and describe two unique properties of water.Discuss the intermolecular force that causes these unusual properties.
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Q1) How many mL of a 0.200 M KOH solution contains 10.0 g of KOH?
A)11.2 mL
B)50.0 mL
C)178 mL
D)281 mL
E)891 mL
Q2) Consider the following four liquids:
Water: highly polar;H-bonding
Hexanol: slightly polar;some H-bonding
Chloroform: slightly polar;no H-bonding
Octane: non-polar;no H-bonding
Which pair of liquids is immiscible?
A)water and octane
B)water and hexanol
C)hexanol and chloroform
D)chloroform and octane
E)none of the above
Q3) Explain the difference between osmosis and dialysis.
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Q1) What is the normality of a solution prepared by dissolving 37.5 g citric acid,a triprotic acid with molar mass of 192.14 g,in water to make 250.mL solution?
A)2.34 N
B)0.780 N
C)0.147 N
D)0.0865 N
E)0.288 N
Q2) A necessary requirement for a Brønsted base is
A)the presence of water as a reaction medium.
B)the presence of hydroxide in its formula.
C)a lone pair of electrons in its Lewis dot structure.
D)the production of hydronium ion upon reaction with water.
E)the presence of a metal ion in its formula.
Q3) The base forms a new ________ bond in a Brønsted-Lowry acid-base reaction.
A)covalent
B)aquo
C)hydrogen
D)ionic
E)metallic
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ionizing radiation is dangerous to living things because
A)it causes nuclear reactions.
B)it causes thermal burns.
C)it alters the chemical structure of atoms or molecules.
D)it causes electrons to be captured by the nucleus.
E)its penetrating power varies with its source.
Q2) List and discuss two criteria used to choose appropriate radioisotopes for use as tracers in medical imaging procedures.
Q3) The term nucleon refers to
A)electrons belonging to an atom that undergoes nuclear decay.
B)electrons that are emitted from a nucleus in a nuclear reaction.
C)the nucleus of a specific isotope.
D)both protons and neutrons.
E)none of these
Q4) Which is the best description of a beta particle?
A)charge +2;mass of 4 amu;high penetrating power
B)charge +2;mass of 4 amu;low penetrating power
C)charge -1;mass of 0 amu;medium penetrating power
D)charge -1;mass of 0 amu;high penetrating power
E)charge 0;mass of 0 amu;high penetrating power
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Q1) Which of the following statements about alkyl groups is incorrect?
A)An alkyl group with four carbon atoms would include butyl in its name.
B)-C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>5</sub> is an example.
C)In naming,they are used as prefixes and have a "yl" ending.
D)They are derived from alkenes.
E)none of the above
Q2) All of the following statements are general properties of organic compounds except A)the bonds are covalent.
B)they have relatively low boiling points.
C)they have limited or no water solubility.
D)they usually behave as electrolytes in solution.
E)they have relatively low melting points.
Q3) What is the minimum number of carbons that must be present in a molecule to have a secondary carbon?

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Q1) When 2-butene reacts completely with bromine,the product is A)2-bromobutane.
B)3-bromobutane.
C)1,2-dibromobutane.
D)1,3-dibromobutane.
E)2,3-dibromobutane.
Q2) What reagent is used in the bromination of benzene?
A)HNO<sub>3</sub>,H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
B)FeBr<sub>3</sub>,Br<sub>2</sub>
C)HNO<sub>3</sub>
D)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
E) H<sub>2</sub>,Pd
Q3) Ethylene and acetylene are the common names for the molecules ________ and ________,respectively.
A)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>;C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub> B)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>;C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub> C)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>;C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub> D)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>;C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>6</sub> E)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>;C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>
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Q1) The reaction conditions which would result in formation of disulfides from thiols are A)mild oxidizing.
B)gentle heat.
C)strong heat.
D)strong acid.
E)none of these
Q2) Organic compounds which are sulfur analogs of alcohols are referred to as A)sulfuric alcohols.
B)disulfides
C)halides.
D)thiols.
E)carbonyls.
Q3) Which compound is the least soluble in water?
A)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
B)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>
D)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>
E)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH <sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>
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Q1) What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens' test for aldehydes?
A)silver
B)copper
C)gold
D)platinum
E)lead
Q2) All of the following are properties of acetone except A)volatility.
B)flammability.
C)intoxication.
D)solvent for organic substances.
E)nutrient.
Q3) Which pair of compounds can react to form a hemiacetal?
A)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CHO and CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
B)CH<sub>3</sub>COCH<sub>3</sub> and CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CHO
C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CHO and CH<sub>3</sub>COOH
D)CH<sub>3</sub>COCH<sub>3</sub> and CH<sub>3</sub>COOH
E)CH<sub>3</sub>COOH and CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
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Q1) When comparing amine compounds of different classes but similar molar masses,which type will most likely be the highest boiling point?
A)primary amines
B)secondary amines
C)tertiary amines
D)quaternary ammonium salts
Q2) Write the complete reaction for the following:
A)aniline + HBr(aq)
B)propyl amine + water
Q3) When an amine behaves as a base it ________ a hydrogen ion to form a(an)________ ion.
A)loses;hydronium
B)loses;ammonium
C)loses;hydroxide
D)gains;ammonium
E)gains;hydronium
Q4) Using dashed lines show how two molecules of ethylamine could possibly hydrogen bond to each other.
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Q1) When an amine reacts with a carboxylic acid at high temperature the major product is a(n)
A)ester.
B)amide.
C)thiol.
D)ether.
E)alcohol.
Q2) Which of the following is(are)neither an acid or a base?
A)amines
B)carboxylic acids
C)esters
D)amides
E)both C and D
Q3) When an amide is hydrolyzed under basic conditions,the products are an A)amine and a carboxylic acid.
B)amine and a carboxylate ion.
C)ammonium ion and a carboxylate ion.
D)ammonium ion and a carboxylic acid.
E)There is no reaction.
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Q1) Detergents would most likely disrupt what type of stabilizing interaction?
A)salt bridges
B)hydrogen bonds
C)disulfide bonds
D)hydrophobic interactions
E)hydrophilic interactions
Q2) Which of the following amino acids contains an alcohol group?
A)Phe
B)Val
C)Asp
D)Thr
E)Cys
Q3) Two functional groups that are present in all amino acids are the ________ group and the ________ group.
A)hydroxyl;amide
B)carboxyl;amine
C)carboxyl;phosphate ester
D)acetal;amine
E)carbonyl;amide
Q4) Draw the tripeptide as it would be found at pH = 7: ala-gly-phe
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Q1) A trace mineral that is necessary for proper functioning of the enzyme cytochrome oxidase is
A)Copper(II)ion.
B)Iron(II)ion.
C)Zinc(II)ion.
D)Nickel(II)ion.
E)Iron(III)ion.
Q2) An enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of a cis double bond to a trans double bond is classified as a(an)
A)ligase.
B)isomerase.
C)oxidoreductase.
D)transferase.
E)hydrolase.
Q3) Enzymes function as catalysts by
A)changing the value of the free energy change to a more favorable value.
B)changing the value of the equilibrium constant to a more favorable value.
C)lowering the value of the activation energy.
D)increasing the amount of time needed to reach equilibrium.
E)becoming one of the reactants.
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Q1) Which of the following polysaccharides is used to inhibit blood clotting?
A)chitin
B)heparin
C)amylopectin
D)hyaluronic acid
Q2) Ribose can be classified as a(an)
A)aldoketose.
B)aldopentose.
C)aldohexose.
D)ketopentose.
E)ketohexose.
Q3) Glycogen is produced by ________,and its major function is ________.
A)animals;energy storage
B)animals;as a structural component
C)plants;as a structural component
D)plants;energy storage
E)none of the above
Q4) Describe the similarities and differences in the structures of the two polysaccharides that comprise starch.Make sure you state their names and what type of linkage holds the monomer units together.
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Q1) The reaction in which ATP is converted to ADP with release of 7.3 kcal is a(an)________ reaction.
A)hydrolysis
B)reduction
C)combustion
D)oxidation
E)polymerization
Q2) The regions of a cell found between the nuclear membrane and the cell membrane is called the A)cytosol.
B)mitochondria.
C)mitochondrial matrix.
D)organelles.
E)cytoplasm.
Q3) Which group of compounds includes only low-energy molecules?
A)ATP;acetyl-CoA;NADH;FADH<sub>2</sub>
B)ADP;acetyl-CoA;NAD<sup>+</sup>;FAD
C)ATP;CO<sub>2</sub>;NADH;FADH<sub>2</sub>
D)ADP;CO<sub>2</sub>;NADH;FADH<sub>2</sub>
E)ADP;CO<sub>2</sub>;NAD<sup>+</sup>;FAD
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Q1) Which of the following carbohydrates can also be used as fuel in glycolysis?
A)glucose
B)glucose and fructose
C)fructose and galactose
D)galactose,fructose,and mannose
E)fructose
Q2) Which of the following monosaccharides is generated during digestion of milk?
A)mannose
B)ribose
C)galactose
D)fructose
E)xylose
Q3) When blood sugar levels are lower than normal,this condition is called A)hypoglycemia.
B)hyperglycemia.
C)glucosuria.
D)diabetes mellitus.
Q4) What are the three possible fates of pyruvate?
Q5) Classify each pathway of carbohydrate metabolism as anabolic or catabolic.Justify your choice in each case.
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Q1) unsaturated
A)describes the non-polar portion of a molecule that does not interact with water or other polar substances
B)describes fatty acids that have mostly single but more than one double carbon-carbon bond
C)describes the polar portion of a molecule that interacts readily with water or other polar substances
D)a process of transport in which substances cross a membrane based on concentration differences without the expenditure of energy
E)describes fatty acids that have mostly single but at least one double carbon-carbon bond
F)describes fatty acids that do not have any carbon-carbon double bonds
G)a process of transport in which integral proteins change shape to allow a substance to cross a cell membrane
H)a process of transport that costs energy because the flow is against the concentration gradient
Q2) Describe the similarities and differences between soaps and emulsifying agents.
Q3) Sketch a lipid bilayer and identify its hydrophobic and hydrophilic portions.
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Q1) The synthesis of fatty acids takes place
A)by simply the reverse reactions of the fatty acid spiral.
B)in the same location within a cell as the fatty acid spiral.
C)by different reactions than the reverse of the fatty acid spiral and in a different cellular location.
D)More than one response is correct.
E)No response is correct.
Q2) The intermediate that carries two-carbon units to be added to a fatty acid chain is A)malonyl-CoA.
B)fatty acyl-CoA.
C)carnitine.
D)ATP.
E)glycerol 3-phosphate.
Q3) Which factor is the same in both lipogenesis and -oxidation of fatty acids?
A)They occur in the same location in the cell.
B)They use the same enzymes.
C)They both involve NADPH and FAD.
D)They both depend on coenzyme A.
E)They both occur two carbon atoms at a time.
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Q1) Which of the following types of compounds do not require nitrogen for their biosynthesis?
A)purines
B)pyrimidines
C)neurotransmitters
D)urea
E)All of these require nitrogen.
Q2) -ketoglutarate is converted to glutamate by
A)loss of a carbonyl group.
B)loss of a carboxyl group.
C)accepting an acetyl group.
D)loss of an amide linkage.
E)accepting an amine group.
Q3) Complementary sources of protein are
A)single foods that contain all of the essential amino acids.
B)single foods that contain all of the nonessential amino acids.
C)single foods that contain none of the essential amino acids.
D)single foods that contain none of the nonessential amino acids.
E)combinations of foods that provide all of the amino acids,both essential and nonessential.
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Q1) All of the statements about RNA are correct except A)RNA can exist in three forms: rRNA,tRNA,and mRNA.
B)RNA molecules are smaller than DNA molecules,but form double helices like DNA.
C)RNA does not contain thymine.
D)transfer RNA delivers amino acids to the protein chain as it is being manufactured.
E)messenger RNA is complementary to the template strand of its DNA,and almost identical to the informational strand of the DNA.
Q2) The process in which information from DNA is used to manufacture RNA is called A)mutation.
B)replication.
C)transcription.
D)translation.
E)translocation.
Q3) Codons provide the information needed to synthesize A)nucleic acids.
B)carbohydrates.
C)lipids.
D)proteins.
Q4) Draw the structure for the UMP nucleotide.Label all parts.
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Q1) The process of making multiple copies of DNA is accomplished by a process called A)polymerase chain reaction.
B)recombinant DNA.
C)restriction endonuclease activity.
D)insertions.
Q2) An alteration of the gentic material of an organism that will have the organism performing different functions such as producing a new substance is
A)biotechnology.
B)bioinformatics.
C)gene therapy.
D)genetic engineering.
E)pharmacogenetics.
Q3) The use of DNA testing to determine which antibiotic will have the fewest side effects in a particular individual would be classified as A)genetic engineering.
B)bioinformatics.
C)gene therapy.
D)bioethics.
E)pharmacogenetics.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/65933
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about neurotransmitters is not correct?
A)A neurotransmitter must carry a message across a tiny gap between nerve cells.
B)A neutrotransmitter is released in short bursts and their effects are very short lived.
C)A neutrotransmitter is quickly broken down or reabsorbed by the nerve cell.
D)A neutrotransmitter is synthesized and released close to its site of action.
E)All statements are true.
Q2) The function of a receptor is to
A)receive messages and store the information for later use.
B)interact with a first messenger and hold the information until it can be passed on to a second messenger.
C)cause a chemical change in the messenger to indicate that it has received information.
D)receive messages and cause chemical changes within the target cell.
E)release chemicals which interact with other receptors.
Q3) Which type of steroids is mimicked by anabolic steroids?
A)estrogen
B)progesterone
C)testosterone
D)norethindrone

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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/65934
Sample Questions
Q1) The minor,but important,fluid that lubricates joints is
A)plasma.
B)lymph.
C)cerebrospinal fluid.
D)urine.
E)synovial fluid.
Q2) The composition of blood plasma and interstitial fluid are almost identical,except that interstitial fluid contains ________ than blood plasma.
A)more water
B)less water
C)more proteins
D)fewer proteins
E)more phosphate
Q3) Comment on the tertiary structure of the defensive proteins immunoglobulins and fibrin.Explain how the structure of each protein contributes to its function.
Q4) Distinguish between inflammatory and immune responses to antigens.
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