
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Principles of Chemistry provides a foundational understanding of the essential concepts and theories in chemistry, introducing students to atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, states of matter, stoichiometry, thermochemistry, and the periodic table. The course explores chemical reactions, equilibrium, acids and bases, and basic thermodynamics, emphasizing both the qualitative and quantitative aspects of chemical phenomena. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and problem-solving sessions, students develop critical thinking and analytical skills necessary for further study in scientific disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Chemistry The Central Science 14th Edition by Theodore E. Brown
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Sample Questions
Q1) The density of silver is 10.5 g/cm<sup>3</sup>.A piece of silver with a mass of 61.3 g would occupy a volume of ________ cm<sup>3</sup>.
A)0.171
B)644
C)10.5
D)0.00155
E)5.84
Answer: E
Q2) The symbol for the element platinum is ________.
A)K
B)P
C)Pt
D)S
E)Ca
Answer: C
Q3) Temperature is a physical property that determines the direction of heat flow.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) How many total electrons are in the O<sup>2-</sup> ion?
A)10
B)8
C)6
D)16
E)4
Answer: A
Q2) The charge on the manganese in the salt MnF<sub>3</sub> is ________.
A)1+
B)1-
C)2+
D)2-
E)3+
Answer: E
Q3) The possible oxidation numbers for iron are +1 and +2.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The formula for potassium sulfide is ________.
Answer: K<sub>2</sub>S
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Q1) When a hydrocarbon burns in air,a component produced is ________.
A)oxygen
B)nitrogen
C)carbon
D)water
E)argon
Answer: D
Q2) Lithium and nitrogen react to produce lithium nitride: 6Li (s)+ N<sub>2 </sub>(g) 2Li<sub>3</sub>N (s)
How many moles of lithium nitride are produced when 0.330 mol of lithium react in this fashion?
A)0.110
B)0.660
C)0.0550
D)0.990
E)0.165
Answer: A
Q3) What is the mass percent of C in carbonic acid (H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>).
Answer: 19.36
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Q1) Silver ions can be precipitated from aqueous solutions by the addition of aqueous chloride: Ag<sup>+ </sup>(aq)+ Cl<sup>-</sup> (aq) AgCl (s)
Silver chloride is virtually insoluble in water so that the reaction appears to go to completion.How many grams of solid NaCl must be added to 25.0 mL of 0.149 M AgNO<sub>3</sub> solution to completely precipitate the silver?
A)9.81
B)6.37 × 10<sup>-5</sup>
C)0.218
D)0.102
E)0.633
Q2) Of the species below,only ________ is not an electrolyte.
A)HCl
B)Rb<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
C)Ar
D)KOH
E)NaCl
Q3) How many grams of an unknown substance with a molar mass of 40.0 are there in 500.0 mL of a 0.175 M solution of the unknown?
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Q1) The kinetic energy of a 23.2-g object moving at a speed of 81.9 km/hr is ________ J.
A)1900
B)77.8
C)145
D)1.43 × 10<sup>-3</sup>
E)6.00
Q2) A 26.9 g rock rolls down the hill at a speed of 81.9 m/s .What is the kinetic energy of the rock?
A)90.2 J
B)145 J
C)0.950 J
D)90200 J
E)1450 J
Q3) Energy units include watts,volts,and newtons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Coal contains hydrocarbons of high molecular weight as well as compounds containing ________,sulfur,or nitrogen.
Q5) ________ is defined as the energy used to move an object against a force.
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Q1) A photon that has an energy of 8.63 × 10<sup>-12</sup> J would emit light at which wavelength (m)?
A)230
B)2.30 × 10<sup>-14</sup>
C)2.30
D)3.48 × 10<sup>19</sup>
E)2.30 × 10<sup>-5</sup>
Q2) In a hydrogen atom,an electron in a 1s orbital can ________ a photon,but cannot ________ a photon.
A)accept, absorb
B)absorb, accept
C)absorb, emit
D)emit, absorb
E)emit, accept
Q3) The wavelength of radio waves can be longer than a football field.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which group is represented by a ns<sup>2</sup>np<sup>1</sup> valence shell electron configuration?
Q5) A line spectrum contains radiation of ________ wavelengths.
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Q1) ________ compounds in fireworks are responsible for the observed blue colors.
A)sodium
B)barium
C)calcium
D)copper
E)strontium
Q2) What is the coefficient of H<sub>2</sub>O when the following equation is completed and balanced?
Ca (s)+ H<sub>2</sub>O (l)
A)1
B)3
C)2
D)5
E)Ca(s)does not react with H<sub>2</sub>O (l).
Q3) When electrons are removed from a lithium atom,they are removed first from which orbital?
Q4) Which element(s)in group VIIA are solids at room temperature?
Q5) Write a balanced equation for the reaction of sodium metal with water.
Q6) Write a balanced equation for the reaction of elemental chlorine with liquid water.
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Q1) Based on the octet rule,iodine most likely forms an ________ ion.
A)I<sup>2+</sup>
B)I<sup>4+</sup>
C)I<sup>4-</sup>
D)I<sup>+</sup>
E)I<sup>-</sup>
Q2) Of the bonds below,________ is the least polar.
A)C-O
B)N-O
C)C-F
D)S-O
E)K-Br
Q3) Based on the octet rule,aluminum most likely forms an ________ ion.
A)Al<sup>3+</sup>
B)Al<sup>4+</sup>
C)Al<sup>4-</sup>
D)Al<sup>+</sup>
E)Al<sup>-</sup>
Q4) If more than one Lewis structure can be drawn then the molecule or ion is said to have ________ forms.
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Q1) According to the Pauli exclusion principle,no more than ________ electrons with their spins paired can occupy a molecular orbital.
Q2) For a molecule with the formula AB<sub>3</sub>,the molecular shape is ________.
A)linear, octahedral, or bent
B)linear, bent, or trigonal planar
C)linear, bent, or T-shaped
D)tetrahedral
E)trigonal planar, trigonal pyramidal, or T-shaped
Q3) What is the molecular shape of H<sub>2</sub>O?
A)T-shaped
B)tetrahedral
C)linear
D)trigonal pyramidal
E)bent
Q4) Of the following molecules,only ________ is polar.
A)CCl<sub>4</sub>
B)BCl<sub>3</sub>
C)NCl<sub>3</sub>
D)BeCl<sub>2</sub>
E)Cl<sub>2</sub>

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Q1) 760 torr is equivalent to ________ mm Hg.
A)380
B)4.78 × 10<sup>3</sup>
C)1
D)760
E)121
Q2) What volume (L)of NH<sub>3</sub> gas at STP is produced by the complete reaction of 7.5 g of H<sub>2</sub>O according to the following reaction?
Mg<sub>3</sub>N<sub>2</sub> (s)+ 6H<sub>2</sub>O (l) 3Mg(OH)<sub>2 </sub>(aq)+
2NH<sub>3</sub> (g)
A)3.1
B)9.3
C)19
D)28
E)0.32
Q3) What is the rms speed (m/s)of oxygen molecules at 36.0 °C?
Q4) The ________ corrects the ideal gas law for the finite volume and attractive forces of gas molecules.
Q5) How many molecules are there in 4.00 L of oxygen gas at 500 °C and 50.0 torr?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has London dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force?
A)NBr<sub>3</sub>
B)CH<sub>3</sub>COOH
C)SiCl<sub>4</sub>
D)HBr
E)Cl<sub>2</sub>O
Q2) Elemental iodine (I<sub>2</sub>)is a solid at room temperature.What is the major attractive force that exists among different I<sub>2</sub> molecules in the solid?
A)London dispersion forces
B)dipole-dipole interactions
C)ionic-dipole interactions
D)covalent-ionic interactions
E)dipole-dipole attractions
Q3) In general,intramolecular forces determine the ________ properties of a substance and intermolecular forces determine its ________ properties.
Q4) The conversion of a solid to a liquid is called ________.
Q5) The initial discovery of a liquid crystal resulted from studies of a ________ derivative.
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Q1) The process of ________ can produce an n-type semiconductor,which can greatly increase intrinsic conductivity.
A)melting
B)fusing
C)doping
D)mixing
E)infusing
Q2) The ________ for Ge shows it to be a semiconductor,because the gap between the filled lower and empty higher energy bands is relatively small.
A)molecular-orbital model
B)quantum mechanics model
C)atomic-orbital model
D)valence bond model
E)intermolecular model
Q3) Semiconductors are ________ conductive than metals because of a band gap.
Q4) Define a body-centered cubic lattice.
Q5) Polyethylene is formed by a condensation reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is the % by mass of sodium chloride in an aqueous solution that is 2.39 M and has a density of 1.01 g/mL?
A)2.36
B)13.8
C)7.83
D)140.
E)19.6
Q2) Which of the following statements is false?
A)Nonpolar liquids tend to be insoluble in polar liquids.
B)The weaker the attraction between the solute and solvent molecules, the greater the solubility.
C)Substances with similar intermolecular attractive forces tend to be soluble in one another.
D)The solubility of a gas increases in direct proportion to its partial pressure above the solution.
E)The solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature.
Q3) What is the osmotic pressure (in atm)of a 0.015 M calcium chloride solution at 28 °C?
Q4) What is the osmotic pressure (in atm)of a 0.0255 M NaCl solution at 25.0 °C?
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Q1) What is the order of the reaction with respect to ClO<sub>2</sub>? A)1

E)4
Q2) The concentration of reactants or products at any time during the reaction can be calculated from the integrated rate law.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Biological catalysts are referred to as ________.
Q4) Write the rate law for the reaction:
aA bB + cC.
Q5) The instantaneous rate of a reaction can be read directly from the graph of molarity versus time at any point on the graph.
A)True
B)False
Q6) According to the collision model,reaction rates are affected by reactant ________ and ________.
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Q1) If Reaction A + Reaction B = Reaction C,then K<sub>c</sub> for Reaction C is
Q2) How is the reaction quotient used to determine whether a system is at equilibrium?
A)The reaction quotient must be satisfied for equilibrium to be achieved.
B)At equilibrium, the reaction quotient is undefined.
C)The reaction is at equilibrium when Q < K<sub>eq</sub>.
D)The reaction is at equilibrium when Q > K<sub>eq</sub>.
E)The reaction is at equilibrium when Q = K<sub>eq</sub>.
Q3) If the reaction quotient Q for a reaction is greater than the value of the equilibrium constant K for that reaction at a given temperature,________ must be converted to ________ for the system to reach equilibrium.
Q4) Define the reaction quotient.
Q5) Le Châtelier's principle states that if a system at equilibrium is disturbed,then more products are produced.
A)True
B)False
Q6) If the value for the equilibrium constant is much less than 1,then the equilibrium mixture contains mostly ________.
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Q1) An aqueous solution of a particular compound has pH = 7.46.The compound is
A)a weak base
B)a weak acid
C)a strong acid
D)a strong base
E)a salt
Q2) The conjugate base of H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup> is ________.
A)H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>
B)HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>
C)PO<sub>4</sub><sup>3-</sup>
D)H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>
E)OH<sup>-</sup>
Q3) Classify the following compounds as weak acids (W)or strong acids (S): benzoic acid nitric acid acetic acid
A)W W W
B)S S S
C)S W W
D)W S S
E)W S W
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Q1) In which of the following aqueous solutions would you expect AgI to have the highest solubility?
A)pure water
B)0.050 M BaI<sub>2</sub>
C)0.050 M NaI
D)0.050 M KI
E)0.010 M AgNO<sub>3</sub>
Q2) A 25.0 mL sample of an acetic acid solution is titrated with a 0.175 M NaOH solution.The equivalence point is reached when 10.2 mL of the base is added.The concentration of acetic acid in the sample was ________ M.
A)0.365
B)0.175
C)0.119
D)0.0714
E)none of the above
Q3) CaCO<sub>3</sub> is very soluble in the presence of ________.
Q4) Suppose you have just added 50.0 ml of a solution containing 0.0400 moles of weak acid HA to 500.0 ml of 0.6000 M NaOH.What is the final pH? The K<sub>a</sub> of HA is 1.77 × 10<sup>-5</sup>.
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Q1) The most abundant component of air is ________.
Q2) The "scale" caused by hard water is ________.
A)calcium ions
B)sodium chloride
C)magnesium oxide
D)sodium ions
E)calcium carbonate
Q3) Ozone is a(n)________ of oxygen.
A)isomer
B)allotrope
C)isotope
D)resonance structure
E)atomic form
Q4) The majority of ozone that protects against the high energy radiation of the sun is found in the ________.
A)thermosphere
B)mesosphere
C)mesopause
D)stratosphere
E)troposphere
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Q1) The value of G° at 25 °C for the decomposition of calcium chloride into its constituent elements, CaCl<sub>2 </sub>(s) Ca (s)+ Cl<sub>2</sub> (g) Is ________ kJ/mol.
A)-795.8
B)+795.8
C)+763.7
D)+748.1
E)-748.1
Q2) Of the following,only ________ is not a state function.
A)S
B)H
C)q
D)E
E)T
Q3) Which of the following has the largest entropy?
A)HI (g)
B)HBr (g)
C)HCl (g)
D)HCl (s)
E)HCl (l)
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Q1) Which substance does not undergo oxidation or reduction in the reaction below?
Pb + PbO<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> 2PbSO<sub>4</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O
A)Pb
B)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
C)PbO<sub>2</sub>
D)PbSO<sub>4</sub>
E)The reaction above is not a redox reaction
Q2) The half-reaction occurring at the anode in the balanced reaction shown below is ________. 3MnO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup> (aq)+ 24H<sup>+</sup> (aq)+ 5Fe (s) 3Mn<sup>2+</sup> (aq)+ 5Fe<sup>3+</sup> (aq)+ 12H<sub>2</sub>O (l)
A)MnO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup> (aq)+ 8H<sup>+</sup> (aq)+ 5e<sup>-</sup>
Mn<sup>2+</sup> (aq)+ 4H<sub>2</sub>O (l)
B)2MnO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup> (aq)+ 12H<sup>+</sup> (aq)+ 6e<sup>-</sup> 2Mn<sup>2+</sup> (aq)+ 3H<sub>2</sub>O (l)
C)Fe (s) Fe<sup>3+</sup> (aq)+ 3e<sup>-</sup>
D)Fe (s) Fe<sup>2+</sup> (aq)+ 2e<sup>-</sup>
E)Fe<sup>2+</sup> (aq) Fe<sup>3+</sup> (aq)+ e<sup>-</sup>
Q3) Define a coulomb.
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Q1) The relative biological effectiveness (RBE)values of beta rays,gamma rays,and alpha rays are ________,respectively.
Q2) When ionizing radiation enters the body,what is the predominant free radical produced?
A)H
B)H<sub>3</sub>O
C)protein
D)OH
E)H<sub>2</sub>O
Q3) <sup>41</sup>Ca decays by electron capture.The product of this reaction undergoes alpha decay.What is the product of this second decay reaction?
A)Ti
B)Ca
C)Ar
D)Cl
E)Sc
Q4) Carbon-11,fluorine-18,oxygen-15 and nitrogen-13 are all used in the clinical diagnostic technique known as ________.
Q5) What was the purpose of the Manhattan project?
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Q1) Hydrogen can have oxidation states of ________.
A)+1 only
B)-1, 0, and +1
C)0 and +1 only
D)-1 and +1 only
E)0 only
Q2) The oxidation number of B in B<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> is ________.
A)+3
B)+2
C)+1
D)+4
E)+5
Q3) Which one of the following is false concerning buckminsterfullerene?
A)It is the most recently discovered crystalline allotrope of carbon.
B)It consists of individual molecules like C<sub>60 </sub>and C<sub>70</sub>.
C)It is a molecular form of carbon.
D)It is made up of Cl<sub>2</sub> molecules.
E)It is made up of molecules that resemble soccer balls.
Q4) Chains of silicate tetrahedra are called ________.
Q5) What noble gas is radioactive?

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Q1) What is a siderophore?
Q2) Isomers whose ligands can bind directly to a metal or be outside the lattice are called ________.
A)linkage isomers
B)rotational isomers
C)coordination sphere isomers
D)geometric isomers
E)optical isomers
Q3) Name Na [Ru(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>2</sub> (C<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>].
Q4) The porphyrin compound that contains Mg (II)is called ________.
Q5) The transport of iron into bacteria is facilitated by the formation of the complex ________.
Q6) A compound that can occupy two coordination sites is a (an)________.
Q7) How many bonds can ethylenediamine form to a metal ion?

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Q1) How many chiral centers are there in CH<sub>3</sub>CHCHCH<sub>2</sub>CHBr<sub>2</sub>?
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)3
E)4
Q2) Hydrocarbons containing only single bonds between the carbon atoms are called ________.
A)alkenes
B)alkynes
C)aromatics
D)alkanes
E)ketones
Q3) The aromas of different fruit are due to the chemical compounds known as ________.
Q4) Why is cyclopropane more reactive than propane?
Q5) Aldehydes are less reactive than ketones. A)True
B)False
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