
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Principles of Chemistry provides a foundational understanding of the chemical concepts and principles that govern matter and its transformations. This course covers topics such as atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, thermodynamics, chemical equilibria, acids and bases, and basic kinetics. Emphasis is placed on developing problem-solving skills, understanding laboratory techniques, and applying theoretical concepts to real-world scenarios. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and interactive activities, students gain the essential knowledge required for advanced study in chemistry and related scientific fields.
Recommended Textbook
General Chemistry The Essential Concepts 7th Edition by Raymond Chang
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Sample Questions
Q1) Classify the following as either a physical or a chemical property: Ice melts at 0<sup>o</sup>C.
Answer: Physical
Q2) One of the common intravenous fluids, called physiological saline, is a homogeneous mixture of NaCl in water. In this mixture, 0.89% of the mass is contributed by the NaCl. What mass of NaCl is found in 450. mL of physiological saline? (Given: density of physiological saline = 1.005 g/cm<sup>3</sup>)
A)2.0 g
B)4.0 g
C)5.1 g
D)508 g
E)400 g
Answer: B
Q3) Give an example of an intensive property.
Answer: (Answers will vary.)Temperature, density, melting point, boiling point
Q4) An automobile engine has a piston displacement of 1,600 cm<sup>3</sup>. Express this volume in cubic inches. (1 in = 2.54 cm)
Answer: 98 in<sup>3</sup>
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give the formula for carbon disulfide.
Answer: CS<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Which is the correct formula for copper(II)phosphate?
A)Cu<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>
B)Cu<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
C)Cu<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>3</sub>
D)Cu(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
E)Cu(PO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
Answer: B
Q3) When a beam of alpha particles passes between two electrically charged plates, the beam is deflected toward the positive plate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) In a cathode ray tube
A)electrons pass from the anode to the cathode.
B)electrons pass from the cathode to the anode.
C)protons pass from the anode to the cathode.
D)protons pass from the cathode to the anode.
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the minimum mass of sulfur dioxide necessary to produce 200. g of sulfuric acid in the following reaction?
2SO<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\) 2H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
Answer: 131 g
Q2) Balance the following chemical equation:
C + Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> \(\rarr\) Fe + CO
Answer: 3C + Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> \(\rarr\) 2Fe + 3CO
Q3) A 1.375 g sample of mannitol, a sugar found in seaweed, is burned completely in oxygen to give 1.993 g of carbon dioxide and 0.9519 g of water. The empirical formula of mannitol is A)CHO.
B)CH<sub>7</sub>O<sub>3</sub>.
C)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>2</sub>O.
D)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>7</sub>O<sub>3</sub>.
E)CH<sub>2</sub>O.
Answer: D
Q4) Calculate the molecular mass, in g/mol, of C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>.
Answer: 180.2 g/mol
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Q1) Batteries in our cars generate electricity by the following chemical reaction. Pb + PbO<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> \(\rarr\) 2PbSO<sub>4</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O
Which substance is oxidized in this process?
Q2) Write balanced molecular and net ionic equations for the reaction that would occur between Al(s)and Co(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(aq). Be sure to include the correct states in your final equations. If no reaction is expected, write "no reaction."
Q3) What element is oxidized in the following chemical reaction? NiO<sub>2</sub> + Cd + 2H<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\) Ni(OH)<sub>2</sub> + Cd(OH)<sub>2</sub>
A)Ni
B)Cd
C)O
D)H
E)This is not a redox reaction.
Q4) During a titration the following data were collected. A 10. mL portion of an unknown monoprotic acid solution was titrated with 1.0 M NaOH; 40. mL of the base were required to neutralize the sample. How many moles of acid are present in 2.0 liters of this unknown solution?
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Q1) Calculate the number of moles of gas contained in a 10.0 L tank at 22°C and 105 atm. (R = 0.08206 L.atm/K.mol)
A)1.71 * 10<sup>-3</sup> mol
B)0.0231 mol
C)1.03 mol
D)43.4 mol
E)582 mol
Q2) On a spring morning (20°C)you fill your tires to a pressure of 2.25 atmospheres. As you ride along, the tire heats up to 45°C from the friction on the road. What is the pressure in your tires now?
Q3) What volume of H<sub>2</sub> is formed at STP when 6.0 g of Al is treated with excess NaOH?
2NaOH + 2Al + 6H<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\) 2NaAl(OH)<sub>4</sub> + 3H<sub>2</sub>(g)
Q4) Gasoline (which can be considered to be octane, C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>18</sub>)burns in oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water. What volume of carbon dioxide at STP is generated as a result of the combustion of 1.0 gal of gasoline?
(The density of gasoline is 0.81 g/mL. 1 gal = 3.78 L)
Q5) What is standard temperature and standard pressure?
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Q1) According to the first law of thermodynamics:
A)Energy is neither lost nor gained in any energy transformations.
B)Perpetual motion is possible.
C)Energy is conserved in quality but not in quantity.
D)Energy is being created as time passes. We have more energy in the universe now than when time began.
Q2) Calculate the amount of heat necessary to raise the temperature of 12.0 g of water from 15.4°C to 93.0°C. The specific heat of water = 4.18 J/g·°C.
A)0.027 J
B)324 J
C)389 J
D)931 J
E)3,890 J
Q3) The heat of combustion of propane, C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>, 2220 kJ/mol. The specific heat of copper is 0.385 J/g.°C. How many grams of propane must be burned to raise the temperature of a 10.0 kg block of copper from 25.0°C to 65.0°C, assuming none of the heat is lost to the surroundings?
Q4) What is the standard enthalpy of formation of H<sub>2</sub>(g)at 25°C?
Q5) Define specific heat.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neon atom in its ground state will be diamagnetic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When the electron in a hydrogen atom falls from its first excited energy level to the ground state energy level, a photon with wavelength \(\lambda\) is emitted. A proton having this same wavelength would have a velocity of
A)3.87 m/s.
B)5990 m/s.
C)1.21 * 10<sup>-7</sup> m/s.
D)3.26 m/s.
E)5.99 m/s.
Q3) What is the ground-state electron configuration for chlorine?
Q4) The colors of the visible spectrum are blue, green, orange, red, violet, and yellow. Of these colors, ______ has the least energy.
Q5) The frequency of the emitted light from a cesium atom is an intensive property.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the total number of electrons possible in the 6s orbital?
Q7) What is the electron configuration of calcium?
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the radius of atom X is greater than the radius of atom Y, then it is also likely that
A)X has a larger electron affinity than Y does.
B)X has a larger effective nuclear charge than Y does.
C)X has greater metallic character than Y does.
D)X has a larger first ionization energy than Y does.
E)X is a poorer conductor of electricity than Y when in the solid state.
Q2) Write the ground-state electron configuration for I<sup>-</sup>.
Q3) Which pair of elements from different groups resemble each other the most in their chemical properties?
A)Be and B
B)Al and Si
C)Li and Be
D)Al and Be
E)Be and C
Q4) Write the ground-state electron configuration for Ni<sup>2+</sup>.
Q5) Which species has the greater radius, an I<sup>- </sup> ion or an I atom? Briefly explain your choice of answer.
Q6) Write the ground-state electron configuration for Br<sup>-</sup>.
Q7) Write the ground-state electron configuration for Ca<sup>2+</sup>.
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many covalent bonds will be drawn to phosphorous in PO<sub>4</sub><sup>3-</sup> for the dot structure that expands the octet to minimize formal charge and if necessary places negative formal charges on the most electronegative atom(s)?
A)4
B)5
C)6
D)7
E)8
Q2) The electron dot structure for AsCl<sub>3</sub> shows
A)a total of 84 electron dots.
B)three single bonds and 10 lone pairs.
C)two single bonds, one double bond, and 9 lone pairs.
D)one single bond, two double bonds, and 8 lone pairs.
E)three single bonds and one lone pair.
Q3) The Si - Cl bond has less ionic character than the C - Cl bond.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Write the chemical equation for which the enthalpy of reaction is the lattice energy of KCl(s).
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hybridization of B in the BF<sub>3</sub> molecule is sp<sup>3</sup>.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the hybridization of As in the AsF<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup> ion?
A)sp
B)sp<sup>2</sup>
C)sp<sup>3</sup>
D)sp<sup>3</sup>d
E)sp<sup>3</sup>d<sup>2</sup>
Q3) Consider the species N<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>, N<sub>2</sub>, and N<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup>. Which of these species will be paramagnetic?
A)N<sub>2</sub> and N<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>
B)N<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup> and N<sub>2</sub>
C)N<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup> and N<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>
D)only N<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>
E)none are paramagnetic
Q4) Indicate the number of \(\pi\)-bonds in C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>.
Q5) Indicate the number of \(\pi\)-bonds in C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>.
Page 12
Q6) According to the VSEPR theory, will the molecule PF<sub>5</sub> be polar or nonpolar?
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Q1) Which of these molecules is unsaturated?
A)CH<sub>4</sub>
B)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
C)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
D)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
E)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>
Q2) How many structural isomers are there of C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>?
A)4
B)6
C)2
D)8
E)10
Q3) The reaction of ethylene and water yields
A)an aldehyde.
B)an ester.
C)an alcohol.
D)an ether.
E)an organic acid.
Q4) A compound with the formula C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub> may or may not be a saturated hydrocarbon. Explain.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Indicate all the types of intermolecular forces of attraction in HCl(g).
Q2) Indicate all the types of intermolecular forces of attraction in F<sub>2</sub>(l).
Q3) Methane has a heat of fusion of 0.84 kJ/mol and a heat of vaporization of 9.2 kJ/mol. Estimate the value for the heat of sublimation.
Q4) Identify the dominant (strongest)type of intermolecular force present in Cl<sub>2</sub>(l).
Q5) For which of the following species are the intermolecular interactions entirely due to dispersion forces?
A)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
B)CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>
C)NO<sub>2</sub>
D)H<sub>2</sub>S
E)CaNO<sub>3</sub>
Q6) Boron nitride, BN<sub>3</sub>, melts at approximately at 3,000°C under high pressure. This material is almost as hard as diamond. What kind of crystal is this?
Q7) Indicate all the types of intermolecular forces of attraction in CF<sub>4</sub>(g).
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Q1) Plasma is the fluid portion of blood. The concentration of acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin, C<sub>9</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>4</sub>, molar mass = 180. g/mol)in your plasma is found to be 2.99 * 10<sup>-4</sup> M after you take two tablets of aspirin. If the volume of your plasma is 5.85 L, what is the molality, m, of aspirin in your blood? (Assume density of plasma is 1.00 g/mL.)
Q2) A saturated solution
A)contains more solute than solvent.
B)contains more solvent than solute.
C)contains equal moles of solute and solvent.
D)contains the maximum amount of solute that will dissolve in that solvent at that temperature.
E)contains a solvent with only sigma bonds and no pi bonds (i.e. only single bonds, with no double or triple bonds).
Q3) Which of the following has the greater molal concentration (molality)?
A)1.0 m KNO<sub>3</sub>
B)1.0 M KNO<sub>3</sub>
C)Both have same molality.
Q4) Calculate the mass of solute in the following solution: 50.0 mL of 0.0300 M C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>22</sub>O<sub>11</sub>.
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Q1) The rate law for the reaction 2NO<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>3</sub> \(\rarr\) N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> is rate = k[NO<sub>2</sub>][O<sub>3</sub>]. Which one of the following mechanisms is consistent with this rate law?
A)NO<sub>2 </sub>+ NO<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub> (fast) N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub> + O<sub>3</sub> \(\rarr\)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> (slow)
B)NO<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>3</sub> \(\rarr\) NO<sub>5</sub> (fast) NO<sub>5</sub> + NO<sub>5</sub> \(\rarr\)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub> + <sup>5</sup>/<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub> (slow)
C)NO<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>3</sub> \(\rarr\) NO<sub>3</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> (slow) NO<sub>3</sub> + NO<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub> (fast)
D)NO<sub>2</sub> + NO<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> (slow) N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>3</sub> \(\rarr\) N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub> (fast)
Q2) An experimental drug, D, is known to decompose in the blood stream. Tripling the concentration of the drug increases the decomposition rate by a factor of nine. Write the rate law for decomposition of D and give the units of the rate constant.
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Q1) For the common allotropes of carbon (graphite and diamond), C(gr)\(\rarr\)<sub> </sub>C(dia)with equilibrium constant K = 0.32. The molar volumes of graphite and diamond are, respectively, 5.30 cm<sup>3</sup>/mol and 3.42 cm<sup>3</sup>/mol; \(\Delta\)H<sub>f</sub> of diamond is 1.90 kJ/mol. This data suggests that the formation of diamond is favored at
A)low temperatures and low pressures.
B)high temperatures and low pressures.
C)low temperatures and high pressures.
D)high temperatures and high pressures.
Q2) Equilibrium is established for the reaction 2X(s)+ Y(g)\(\rarr\)<sub> </sub>2Z(g)at 500K, K<sub>c</sub> = 100. Determine the concentration of Z in equilibrium with 0.2 mol X and 0.50 M Y at 500K.
A)3.2 M
B)3.5 M
C)4.5 M
D)7.1 M
E)None of these.
Q3) What conditions are used in the Haber process to enhance the yield of ammonia? Explain why each condition affects the yield in terms of the Le Châtelier principle.
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Q1) Al(OH)<sub>3</sub> is an amphoteric hydroxide. Write a balanced ionic equation to show its reaction with HNO<sub>3</sub>.
Q2) Which one of these statements about strong acids is true?
A)All strong acids have H atoms bonded to electronegative oxygen atoms.
B)Strong acids are 100% ionized in water.
C)The conjugate base of a strong acid is itself a strong base.
D)Strong acids are very concentrated acids.
E)Strong acids produce solutions with a higher pH than weak acids.
Q3) Identify the conjugate acid-base pairs in the reaction HSO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup> + HF \(\rarr\) H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> + F<sup>-</sup>
<sup> </sup>One conjugate acid-base pair is _______________; the other acid-base pair is ______________.
Q4) Which of these lists of molecules is arranged in order of increasing acid strength?
A)H<sub>2</sub>S < H<sub>2</sub>O < H<sub>2</sub>Se
B)H<sub>2</sub>O < H<sub>2</sub>S < H<sub>2</sub>Se
C)H<sub>2</sub>Se < H<sub>2</sub>O < H<sub>2</sub>S
D)H<sub>2</sub>S < H<sub>2</sub>Se < H<sub>2</sub>O
E)H<sub>2</sub>O < H<sub>2</sub>Se < H<sub>2</sub>S
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Q1) Will a precipitate of AgCl form when 0.050 mol NaCl(s)and 0.050 mol AgNO<sub>3</sub>(s)are dissolved in 500. mL of 3.0 M NH<sub>3</sub>? [K<sub>f </sub>for<sub> </sub>Ag(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub><sup>+ </sup>is 1.5 * 10<sup>7</sup>; K<sub>sp</sub>(AgCl)= 1.6 * 10<sup>-10</sup>]
Q2) Will a precipitate of magnesium fluoride form when 200. mL of 1.9 * 10<sup>-3</sup> M MgCl<sub>2</sub> are added to 300. mL of 1.4 * 10<sup>-2</sup> M NaF?
[K<sub>sp</sub> (MgF<sub>2</sub>)= 6.9 * 10<sup>-9</sup>]
A)Yes, Q > K<sub>sp</sub>
B)No, Q < K<sub>sp</sub>
C)No, Q = K<sub>sp</sub>
D)Yes, Q < K<sub>sp</sub>
Q3) A saturated sodium carbonate solution at 0°C contains 7.1 g of dissolved sodium carbonate per 100. mL of solution. The solubility product constant for sodium carbonate at this temperature is A)1.2.
B)0.30.
C)3.0 * 10<sup>-4</sup>.
D)0.90.
E)1.2 * 10<sup>-3</sup>.
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Q1) H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>(l) \(\rarr\) H<sub>2</sub>O(l)+ <sup>1</sup>/<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>(g)
A)1 < 3 < 2
B)2 < 3 < 1
C)2 < 1 < 3
D)3 < 2 < 1
E)3 < 1 < 2
Q2) Find the temperature at which K<sub>p</sub> = 4.00 for the reaction N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>(g)\(\rarr\) 2NO<sub>2</sub>(g). [Given: at 25°C, for NO<sub>2</sub>(g), \(\Delta\)H°<sub>f</sub> = 33.85 kJ/mol, S° = 240.46 J/mol·K; for N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>(g), \(\Delta\)H°<sub>f</sub> = 9.66 kJ/mol, S° = 304.3 J/mol·K; assume that \(\Delta\)H° and \(\Delta\)S° are independent of temperature.]
A)197 °C
B)56 °C
C)36 °C
D)79 °C
E)476°C
Q3) Predict the sign of \(\Delta\)S for the process N<sub>2</sub>(g, 10 atm) \(\rarr\) N<sub>2</sub>(g, 1atm).
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Q1) Aluminum metal is formed by the electrolysis of Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3 </sub>in molten cryolite. How many minutes are required to form 10.0 g of Al using a current of 30 A?
Q2) Will H<sub>2</sub>(g)form when Sn is placed in 1.0 M HCl?
Q3) Complete and balance the following redox reaction under acidic conditions: ClO<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq)\(\rarr\) ClO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ Cl<sup>-</sup>(aq)
Q4) Complete and balance the following redox equation using the set of smallest whole-numbers coefficients. What is the sum of the coefficients?
HI + HNO<sub>3</sub> \(\rarr\) I<sub>2</sub> + NO (acidic solution)
A)5
B)7
C)14
D)17
E)None of these.
Q5) When a solution of a certain gadolinium salt is electrolyzed with a current of 1.0 A for 2.0 h, 0.025 mol of Gd metal forms. Calculate the charge on the gadolinium ion in the salt.
Q6) How many moles of silver metal are produced in 1.2 hours by the electrolysis of AgNO<sub>3</sub>(aq)using a current of 6.0 A?
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Q1) Which of these ligands produces the weakest crystal field?
A)CN<sup>-</sup>
B)I<sup>-</sup>
C)OH<sup>-</sup>
D)H<sub>2</sub>O
E)NH<sub>3</sub>
Q2) Predict the number of unpaired electrons in the [Cr(en)<sub>3</sub>]<sup>2+</sup> ion.
Q3) In the complex ion [ML<sub>6</sub>]<sup>n+</sup>, M<sup>n+</sup> has five d electrons and L is a strong field ligand. According to crystal field theory, the magnetic properties of the complex ion correspond to how many unpaired electrons?
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)3
E)5
Q4) What is the coordination number of cobalt in [Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>6</sub>]Cl<sub>3</sub>?
Q5) What is the oxidation number of Fe in [Fe(CN)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>4- </sup>?
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Q1) On a neutron number versus proton number plot, the nucleus of oxygen-15 lies below the belt of stability. Write an equation for radioactive decay of oxygen-15.
Q2) A sample of a radioisotope shows an activity of 999 disintegrations per minute due to beta decay. If after 1.10 years the activity is 952 disintegrations per minute, what is the half-life of this radioisotope?
A)4.38 * 10<sup>-2</sup> yr
B)11.4 yr
C)0.25 yr
D)15.8 yr
E)9.1 yr
Q3) Tritium is a radioisotope of hydrogen having a half-life of 12.3 years. If you initially had 1.0 * 10<sup>-7</sup> mole of tritium, calculate the decay rate of the sample.
Q4) When a <sup>87</sup>Br nucleus emits a beta particle, the nuclear species that results is ___________.
Q5) Tritium is a radioisotope of hydrogen having a half-life of 12.3 years. If you initially had 1.0 * 10<sup>-7</sup> mole of tritium, how many moles of tritium would be left after 78 years?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these molecules is a product of the hydrolysis of DNA?
A)acetic acid
B)glucose
C)adenine
D)ribose
E)water
Q2) Which choice lists both the sugar and the nitrogen base that are a part of RNA but are not a part of DNA?
A)deoxyribose and thymine
B)ribose and deoxyribose
C)ribose and uracil
D)uracil and thymine
E)ribose and thymine
Q3) Which choice contains all three molecular units found in nucleotides?
A)phosphate, sugar, amino acid
B)amino acid, nitrogen-containing base, sugar
C)carboxylic acid, sugar, protein
D)phosphate, nitrogen-containing base, sugar
E)sugar, amino acid, protein
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