Principles of Botany Test Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Botany provides a comprehensive introduction to the scientific study of plants, exploring their structure, function, development, and ecological roles. The course covers fundamental topics such as plant anatomy, physiology, reproduction, classification, and evolution, emphasizing the diversity and adaptability of plant life. Through an integration of lecture, laboratory, and fieldwork components, students develop an understanding of plant-environment interactions, the importance of plants in global ecosystems, and their significance in agriculture, medicine, and biotechnology. This foundation prepares students for advanced studies in plant biology, ecology, and related life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Sterns Introductory Plant Biology 13th Edition by James Bidlack
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Chapter 1: What Is Plant Biology
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Q1) According to the scientific method, an hypothesis is
A) a well supported idea expanded from facts via reasoning but is not currently known to be entirely or universally True.
B) an idea or explanation that is a basis for experimental investigation.
C) information that is known and specific.
D) the last step in the scientific method that deals with collection of data.
E) an experimentally demonstrated fact.
Answer: B
Q2) Van Helmont's experiment with a willow branch demonstrated that the soil in which it grew gained weight over time.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Originally, the scientific method was considered to involve a routine series of steps.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Nature of Life
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Q1) Each nucleotide of a DNA molecule consists of a nitrogenous base plus _____________.
A) a 5-carbon sugar and a phosphate group
B) an RNA molecule
C) a sulfur salt
D) a form of starch and a potassium ion
E) a lipid and a carbohydrate
Answer: A
Q2) What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy the innermost electron orbital?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 10
Answer: A
Q3) Potential energy can be converted to kinetic energy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Q1) Which of the following would be found in a eukaryotic cell but NOT in a prokaryotic cell?
A) chloroplast
B) cell membrane
C) mitochondrion
D) nucleus
E) chloroplast, mitochondria, and nucleus are correct.
Answer: E
Q2) Cell structures that apparently function in controlling the addition of cellulose to the cell wall, in steering vesicles from Golgi bodies to the cell wall, and in aiding movement within the cell are
A) thylakoids.
B) ribosomes.
C) mitochondria.
D) microtubules.
E) lysosomes.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Tissues
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Q1) Which is a type of epidermal cell?
A) guard cell
B) collenchyma
C) trichome
D) cork cell
E) both [guard cell and trichome] are correct
Q2) The porous regions of sieve-tube elements are called sieve plates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Wood (woody tissues)are produced by __________________.
A) cork cambium
B) vascular cambium
C) procambium
D) apical meristems
E) callus tissue
Q4) Nectar is an example of a substance transported in the xylem tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Roots and Soils
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycorrhizae roots are those that
A) have a symbiotic association with fungi.
B) have a symbiotic association with nitrogen fixing bacteria.
C) contain hyphae of parasitic fungi.
D) are above ground roots that serve to support the stem.
E) are propagative roots.
Q2) A root system may function in which of the following?
A) Anchorage and storage.
B) Growth.
C) Absorption and conduction.
D) Production of new roots.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Plant root systems can detect and respond to gravity within 30 minutes to a few hours.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When a seed germinates, the part of the embryo that develops into the first root is called a radicle.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Stems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A twig's age can be determined by
A) counting the number of leaves or leaf scars on it.
B) counting the number of groups of bud scale scars on it.
C) measuring the distances between nodes.
D) counting nodes.
E) examining its pith.
Q2) Specialized stems that aid grape vines and Boston ivy in climbing are called stipules.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would NOT be part of a stele?
A) cortex
B) primary xylem
C) primary phloem
D) pith
E) all of these answers are correct
Q4) Knots are branch bases that have become covered over by new wood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Leaves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following specialized leaves are found in plants living in arid environments?
A) window leaves
B) flower pot leaves
C) reproductive leaves
D) succulent leaves
E) Both [ window leaves and succulent leaves]
Q2) Because of the greater light intensity and heat absorption on the upper surface of the leaf, the upper surface has
A) more stomates than the lower surface.
B) fewer stomates than the lower surface.
C) a thicker cuticle than the lower surface.
D) both [more stomates than the lower surface and a thicker cuticle than the lower surface] are correct
E) both [fewer stomates than the lower surface and a thicker cuticle than the lower surface] are correct
Q3) Most natural ropes and twines are made from leaf fibers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Flowers, Fruits, and Seeds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multiple fruits, such as _______________, develop from an inflorescence of two or more flowers.
A) apple
B) pepos
C) pineapple
D) samaras
E) achenes
Q2) Which of the following characteristics can be used to identify dicots?
A) Flower parts in groups of four, five or multiples of four or five.
B) Flower parts in groups of three or multiples of three.
C) Presence of pith in the center of the root.
D) Long slender leaves with parallel veins.
E) Lack of pith in the center of the stem.
Q3) Which of the following is a cluster of flowers in which each flower is produced on its own pedicel?
A) inflorescence
B) pedunculate cluster
C) axillary protuberance
D) reproductive protrusion
E) none of these answers are correct
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Chapter 9: Water in Plants
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Q1) Water potential is calculated by _____________________.
A) subtracting turgor pressure from osmotic potential
B) calculating the rate of diffusion of water molecules in dry soil
C) combining osmotic potential and pressure potential of a plant cell
D) determing the rate of plasmolysis
E) none of these
Q2) Which is an essential trace element in plants?
A) Iron
B) Phosphorus
C) Copper
D) Sulfur
E) Nitrogen
Q3) The pressure required to prevent osmosis from taking place is referred to as:
A) water potential.
B) osmotic potential.
C) pressure potential.
D) turgor pressure.
E) none of these answers are correct.
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Chapter 10: Plant Metabolism
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Q1) Respiration occurs only in cells where no photosynthesis is taking place.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In aerobic respiration, how many ATPs are produced from complete respiration of one molecule of glucose?
A) 46
B) 36
C) 26
D) 16
E) 6
Q3) RuBP is a 5-carbon sugar that is continually being formed during photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An increase in ___________ would theoretically increase photosynthesis.
A) CO<sub>2</sub>
B) nitrate
C) oxygen
D) sulphur dioxide
E) carbon monoxide
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Chapter 11: Growth
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Q1) Phenylacetic acid (PAA)is a/an ____________.
A) gibberellin
B) auxin
C) cytokinin
D) an ethylene derivative
E) none of these answers are correct
Q2) Plant movements that are not oriented relative to the direction of the stimulus are called
A) phototropisms.
B) nastic movements.
C) etiolated movements.
D) thigmotropisms.
E) silhouette movements.
Q3) Commercial chrysanthemum growers may use a growth retardant to produce short, sturdy plants.It acts by blocking synthesis of ______________.
A) abscisic acid
B) auxin
C) cytokinin
D) ethylene
E) gibberellin
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Chapter 12: Meiosis and Alternation of Generation
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Q1) Which of the following statements pertaining to sexual reproduction is true?
A) The first cell of a sporophyte generation is normally a gamete.
B) The change from a gametophyte generation to a sporophyte generation occurs immediately after meiosis.
C) The offspring are nearly always identical with the parents.
D) The first cell of a gametophyte generation is normally a spore.
E) Asexual cells fuse in pairs.
Q2) Spore mother cells give rise to gametes through meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The nuclear envelope disintegrates by the end of prophase I.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In meiosis
A) spindles are formed during the second division of the process only.
B) an interphase cell with 8 chromosomes ends up as 4 cells, each with 8 chromosomes.
C) a whole chromosome from each pair migrates toward a pole in metaphase II.
D) the chromosomes become shorter and thicker in prophase I.
E) the chromosome number remains the same.
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Chapter 13: Genetics
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Q1) A sequence of nucleotides in a chromosome that controls the production of a protein is a
A) polysome.
B) gene.
C) intron.
D) chromatid.
E) operon.
Q2) A backcross is one in which both parents are homozygous.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the cross BbDD x bbDd is made, which of the following would NOT be represented in the offspring?
A) BbDD
B) BbDd
C) bbDD
D) bbDd
E) BBDd
Q4) The law of independent assortment is illustrated only in monohybrid crosses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Plant Breeding and Propagation
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Q1) Circular extrachromosomal pieces of DNA in bacteria are called
A) prions.
B) plasmids.
C) capsids.
D) chromosomes.
E) both [prions and capsids] are correct.
Q2) _____________ are plants with specific genes from other organisms (from viruses to humans)inserted into the genome.
A) Hybrid plants
B) Polyploid plants
C) Somatic hybrid plants
D) Transgenic plants
E) Heirloom plants
Q3) A heirloom variety has undergone inbreeding to create a genetically uniform variety.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Six plant species provide 80% of the calories consumed by humans worldwide.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Evolution
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Q1) Organic evolution
A) is a change in an individual over its lifetime.
B) describes the changes that a culture undergoes over time.
C) describes the variation observed in a population of individuals during one time frame.
D) is a term synonymous with epigenetics.
E) is the accumulation of genetic changes in a population of living organisms over many generations.
Q2) The least complex fossils generally are found in the oldest geological strata.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following can play a role in the development of new species from populations with a common ancestry?
A) Soils.
B) Reproductive isolation.
C) Mechanical isolation.
D) Chemical isolation.
E) All of these answers are correct.
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Chapter 16: Plant Names and Classification
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Q1) A specific epithet is the second part of a Latin binomial (scientific name)of an organism.
A)True B)False
Q2) One drawback of an identification key is that it may oversimplify the differences between two organisms because it cannot list all the characteristics of each group.
A)True B)False
Q3) One of the basic problems with Copeland's four-kingdom system was
A) it did not classify fungi.
B) it placed all single-celled organisms in one kingdom.
C) it did not consider algae protists.
D) basic differences in the mode of nutrition existed within his Kingdom Protoctista.
E) it did not distinguish organisms with prokaryotic cells from those with eukaryotic cells.
Q4) A species name consists of a genus name and a specific epithet name.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 17: Domain Kingdombacteria, Domain
King-Domarchaea, and Viruses
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Q1) Photosynthetic, algal-like bacteria are A) archaea.
B) cyanobacteria.
C) methanogens.
D) chlorophytes.
E) rickettsias.
Q2) Approximately _________ of bacteria are useful to humans, or harmless.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 50%
D) 70%
E) 90%
Q3) Chalky, insoluble travertine deposits are precipitated by blue-green bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) No blue-green bacteria have flagella and therefore none is capable of movement.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Kingdom Protista
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Q1) The brownish pigment found in both brown algae and diatoms is
A) chrysolaminarin.
B) fucoxanthin.
C) paramylon.
D) bryopsidin.
E) madder.
Q2) The algae most responsible for bioluminescence in tropical ocean waters are
A) red algae.
B) diatoms.
C) brown algae.
D) dinoflagellates.
E) euglenoids.
Q3) Which of the following do the green algae Chlamydomonas and Oedogonium have in common?
A) Eggs.
B) Sperms.
C) Zygotes.
D) Zoospores with numerous flagella.
E) Vegetative and reproductive cells of similar size and shape.
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Chapter 19: Kingdom Fungi
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Q1) The dung-inhabiting Pilobolus fungus is __________, and can catapult sporangia up to 8 meters (26 feet)away from the dung pile where they are growing.
A) moisture sensitive
B) temperature sensitive
C) sensitive to grazing animals
D) light sensitive
E) dangerous
Q2) Two parasitic fungal diseases classified in the Ascomycota that have completely changed the urban landscape and deciduous forests in eastern North America are
A) ergot and bracket fungi
B) downy mildew and corn blight
C) Dutch elm disease and Chestnut blight
D) wheat rust and fire blight
E) None of the above
Q3) LSD can be synthesized from a precursor found in ergot of rye.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Introduction to the Plant Kingdom: Bryophytes
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Q1) Which of the following is used commercially as a soil conditioner?
A) Marchantia
B) Mnium
C) Cladonia
D) Sphagnum
E) Polytrichum
Q2) Which of the following moss sporophyte structures has the most direct contact with the gametophyte?
A) operculum
B) peristome
C) foot
D) sporangium
E) seta
Q3) An operculum is a part of the sporophyte generation of a moss.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mosses and liverworts produce embryos that are contained in the archegonium.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: The Seedless Vascular Plants: Ferns and Their
Relatives
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Q1) In nature asexual propagation of ground pines (Lycopodium)may take place by means of which of the following?
A) gemmae
B) root divisions
C) bulbils
D) corms
E) cladophylls
Q2) The image of a compression fossil is called an imprint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Whisk ferns consist primarily of stems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fern fronds are often subdivided into pinnae.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A petrifaction is a fossil in which the preserved organism is found in an unaltered state.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Introduction to Seed Plants: Gymnosperms
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Q1) In pines a pollen grain reaches the nucellus via the A) archegonium.
B) micropyle.
C) pollen tube.
D) embryo.
E) megasporangium.
Q2) Which of the following structures or features is/are a part of pine needles (leaves)?
A) resin canals
B) a hypodermis
C) a thick cuticle
D) sunken stomata
E) all of these are correct
Q3) Which statement about the nucellus is INCORRECT?
A) Nucellus tissue is found within the ovule of the gymnosperms.
B) The nucellus is covered by the integuments.
C) The nucellus plays a role in both male and female gametophytes.
D) The food stored in the nucellus is used by the developing megagametophyte.
E) The ovule, nucellus, and integument are diploid tissues.
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Chapter 23: Seed Plants: Angiosperms
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Q1) These flower parts are generally green and leaflike.
A) petals
B) sepals
C) stamens
D) carpels
E) stigmas
Q2) In this question, assume that the life cycle of a flowering plant begins with the germination of a seed and ends with the development of a fruit.Two events that occur in the life cycle are the fusion of sperm and polar nuclei and the fusion of egg and sperm.
A) The first event precedes the second event.
B) The second event precedes the first event.
C) Both events occur more or less simultaneously.
Q3) In this question, assume that the life cycle of a flowering plant begins with the germination of a seed and ends with the development of a fruit.Two events that occur in the life cycle are formation of a pollen tube and pollination.
A) The first event precedes the second event.
B) The second event precedes the first event.
C) Both events occur more or less simultaneously.
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Chapter 24: Flowering Plants and Civilization
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Q1) The source of true vanilla flavoring is an orchid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Potatoes, tomatoes, and eggplants all belong to the
A) Rose Family.
B) Buttercup Family.
C) Poppy Family.
D) Nightshade Family.
E) Pumpkin Family.
Q3) The tomato and white potato are members of the same family.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The original name of the Mustard Family, Cruciferae, came from the fact that flowers of the family have petals in the form of a cross.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Many plant families contain both edible and poisonous species.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Ecology
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Q1) The __________ or living component of any environment includes all individuals of each species that interact in that habitat.
A) biotic
B) abiotic
C) population
D) ecosystem
E) ecotype
Q2) When a grass plant is eaten by an herbivore, which in turn is eaten by a carnivore, this is an example of a
A) symbiosis.
B) autotrophic web.
C) food chain.
D) trophic level.
E) ecotype.
Q3) Weedy plant species are ______________________.
A) usually large, long-lived plants that occur in stable habitats
B) usually fast growing, small annuals that reproduce quickly
C) usually woody
D) usually herbaceous perennials
E) plants that usually require two growing seasons to complete their life cycle
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Chapter 26: Biomes
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Q1) A characteristic vegetational type found in the desert biome is:
A) succulents
B) chaparral shrubs
C) deciduous trees
D) mosses
E) lianas
Q2) This biome is characterized by having 200-400 cm of precipitation per year and vegetation dominated by tall, broad leaved evergreen trees.
A) grasslands
B) temperate deciduous forests
C) savannas
D) tropical rain forests
E) taiga
Q3) Another name for the northern coniferous or boreal forest is the ___________.
A) tundra
B) taiga
C) evergreen forest
D) polar forest
E) mountain forest
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