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Principles of Biology Textbook Exam Questions - 1937 Verified Questions

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Principles of Biology

Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Principles of Biology introduces the foundational concepts of biological science, exploring the structure, function, and diversity of living organisms. Emphasizing the scientific method, students learn about cellular processes, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the interactions between organisms and their environments. This course provides essential background for advanced biology studies and highlights the importance of biology in addressing real-world challenges such as health, sustainability, and environmental conservation.

Recommended Textbook Essentials of Biology 4th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr

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Chapter 1: Biology: The Science of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Evolutionary processes lead to organisms that A) are perfect.

B) function well in a given environment.

C) can only survive in that one environment.

D) have a single adaptive trait.

E) become extinct.

Answer: B

Q2) Kevin is studying predator-prey interactions.One day he notices a spider eating a cricket caught in its web.Later that day,a bird eats the spider.How many populations are included in his study?

A) 0

B) 1

C) 2

D) 3

E) 4

Answer: D

Q3) The development of new technologies is based upon science.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life

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Q1) Regarding atoms,identify which statement below is correct.

A) An element may be composed of several types of atoms.

B) The nucleus of an atom contains protons and electrons.

C) The number and arrangement of electrons in an atom governs its chemical activity.

D) The positive charges of an element are carried by the electrons.

E) The neutral charges of an element are carried by the protons.

Answer: C

Q2) Bases can

A) release only hydrogen ions.

B) take up only hydrogen ions.

C) release only hydroxide ions.

D) both take up hydrogen ions and release hydroxide ions.

E) release hydrogen and release hydroxide.

Answer: D

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4

Chapter 3: The Organic Molecules of Life

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Q1) A molecule is said to be organic if it contains

A) double bonds.

B) hydrogen bonds.

C) carbon and hydrogen atoms.

D) carbon and oxygen atoms.

E) two or more atoms.

Answer: C

Q2) Which of the following is an organic molecule?

A) NaOH

B) HCl

C) CO<sub>2</sub>

D) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>

E) H<sub>2</sub>O

Answer: D

Q3) What category of biological molecules are steroids included in?

A) proteins

B) lipids

C) carbohydrates

D) nucleic acids

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Inside the Cell

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Q1) As a molecule moves through the plasma membrane it passes through

A) a hydrophobic layer of phospholipid heads then a hydrophilic layer of phospholipid tails and then another hydrophobic layer of phospholipid heads.

B) a hydrophobic layer of phospholipid tails then a hydrophilic layer of phospholipid heads and then another hydrophobic layer of phospholipid tails.

C) a hydrophilic layer of phospholipid heads then a hydrophobic layer of phospholipid tails.

D) a hydrophilic layer of phospholipid heads then a hydrophobic layer of phospholipid tails and then another hydrophilic layer of phospholipid heads.

E) a hydrophobic layer of phospholipid tails and then a hydrophilic layer of phospholipid heads.

Q2) The nuclear membrane differs from the plasma membrane in that the nuclear membrane is a single layer of phospholipids.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: The Dynamic Cell

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Q1) Energy of activation

A) is the energy required for molecules to react with each other.

B) requires the use of enzymes.

C) allows for feedback inhibition.

D) acts on the products of metabolic reactions.

E) is a measure of the amount of solar radiation striking a leaf surface.

Q2) Enzymes are able to speed up the rate of a reaction by

A) carrying substrates closer together.

B) binding substrates to a membrane.

C) producing more enzymes.

D) lowering the energy needed for the reaction to proceed.

E) producing more substrate.

Q3) Osmosis includes

A) a semi-permeable membrane.

B) transport proteins.

C) the diffusion of water.

D) both the diffusion of water and a semi-permeable membrane.

E) both a semi-permeable membrane and transport proteins.

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Chapter 6: Energy for Life

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Q1) Which of the following is not derived from G3P?

A) starch

B) cellulose

C) glucose phosphate

D) NADP<sup>+</sup>

E) sucrose

Q2) What two things are added to NADP<sup>+</sup> to convert it into NADPH?

A) H<sup>+</sup> and electrons

B) electrons and ATP

C) H<sup>+</sup> and ATP

D) H<sup>+</sup> and CO<sub>2</sub>

E) electrons and CO<sub>2</sub>

Q3) Which compounds link the light reactions with the Calvin cycle reactions?

A) ATP and NADPH

B) H<sup>+</sup> and ATP

C) G3P and ATP

D) H<sup>+</sup> and G3P

E) G3P and NADPH

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Chapter 7: Energy for Cells

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Q1) Which of the following reactions is NOT part of the cellular respiration pathway?

A) Calvin cycle

B) glycolysis

C) citric acid cycle

D) electron transport chain

E) preparatory reaction (prep)

Q2) Where do the protons and electrons come from that are used in the electron transport chain?

A) ATP

B) NADH

C) FADH<sub>2</sub>

D) ADP

E) NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub>

Q3) What type(s)of organisms does cellular respiration occur in?

A) autotrophs

B) heterotrophs

C) decomposers

D) producers

E) All answers given are correct.

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction

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Q1) If a cell stops at the G1 checkpoint,this is most likely due to what problem?

A) There is DNA damage.

B) The DNA has not finished replicating.

C) The chromosomes are not aligned properly.

D) The cell is cancerous.

E) There is no problem. The cell normally stops at the G1 checkpoint.

Q2) Inheritance of mutant forms of some genes may lead to a predisposition to develop cancer.Which of the genes listed below has not been linked to hereditary forms of cancer?

A) BRCA-1

B) RB

C) RET

D) ras

E) DScam

Q3) A positive genetic test for telomerase indicates that

A) RB is inactive.

B) a cell is undergoing apoptosis.

C) proto-oncogenes have not yet mutated.

D) a cell is probably cancerous.

E) tumor suppressors are active.

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Chapter 9: Meiosis and the Genetic Basis of Sexual

Reproduction

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Sample Questions

Q1) During prophase I,a diploid organism contains how many copies of each gene?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 8

Q2) You are looking at a cell under the microscope,and see what appears to be several "X" structures being pulled to each side of the cell.What stage of meiosis are you looking at?

A) anaphase I

B) prophase I

C) prophase II

D) metaphase I

E) anaphase II

Q3) The failure of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis is called

A) synapsis.

B) crossing-over.

C) tetrad formation.

D) disjunction.

E) nondisjunction.

Page 11

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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance

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Q1) What are all possible gametes that can be produced by an individual with the following genotype,FFGg?

A) Fg, FG

B) FF

C) Fg

D) FG, Fg, fG, fg

E) Fg, fG

Q2) In a one-trait test cross,the phenotype that disappears in the F1 generation is the A) dominant trait.

B) negative trait.

C) recessive trait.

D) heterozygote.

E) homozygote.

Q3) A heterozygote for a trait exhibiting incomplete dominance will

A) express the dominant trait.

B) express the recessive trait.

C) exhibit an intermediate phenotype.

D) express both alleles.

E) exhibit an intermediate genotype.

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Page 12

Chapter 11: DNA Biology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Prokaryotes regulate gene expression with a promoter.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the DNA sequences shown in the figure is/are bound by a regulatory protein?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 1 and 4

E) 2 and 3

Q3) A defect in DNA ligase would most likely cause

A) normal replication, but gaps remain in the sugar-phosphate DNA backbone.

B) failure to remove introns from the primary mRNA.

C) incompletely processed primary mRNA that does not get translated properly.

D) translation to initiate normally, but fail to proceed to elongation.

E) DNA strands to separate normally, but fail to join nucleotides in the growing nucleotide chain.

Q4) mRNA must be processed in the cytoplasm before being used in protein synthesis.

A)True

B)False

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Biotechnology and Genomics

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Q1) When DNA fingerprinting is performed,why might an individual possess two different numbers of repeats for the same chromosomal region?

A) Intergenic DNA may vary from one cell to another in the same individual.

B) The individual has different numbers of the same repeated sequence on each homologous chromosome.

C) The sample is contaminated with the DNA of another individual.

D) Each sister chromatid of a chromosome may contain different numbers of repeats.

E) It is not possible for this to occur.

Q2) During recombinant DNA technology what structure acts as a carrier for the foreign DNA?

A) vector

B) restriction enzyme

C) DNA ligase

D) polymerase chain reaction

E) DNA helicase

Q3) Transgenic plants may have genes from animals inserted into their DNA.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Genetic Counseling

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Q1) Mutations are uncommon because

A) DNA repair enzymes often repair errors.

B) physical mutagens such as X-rays seldom damage DNA.

C) DNA is able to repair itself over time.

D) frameshift mutations occur very frequently.

E) transposons are constantly moving throughout the genome.

Q2) You are a genetic counselor,and a man with the translocation shown in the figure is your client.He and his partner (who has a normal karyotype)wish to have children.You explain to him that the probability of having a child with an unbalanced translocation is

A) 0%.

B) 25%.

C) 50%.

D) 75%.

E) 100%.

Q3) Mutations within genes always result in non-functional proteins.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Darwin and Evolution

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Q1) The molecule cytochrome c supports the theory of evolution as biochemical evidence.Which of the following is not part of that evidence?

A) Cytochrome c has evolved multiple times among many species.

B) Cytochrome c has the same function in all organisms.

C) The genetic code for cytochrome c differs among species.

D) Cytochrome c is found in a variety of organisms from yeast to humans.

E) Cytochrome c plays a role critical to survival.

Q2) Environmental catastrophes are a requirement of natural selection. A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a step in the process of natural selection?

A) members of a population possess heritable variations

B) the population produces more offspring than the environment can support

C) individuals who have favorable traits survive and reproduce more than those individuals lacking such traits

D) people select which individuals breed and which ones do not

E) over multiple generations of reproducing, a larger proportion of the population will have those favorable traits and thus adaptation has occurred

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Chapter 15: Evolution on a Small Scale

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Q1) What characteristic do a bottleneck and a founder effect have in common?

A) Both encounter a population crash.

B) Both involve a portion of a population becoming isolated.

C) Both involve a decrease in a population's genetic diversity.

D) Both affect the entire population.

E) Both are a type of natural selection.

Q2) A group of field mice cross a highway and join a new population of field mice on the other side,producing offspring with this population.This is an example of A) gene flow.

B) genetic drift.

C) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

D) assortive mating.

Q3) The usage of the insecticide DDT to control mosquitos resulted in

A) directional selection to insecticide resistance in the insects.

B) stabilizing selection to insecticide resistance in the insects.

C) disruptive selection to insecticide resistance in the insects.

D) genetic drift to insecticide resistance in the insects.

E) no change in the insect population.

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Chapter 16: Evolution on a Large Scale

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Q1) Which of the following is not a prezygotic isolating mechanism for two species found in the same geographical location?

A) The two species occupy different habitats.

B) The two species are active during different parts of the day.

C) The two species mate during different times of the year.

D) The two species have incompatible genitalia.

E) The two species can mate, but the offspring are sterile.

Q2) In the figure shown here,the letter W represents which of the following?

A) the common ancestor for Y and Z

B) the common ancestor for U

C) the ancestor for Z

D) the common ancestor for X and Y

E) the common ancestor for X, Y, and Z

Q3) The gradualistic model of speciation is supported by many transitional forms.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Shared derived traits are found in all members of the ingroup of a clade.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: The Microorganisms: Viruses, bacteria, and Protists

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Q1) Cell-like structures that may have resulted from macromolecular self-assembly are referred to as

A) prokaryotes.

B) protocells.

C) protoypes.

D) archaea.

E) protists.

Q2) A viroid is a naked,infectious _____ molecule.

A) protein

B) DNA

C) RNA

D) fatty acid

E) enzyme

Q3) Retroviruses

A) contain DNA.

B) contain reverse transcriptase.

C) produce RNA from DNA.

D) only invade plants.

E) produce protein directly from DNA.

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Land Environment: Plants and Fungi

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Q1) Which group of organisms is being attacked by Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis,a parasitic chytrid that causes a cutaneous infection called chytridiomycosis?

A) amphibians

B) bats

C) humans

D) rice

E) corn

Q2) What is the function of the fungal fruiting body?

A) to produce spores

B) to produce fruits that attract predators

C) to help run photosynthesis

D) to decompose organic matter

E) to assist in fungal movement

Q3) Which structure is the style?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

E) E

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Both Water and Land: Animals

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Q1) Which of these has the necessary adaptations to survive in a dry land environment?

A) insect

B) lobe-finned fish

C) amphibian

D) planarian

E) tunicate

Q2) Which is not a typical adult amphibian characteristic?

A) eyelids

B) jaws

C) jointed limbs

D) lungs

E) four-chambered heart

Q3) Which are invertebrate chordates?

A) tunicates only

B) lancelets only

C) jawless fishes only

D) tunicates and lancelets but not jawless fishes

E) tunicates, lancelets, and jawless fishes

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Chapter 20: Plant Anatomy and Growth

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Q1) A monocot root differs from a eudicot root because a monocot root

A) lacks an organized pith.

B) contains xylem and phloem organized in ring around the pith.

C) does not contain pericycle.

D) lacks a functional endodermis.

E) contains a cortex that is inside of the endoderm.

Q2) Cohesion and adhesion of water molecules produces a force sufficient to move water from the roots to the shoot tip of a plant.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In the figure shown here,water evaporates from structure _____ and exits the leaf through structure _____.

A) 1; 5

B) 4; 5

C) 3; 5

D) 4; 3

E) 3; 1

Q4) Eudicot roots may experience secondary growth.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 21: Plant Responses and Reproduction

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Q1) You wish to change the growth pattern of the shrubs in your yard to give them a fuller,more bushy appearance.This could be accomplished by

A) pruning the shoot tip.

B) pruning the lateral buds.

C) pruning the lateral buds and applying gibberellins.

D) applying auxin to the roots.

E) pruning the shoot tip and applying auxin to the shoot.

Q2) An incomplete flower may lack a carpel.

A)True

B)False

Q3) During germination,which cellular structure will exhibit positive gravitrophism and grow downward?

A) Embryonic root

B) Embryonic shoot

C) Cotyledon

D) Shoot

E) Seed nucleus

Q4) The application of abscisic acid to a plant may prevent fruit maturation.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 22: Being Organized and Steady

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Q1) Blood is classified as connective tissue because of its fluid matrix called plasma.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of squamous epithelium?

A) lining or covering tissue

B) cube-shaped cells

C) flattened cells

D) adhere to one another

E) may be found in multiple layers

Q3) A possible location,in the body,for the tissues in sample one is the A) kidneys.

B) intestines.

C) brain.

D) skin.

E) trachea.

Q4) Ligaments are made up of loose fibrous connective tissue.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 23: The Transport Systems

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Q1) In order for cells in multicellular organisms to exchange gases,a circulatory system must be present.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In an open circulatory system

A) hemolymph enters the heart via ostia.

B) blood leaves the heart via venules.

C) the heart has two or more chambers.

D) nutrients are exchanged across the walls of capillaries.

E) blood is pumped into cavities called ventricles.

Q3) For which of the following is iron required?

A) It stimulates formation of lymph.

B) It forms part of hemoglobin which transports oxygen.

C) It prevents destruction of red blood cells.

D) It prevents plaque formation in arteries.

E) It forms part of white blood cells.

Q4) A leak in a blood vessel is closed first by platelets and then by fibrin threads.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 24: The Maintenance Systems

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Q1) The mechanism by which oxygen moves into capillaries from alveoli is

A) active transport.

B) facilitated transport.

C) diffusion.

D) osmosis.

E) secondary active transport.

Q2) If the stomach lining lacks mucus it will not efficiently absorb nutrients and can result in

A) a bolus.

B) acid reflux.

C) heartburn.

D) an ulcer.

E) chyme.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

A) produces plasma proteins such as fibrin and fibrinogen

B) detoxifies the blood by removing poisonous substances

C) produces insulin and glucagon

D) produces bile

E) produces urea from amino acids

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Chapter 25: Human Nutrition

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Q1) What criteria is used to distinguish between an empty-calorie food and a junk food?

A) Empty-calorie food have a high sugar to vitamin ratio.

B) Empty-calorie food have a low sugar to vitamin ratio.

C) Empty-calorie foods have no calories in them at all.

D) Empty calorie foods are made completely from artificial ingredients.

E) Junk foods have a higher vitamins to sugar ratio than empty-calorie foods.

Q2) Bleeding gums and easy bruising of skin is a symptom of a(n)

A)deficiency disorder involving vitamin D.

B)eating disorder involving the intake of too few calories.

C)deficiency disorder involving lipids.

D)deficiency disorder involving vitamin C.

E)deficiency disorder involving potassium

Q3) A person's total daily intake of water must be obtained through drinking liquids.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Essential amino acids are obtained only from animal proteins.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 26: Defenses Against Disease

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Q1) When a person is hypersensitive to pollen,they have ________ in response to the antigens on pollen called

A) autoimmune disease; cytokines.

B) immunity; allergens.

C) an allergy; allergens.

D) an allergy; IgG.

E) immunity; antibodies.

Q2) T lymphocytes

A) migrate from the thymus to the bone marrow where they mature.

B) which recognize "self-cells" leave the thymus and enter lymphatic vessels and organs.

C) must have the antigen presented to them by an antigen presenting cell.

D) develop into plasma cells once activated.

E) are a component of the bodies nonspecific immune defenses.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune disease?

A) myasthenia gravis

B) rheumatoid arthritis

C) multiple sclerosis

D) systemic lupus erythematosus

E) tuberculosis

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Page 28

Chapter 27: The Control Systems

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Q1) If an individual's pituitary gland does not produce adequate adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH),then _________ will result.

A) Cushing syndrome

B) exopthalmos

C) Graves disease

D) Addison disease

E) diabetes mellitus

Q2) Weight gain,diabetes mellitus,and a moon-shaped face indicate

A) Addison disease.

B) Graves disease.

C) simple goiter.

D) pituitary dwarfism.

E) Cushing syndrome.

Q3) Which two hormones are produced by the adrenal medulla?

A) aldosterone and cortisol

B) acetylcholine and norepinephrine

C) luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone

D) antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin

E) epinephrine and norepinephrine

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Page 29

Chapter 28: Sensory Input and Motor Output

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Q1) In a sarcomere,thick filaments are composed of _____ and thin filaments of

A) actin; myosin

B) sarcoplasm; actin

C) myosin; actin

D) Z lines; T tubules

E) myosin; sarcolemma

Q2) Which statement correctly describes the structure of a compound eye?

A) composed of many independent visual units, each of which possesses a lens to focus light rays on photoreceptors

B) composed of a single visual unit that will possess a lens to focus light rays on photoreceptors

C) composed of many independent visual units that will collectively focus light rays on a single photoreceptor

D) composed of many independent visual units, each of which possesses a lens to focus light rays on a single photoreceptor

E) composed of single visual unit that will possess a lens to focus light rays on a single photoreceptor

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Chapter 29: Reproduction and Embryonic Development

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Q1) Which of these is not part of the female reproductive system?

A) oviduct

B) uterus

C) vagina

D) vas deferens

E) ovary

Q2) Which list contains the correct sequence of structures a sperm nucleus must penetrate in order to fertilize an egg?

A) egg plasma membrane\(\rarr\)follicle cells\(\rarr\)zona pellucida

B) follicle cells\(\rarr\)egg plasma membrane\(\rarr\)zona pellucida

C) follicle cells\(\rarr\)zona pellucida\(\rarr\)egg plasma membrane

D) egg plasma membrane\(\rarr\)zona pellucida\(\rarr\)follicle cells

E) zona pellucida\(\rarr\)follicle cells\(\rarr\)egg plasma membrane

Q3) The inner lining of the uterus is the

A) cervix.

B) endometrium.

C) placenta.

D) fimbria.

E) chorion.

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Page 31

Chapter 30: Ecology and Populations

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58 Verified Questions

58 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64358

Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following are true about human population growth EXCEPT

A) the majority of the world's human population live in Asia.

B) the black plague resulted in a decreased growth rate in the 1300s.

C) changes during the Industrial Revolution lead to a steep rise in the human population.

D) we will reach the Earth's carrying capacity within the next 20 years.

E) human population densities tend to be highest along the coasts.

Q2) During a recent hurricane,25 individuals of the same butterfly species were blown onto a barrier island in southern Florida.When the butterflies first arrived on the island they did not have to compete for access to food or space.In addition,there were few natural predators such as wasps and birds which were common on the mainland.As a result,the island population will have a __________ biotic potential compared to the mainland population.

A) higher

B) lower

C) similar

D) reduced

E) stable

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Chapter 31: Communities and Ecosystems

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56 Verified Questions

56 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64357

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following would be considered an example of competition?

A) Some species of crabs decorate their shells with sea anemones and other corals. These "decorations" help camouflage the crab and the movement of the crab from one area to the next exposes the corals and anemones to different sources of food.

B) Some spiders do not build webs, but live in the web of another species. When a prey item is caught in the web, the non-web building spider will sneak in and steal the prey.

C) A praying mantis hunting and eating a fly is an example.

D) The longest tapeworm removed from a human was approximately 11 meters long. Tapeworms do not have a digestive system, but obtains all of their nutrients from the host.

E) Pseudoscorpions are small, harmless arachnids. To move from one place to another, they will sometimes latch onto the legs of flies and thus be carried long distances that they would not readily be able to traverse.

Q2) On average,90% of biomass is transferred from one trophic level to the next.

A)True

B)False

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33

Chapter 32: Human Impact on the Biosphere

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63 Verified Questions

63 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following methods may help conserve water by reducing the amount used for agriculture?

A) polyculture

B) construction of dams for irrigation needs

C) biological pest control

D) contour with no-till farming

E) reducing pesticide and fertilizer usage

Q2) An accumulation of salts due to evaporation of irrigation water is called

A) salinization.

B) desalinization.

C) desertification.

D) forestation.

E) sedimentation.

Q3) Which of the following is/are suspected of causing climate change?

A) fossil fuel usage, deforestation, and agriculture

B) overfishing and hydropower usage

C) fossil fuel and hydropower usage

D) salinization and desertification

E) erosion, deforestation, pollution, and salinization

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Page 34

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