Principles of Biology
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Course Introduction
Principles of Biology introduces foundational concepts in the biological sciences, exploring the structure and function of living organisms, cellular processes, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Through lectures and laboratory exercises, students examine the scientific method, biochemical mechanisms, energy transformations, and the relationships between organisms and their environments. This course lays the groundwork for advanced studies in biology and related fields, emphasizing critical thinking and the application of biological principles to real-world problems.
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Biology Now 1st Edition by Anne Houtman
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science
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Q1) Is it possible for scientists to study events that happened or animals/plants that lived millions of years ago?
A)Yes. Apply the laws of physics and nature that we know exist today to evaluate the evidence of past events. For example, observe modern animal behavior, structure, and function, and compare them to the structures of fossilized animals to deduce the function of the fossilized structures.
B)No. The laws of physics that exist today are not the same laws of physics that existed in the past, so there is no way to compare plant or animal fossils to those of modern organisms and deduce the function of fossilized structures.
C)Yes. Genetic manipulation of fossils allows scientists to directly test metabolic and behavioral characteristics of plants and animals from the past.
D)No. There is no way to analyze plant or animal fossils that lived millions of years ago because the laws of nature that exist today have changed dramatically from the past. Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Q1) During a study session, a Biology classmate holds up a bottle of water and mentions that there are both hydrogen bonds and covalent bonds found within the liquid. Explain your classmate's statement by describing the types of bonds that are found within your bottle of water.
Answer: Your classmate is correct in his or her assessment of the bonds in the water. Within a water molecule, the hydrogen and oxygen atoms are held together by covalent bonds. Hydrogen bonds attract neighboring water molecules due to partial positive and partial negative charges on the hydrogen and oxygen atoms, respectively.
Q2) An acid is a polar substance that dissolves in water and A)becomes nonpolar.
B)leaves behind an OH- ion.
C)accepts hydrogen ions from the solution.
D)donates hydrogen ions to the solution.
Answer: D
Q3) An instrument that identifies chemicals based upon their weights is the ________. Answer: mass spectrometer
Q4) The positively charged subatomic particle is located in the ________.
Answer: nucleus
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Chapter 3: Life Is Cellular
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Q1) Which of the following types of organisms are commonly single-celled (unicellular)?
A)bacteria, some fungi (yeast), and many protozoans
B)many fungi, some protozoans, and plants
C)plants and animals
D)many fungi, plants, and animals
Answer: A
Q2) mitochondrion
A)photosynthesis
B)regulate what moves in and out of cell
C)structure and support for cell
D)lipid synthesis
E)tags proteins for movement
F)enzymatic breakdown of large molecules
G)protein synthesis
H)cellular respiration
I)water and solute storage
J)location of DNA
K)internal organization and structural support
Answer: H
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Chapter 4: How Cells Work
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Q1) Humans store sugars in the form of glycogen. Glycogen is made by linking many glucose molecules together. This process is ________.
Q2) Cells contain the molecule GTP (guanosine triphosphate). Would this molecule be useful as an energy carrier (similar to ATP)?
A)No, because it does not contain the adenosine necessary for storing energy.
B)No, because it contains fewer phosphates than ATP.
C)Yes, because it contains a nitrogenous base just like ATP.
D)Yes, because it contains the same number of phosphates as does ATP.
Q3) Two students are discussing the importance of glycolysis in human cells. One student states that the main function of glycolysis is to produce ATP. The other states that the main function is to produce NADH. Which student is correct?
Q4) The ________ of an enzyme is an area with a specialized shape and/or set of chemical properties that allows the enzyme to bind with a particular substrate.
Q5) produces light energy
Q6) A mutation in a plant cell produces rubisco enzymes, which can only bind O (and not CO ). What would be the outcome of this mutation?
Q7) produces carbon dioxide
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Chapter 5: Cell Division
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Q1) Which of the following is known to result from the disruption of mitosis and meiosis?
A)Alzheimer's disease
B)prostate cancer
C)autism
D)heart disease
Q2) Which of the following is true of the chromosomes in a homologous pair?
A)They both came from the organism's mother.
B)They both came from the organism's father.
C)They do not join together during meiosis.
D)They carry the same genes.
Q3) Which of the following choices states a correct reason why the process of cell division is different for prokaryotic than for eukaryotic cells?
A)Prokaryotes have a circular DNA molecule.
B)Prokaryotic cells do not undergo cell division.
C)Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.
D)Prokaryotic DNA contains different bases from those in eukaryotic DNA.
Q4) In the space provided below, diagram the major events of the cell cycle. Describe the processes that occur during each of these major stages.
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Chapter 6: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Which of the following did Gregor Mendel notice in garden peas?
A)Some plants always produced offspring with flowers that were the same color as the parent plant's flowers.
B)The first generation from a genetic cross of true-breeding plants always produced offspring that were intermediate in their phenotype and did not look like either parent.
C)Garden peas always produce a variety of phenotypes in their offspring, which result from frequent mutations.
D)Any individual pea plant carries at least three different alleles for flower color.
Q2) The observable physical characteristics of an organism are known as its ________.
Q3) A chestnut-colored horse is mated with a cremello (cream-colored) horse. Over a 10-year period, all of their offspring are palominos. This pattern of inheritance is best explained by
A)complete dominance.
B)incomplete dominance.
C)multiple gene effects.
D)environmental effects on genes.
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Chapter 7: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype
A)Aa.
B)AA.
C)aa.
D)XAXa.
Q2) Both members of a couple are carriers for a recessive disease allele. If the couple has four children, which of the following statements must be true?
A)One of the children has the disease.
B)Two of the children have the disease.
C)All of the male children have the disease.
D)Fifty percent of the children could be carriers of the disease.
Q3) In a karyotype of a male, which of the following would indicate an abnormality?
A)one X chromosome and one Y chromosome
B)three copies of chromosome 22
C)22 pairs of autosomes
D)a total of 46 chromosomes
Q4) Human males have one chromosome that females do not, known as the ________ chromosome.
Q5) An allele that "hides" in heterozygous carriers is called a ________ allele.
Q6) Why are dominant genetic disorders more rare than recessive disorders?
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Chapter 8: What Genes Are
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Q1) This is the largest.
A)gene
B)base
C)nucleotide
D)genome
E)base pair
Q2) A protein binds to the outside of a DNA strand. This protein does NOT likely bind to the ________ of the DNA nucleotides.
Q3) DNA fingerprinting is based on regions of DNA that are variable between individuals. Many of these differences between individuals produce no change in phenotype. This type of mutation is a(n)
A)deletion.
B)insertion.
C)silent mutation.
D)substitution mutation.
Q4) When studying genomes of organisms, scientists often will only list the sequence of a single strand. Explain why the sequence of the second strand would be unnecessary information.
Q5) The enzyme that copies DNA is called ________.
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Chapter 9: How Genes Work
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Q1) What makes liver cells different from heart cells of the same organism?
A)These cell types have different genes.
B)These cell types express different genes.
C)These cell types have a different DNA sequence.
D)These cell types mutated from a stem cell to produce new cell types.
Q2) The information in a gene is encoded by the
A)introns of eukaryotic cells.
B)amino acids that make up the genes.
C)base sequences of the gene's DNA.
D)rRNA that transfers amino acids to ribosomes.
Q3) Prokaryotes lack membrane-enclosed organelles and thus do not have nuclei. Therefore,
A)prokaryotes are unable to undergo transcription and translation.
B)prokaryotic cells do not need to undergo translation.
C)prokaryotic cells do not need to undergo transcription.
D)prokaryotic transcription and translation both take place in the cytoplasm.
Q4) If a molecule of mRNA is a sentence, its bases are the letters and the codons are the ________.
Q5) The process of using an RNA template to make proteins is called ________.
Q6) The genetic code is ________, which means that all cells use the same code.
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Chapter 10: Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) The genus Lycopodium includes plants that evolved before the breakup of Pangaea. The genus Sequoiadendron (Sequoia trees) evolved after Pangaea split into separate landmasses. Which genus would you expect to have the widest distribution of living representatives across the modern continents?
A)Lycopodium
B)Sequoiadendron
C)Both should be equally distributed.
D)Both should be extinct.
Q2) The fossil record
A)proves that all known species of organisms appeared at the same time. B)contains strong evidence that major new groups of organisms arose from previously existing organisms.
C)indicates that humans date back as far as the first indications of life.
D)has often been artificially created by evolutionary biologists.
Q3) Dogs have vestigial digits called dewclaws. Describe the most likely origin of these structures.
Q4) A friend states that, "evolution is just a theory because it does not have supporting evidence." Evaluate this statement, including a list of the types of evidence used in drawing your conclusion.
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Chapter 11: Mechanisms of Evolution
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Q1) Evaluate the accuracy of the following statement: The natural selection of a prey species can be altered if a new predator is introduced. Explain how you reached your conclusion.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT likely to be a cause of rapid evolution in a population?
A)a changing environment
B)an organism that exhibits a rapid rate of mutation
C)an organism that reproduces very slowly
D)the immigration of individuals carrying a new allele that significantly increases reproductive success
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a mode of natural selection?
A)directional selection
B)disruptive selection
C)dormant selection
D)stabilizing selection
Q4) Two different species may have similar features because of
A)genetic drift.
B)the founder effect.
C)a bottleneck.
D)descent from a common ancestor.
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Chapter 12: Adaptation and Species
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Q1) an organism's physical characteristics
A)coevolution
B)biological species concept
C)morphological species concept
D)speciation
E)morphology
F)adaptation
Q2) The red-breasted nuthatch and the white-breasted nuthatch are similar in appearance and, in many regions of the United States, their ranges overlap. The two organisms do not interbreed. Based on this information, red-breasted and white-breasted nuthatches are
A)different species.
B)different populations of the same species.
C)hybrids.
D)polyploids.
Q3) Close ecological interactions between two different species may lead to
A)allopatric speciation.
B)sympatric speciation.
C)coevolution.
D)geographic isolation.
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Chapter 13: The History of Life
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Q1) About 540 mya, there was an astonishing burst of evolutionary activity that correlated to the first appearance in the fossil record of most of the major living animal groups. Popularly known as the ________, this geologic time changed the face of life on Earth.
Q2) The following numbered sets each represent a distinct group of organisms: (1) three toes per foot, feathers, cold-blooded, no finger adaptations
(2) three toes per foot, body hair, warm-blooded, opposable thumbs
(3) three toes per foot, feathers, warm-blooded, no finger adaptation
(4) three toes per foot, body hair, warm-blooded, no finger adaptations
Which of the following choices is the most likely to represent the order in which these groups would appear on an evolutionary tree, from oldest to youngest?
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)4, 2, 3, 1
C)1, 3, 4, 2
D)2, 1, 4, 3
Q3) In an evolutionary tree, a given ancestor and all its descendants make up a ________, or branch.
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Chapter 14: Human Evolution
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Q1) Order
A)Homo
B)Primates
C)Chordata
D)Homo sapiens
E)Mammalia
F)Animalia
G)Hominidae
Q2) The development of upright posture in hominins is likely
A)an adaptation for living on the ground instead of in the trees.
B)an adaptation for living on land instead of on the water.
C)an adaptation for no longer needing to carry tools.
D)an adaptation for having no functional knees.
Q3) Sperm provide
A)both nuclear and mitochondrial DNA to the offspring cell.
B)only nuclear DNA to the offspring cell.
C)only mitochondrial DNA to the offspring cell.
D)no DNA to the offspring cell.
Q4) What evidence would support the hypothesis that a male Homo sapiens mated with a female Homo neanderthalensis and produced offspring?
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Chapter 15: General Principles of Ecology
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Q1) An increase in average temperatures worldwide is called
A)climate change.
B)global warming.
C)the greenhouse effect.
D)weather pattern shift.
Q2) The levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
A)peaked around 1950 and have begun slowly decreasing since then.
B)are high but not higher than the highest estimated levels in the last 420,000 years.
C)are estimated to be higher than at any time in the past 420,000 years.
D)began decreasing when the burning of fossil fuels increased.
Q3) What causes the movement of warm air at the equator?
A)Warm air is less dense than cool air.
B)Warm air is denser than cool air.
C)Warm air is able to hold less water than cool air.
D)Warm air is able to hold more water than cool air.
Q4) Scientists predict that current increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations will cause temperatures on Earth to rise, a phenomenon known as
Q5) Describe how a decrease in plant populations can affect the water cycle.
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Chapter 16: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Studies of the population-size cycles seen between the snowshoe hare and the Canadian lynx showed that
A)lynx populations decrease in size when hare populations increase in size.
B)lynx populations increase in size when hare populations decrease in size.
C)lynx populations decrease in size when hare populations decrease in size.
D)There is no relationship between population sizes of snowshoe hare and Canadian lynx.
Q2) The term population density describes the A)body size of different species.
B)number of individuals per unit area.
C)number of populations per unit area.
D)number of species per unit area.
Q3) Which of the following populations would be most vulnerable to an outbreak of disease?
A)10 grasshoppers living in an area of 100 square meters
B)100 rabbits living in an area of 10,000 square meters
C)200 sparrows living in an area of 20,000 square meters
D)250,000 people living in an area of 100,000 square meters
Q4) If there are 100 people living in a 2-square-kilometer area, the population density is ________ people per square kilometer.
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Chapter 17: Communities of Organisms
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Q1) Every healthy human digestive system is home to countless microorganisms. In a normal digestive system, what type of relationship would you say this is?
A)parasitic
B)pathological
C)competitive
D)mutualistic
Q2) The relationship between house pets and people would be best described as A)parasitic.
B)mutualistic.
C)predatorial.
D)competitive.
Q3) A community whose species are NOT replaced by other species is classified as a ________ community.
Q4) The total number of different species living within a community is referred to as A)an ecological community.
B)species richness.
C)relative species abundance.
D)keystone species.
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Chapter 18: Ecosystems
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Q1) You are relaxing on an island beach enjoying the warm air and sunshine when you notice the striking pure blue color of the water in the deep crater of the island's bay. The water in the surrounding ocean is more of a green color. Which of the following is a logical hypothesis?
A)The water in the bay has a low level of phytoplankton while there is a higher concentration of phytoplankton in the surrounding ocean.
B)The water in the bay has a high level of phytoplankton while there is a lower concentration of phytoplankton in the surrounding ocean.
C)The concentration of phytoplankton in the bay and the surrounding ocean is the same, and it is very high.
D)The concentration of phytoplankton in the bay and the surrounding ocean is the same and is almost zero.
Q2) Almost all life on Earth is directly or indirectly dependent on A)solar energy.
B)predation.
C)physical productivity.
D)human civilization.
Q3) Explain why ecosystems do not always have sharply defined physical boundaries.
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Chapter 19: Homeostasis, Reproduction, and Development
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Q1) Disruptions to the development of a zygote can happen at any time during pregnancy. Which of the following would be the most vulnerable time period in the development of a zygote/fetus/embryo?
A)the first week
B)the twentieth week
C)the thirtieth week
D)the fortieth week
Q2) In the last few weeks of pregnancy, the level of estrogen in the woman's blood rises. This increase causes
A)the fetus to develop more rapidly.
B)the amount of prostaglandins secreted by the placenta to decrease.
C)the muscles of the uterus to become more sensitive to the hormone oxytocin.
D)even more estrogen to be released from the pituitary gland.
Q3) In humans, the average time period for development from zygote to completion is ________ weeks.
Q4) The contraceptive method that seals the female oviduct is
A)the intrauterine device.
B)female sterilization.
C)the diaphragm.
D)the female condom.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Digestive, Muscular, and Skeletal Systems
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Q1) Babies may receive an injection of vitamin K at birth. Which of the following is the most likely reason why an injection of vitamin K would be given?
A)Vitamin K is required for calcium absorption, and babies need to build strong bones.
B)Vitamin K is required to prevent bleeding, and babies are born with low levels of this vitamin.
C)Vitamin K is required for the formation of visual pigments in the eyes, and babies use their eyes more often than their other senses.
D)Vitamin K is required to build cell membranes, and babies are growing rapidly.
Q2) If you were a bird about to embark on a long migratory journey, which of the following nutrients would you want to have stored in large quantities?
A)sugars
B)proteins
C)vitamins
D)fats
Q3) Explain why dietary fiber is important in a human's diet.
Q4) ________ are the contractile units within muscle fibers.
Q5) The ________ supplies digestive enzymes and bicarbonate to the small intestine.
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Chapter 21: Circulatory, Respiratory, Urinary, and Nervous Systems
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Q1) Another name for the "pacemaker" of the heart is the A)atrioventricular (AV) node.
B)sinoatrial (SA) node.
C)atrium.
D)ventricle.
Q2) In cystic fibrosis, parts of the respiratory tract can become clogged with mucus, inhibiting gas exchange. The area(s) of the respiratory tract where gases are directly exchanged is/are the A)alveoli.
B)bronchi.
C)diaphragm.
D)trachea.
Q3) Receptors in the eye that provide vision are called ________.
Q4) At high altitudes, gases are less concentrated. You might gasp for air, because A)the surface area of your lungs will be decreased.
B)the amount of hemoglobin in your blood will decrease.
C)hemoglobin will not be able to bind to oxygen as well at a higher altitude.
D)the amount of oxygen that could diffuse into your blood will be decreased.
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Q5) When the ________ of the heart contracts, blood is pumped into the systemic circuit.
Chapter 22: Endocrine and Immune Systems
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Q1) In hormonal signaling, are target cells typically close to or far away from endocrine cells? Explain your answer.
Q2) When a doctor performs a Mantaux skin test to determine whether a patient has tuberculosis (TB), she exposes the patient to small amounts of protein from the microorganism that causes TB. The doctor reads the reaction to these proteins a few days later. If the patient has had previous TB antigen exposure (and infection), he or she will develop localized swelling at the site where the proteins were injected. The presence of swelling and the amount of swelling are observed and measured to determine whether the test is positive. Explain why this test measures a secondary (versus primary) exposure to antigens. Which aspects of this test demonstrate secondary exposure?
Q3) Which of the following prevents both blood loss and the invasion of pathogens in vertebrates?
A)the formation of blood clots
B)phagocytosis
C)humoral immunity
D)cell-mediated immunity
Q4) The ________ are components of the immune system's third line of defense that secrete antibodies.
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Chapter 23: Plant Physiology
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Q1) In a leaf, why is having the ground tissue - rather than the vascular tissue - directly under the dermal tissue a better strategy?
Q2) Which of the following plant types undergoes secondary growth?
A)both trees and grasses
B)trees but not grasses
C)grasses but not trees
D)neither trees nor grasses
Q3) Fertilizers generally have three numbers on the label (for example, 20:10:20). These numbers refer to the three most essential plant nutrients, which are
A)nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium.
B)nitrogen, calcium, and magnesium.
C)oxygen, hydrogen, and calcium.
D)potassium, phosphorus, and iron.
Q4) Copper is an example of
A)a toxin produced by plants.
B)a hormone produced by plants.
C)a macronutrient needed by plants.
D)a micronutrient needed by plants.
Q5) A plant's physiological response to day length is called ________.
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Chapter 24: Applying the Science
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the process of science is NOT accurate?
A)Science is a systematic method of procedures designed to answer questions by evaluating empirical evidence.
B)Science attempts to solve a problem by systematically evaluating the plausibility of various solutions.
C)Science enables us to advance our understanding of evidence and data collected.
D)Science can answer all questions regarding the human experience and personal values.
Q2) You search the Internet for information regarding the use of a particular herbal supplement because you have heard claims that it will help you safely build muscle while losing fat. During your search you come across a site that claims to have evidence to support those claims. What questions should you ask as you peruse the site?
Q3) The Proceedings of the 15 Annual Meeting of the Society for Integrative and Comparative Biology, a publication of peer-reviewed presentations at a professional meeting
A)primary
B)secondary
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