
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Principles of Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts of biological science. The course explores the structure and function of living organisms, principles of genetics and evolution, cellular processes, energy flow, and ecological interactions. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, experimental design, and the relevance of biology to real-world issues. Through lectures, labs, and interactive activities, students develop an understanding of biology as a dynamic and integrative science, laying a foundation for advanced study in the life sciences.
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Human Heredity Principles and Issues 11th Edition by Michael Cummings
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Q1) The main purpose of preparing karyotypes is to ____.
A) prepare for gene extractions
B) determine gender
C) determine which genes are on which chromosomes
D) separate DNA into its component parts
E) diagnose or rule out certain genetic disorders
Answer: E
Q2) What is an example of basic research?
A) Developing a new diagnostic test
B) Synthesizing proteins for treating disease
C) Manufacturing a vaccine
D) Developing a new drug to treat diabetes
E) Learning how plants turn carbon dioxide into sugar
Answer: E
Q3) Genes are precisely copied during the process of DNA replication and never undergo any change.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Identical gene loci are located on ____________________.
Answer: homologous chromosomes homologues
Q2) All cells are fundamentally similar at a structural level.Using the accompanying diagram of a generalized human cell,name as many of the numbered labels as you can to illustrate this idea.
Answer: All cells have a plasma membrane,cytoplasm,membranous organelles,and a membrane-bound nucleus (see labeling below).All cells' shapes,internal organizations,and functions are under genetic control.
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Q3) During meiosis in an organism where 2n = 8,how many chromatids will be present in a cell at the beginning of meiosis II?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 12
Answer: D
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Q1) Mendel called crosses involving two traits ____________________ crosses. Answer: dihybrid
Q2) Pedigree construction can be a difficult task.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) An example of ____________________ occurs in a rare condition called the Bombay phenotype,where a mutation in an unrelated gene prevents expression of the A and B blood phenotypes,making those with this condition phenotypically blood type
Answer: epistasis; O
Q4) People with albinism carry two copies of the dominant allele (AA)and cannot make a pigment called melanin. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) The first affected family member who seeks medical attention for a genetic disorder is called the ____________________. Answer: proband
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Q1) If a man expresses an X-linked recessive trait,his ____________________ was either homozygous or heterozygous for the trait.
Q2) The probability that a disease phenotype will appear when a disease-related genotype is present is called ____________________.
Q3) Individuals with Marfan syndrome experience an eyesight problem called ____________________.
Q4) Explain why color-blindness is much more common in males than in females.
Q5) If a pedigree analysis suggests that an autosomal or X-linked inheritance pattern is equally likely,then additional genetic testing is needed to identify the pattern of inheritance.
A)True B)False
Q6) The basic method of genetic analysis in humans requires a(n)____________________ of several generations.
Q7) Identify the pattern of Mendelian inheritance represented in the pedigree above and explain how you made this determination.
Q8) A marriage between two related individuals,such as first cousins,is called ____________________.
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Q1) During interaction between genes and environment,the phenotype ____. A) changes the genotype
B) is expressed as discontinuous variation C) is variable and undergoes continuous change throughout the life of the organism D) can be quantitatively subdivided into genotypic and environmental components E) cannot vary
Q2) The hormone leptin is produced by ____________________ cells.
Q3) Describe the breeding program initiated by King Frederick William of Prussia in the early 1700s to supply tall soldiers to the Potsdam Grenadier Guard.Was it successful? Why or why not?
Q4) According to Wilhelm Stern's method of measurement,a ten-year-old child who is able to perform the mental tasks of a ten-year-old (but not of an eleven-year old)has an IQ of ____.
A) 80
B) 90
C) 100
D) 110
E) 120
Q5) Refer to the figure above to explain the threshold model of complex traits.
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Q1) Researchers have suggested that all live-born infants with Turner syndrome are actually ____________________,with both 46,XX and 45,X cells present in their bodies.
Q2) Fragile sites appear as ____________________ or ____________________ at specific sites on a chromosome.
Q3) About ____ percent of all newborns are affected with an abnormal karyotype.
A) 0.001
B) 0.01
C) 0.05
D) 0.5
E) 1.0
Q4) The most common type of polyploidy in humans is ____.
A) trisomy
B) monosomy
C) triploidy
D) tetraploidy
E) haploidy
Q5) Explain why geneticists believe that almost all chromosomally abnormal embryos and fetuses are eliminated as pregnancy progresses.
Q6) There are ____________________ chromosomes in a human tetraploid cell. Page 8
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Q1) The duct between a testis and a seminal vesicle used for the transport of sperm is the ____________________.
Q2) Seminal vesicles secrete fructose and ____ into the semen
A) DHT
B) oxytocin
C) testosterone
D) estrogen
E) prostaglandins
Q3) The formation of _____ depends on gene action,interactions within the embryo,interaction with other embryos that may be in the uterus,and interactions with the maternal environment.
Q4) The process of ____________________ equalizes the dosage of functional genes carried on the X chromosome in males and females.
Q5) A collection of birth defects caused by alcohol consumption during pregnancy is known as ____________________.
Q6) Phenotypic sex is determined at the moment of fertilization.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the Lyon hypothesis.

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Q1) The H5N1 influenza killed more than 50% of those infected.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In June 2013,the U.S.Supreme Court ruled that if a gene is removed from the human body and purified it can be patented.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Summarize Fredrick Griffith's,Oswald Avery's,and others' experimental search for a treatment for pneumonia.
Q4) Proteins contain twenty different subunits ____.
A) that are the carriers of genetic information
B) arranged in a double helix attached to DNA
C) including thymine, cytosine, guanine, and adenine
D) in the form of nucleotides
E) in the form of amino acids
Q5) Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin obtained X-ray diffraction photographs that indicted that DNA has a ____________________ shape with a constant diameter.
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Q6) Sugars and phosphates are held together in a DNA molecule by a(n)____________________ bond.

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Q1) Summarize the sequence of processing,sorting,and transport of proteins synthesized in a human cell.Then indicate which cell component corresponds with each number above.
Q2) ____ nucleotides form the code for one amino acid.
A) Two
B) Three
C) Six
D) Nine
E) Twelve
Q3) Twenty different types of amino acids are used to make proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Outline the three stages involved in the transcription of a DNA molecule.
Q5) Amino acids are characterized by ____.
A) an amino group and a hydrogen bond
B) a carboxyl group and a hydrogen bond
C) two R groups
D) an amino group, a carboxyl group, and an R group
E) an amino group and a hydrochloric group
Q6) The process of turning genes on and off is called ____________________.
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Q1) Different genotypes for the CYP2D6 gene produce significantly different responses to tamoxifen,the medication often used to treat ____________________.
Q2) Discuss how mutations in proteins can be used to examine the link between a person's genotype and that person's phenotype.
Q3) The study of genetic variations that affect people's responses to environmental agents,including man-made chemicals,is called ____________________.
Q4) The ability to taste PTC and other bitter chemicals is controlled by ____.
A) hormone levels that change throughout life
B) the presence of fats and sugars in the food being eaten
C) the amount of PTC exposure as a child
D) the amount of capsaicin present in taste buds
E) proteins on the surface of receptor cells
Q5) Explain how the field of human biochemical genetics had its beginnings partly through the persistence of a young mother.
Q6) Genetic variations in enzymes that metabolize drugs can produce a(n)______________ range of drug responses.
Q7) Hemoglobin is a(n)____________________-containing protein in red blood cells.
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Q1) People with cystic fibrosis display a single phenotype for the disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When the direct method of measuring mutation rates is used,estimates are made for a specific ____________________ over a number of
Q3) In the 1970s,children's pajamas were treated with a(n)____________________ called tris-BP.
Q4) Explain what might occur when purine or pyrimidine bases in nucleotides undergo tautomeric shifts.
Q5) When the number of trinucleotide repeats in a gene is significantly above normal,it can produce a mutant phenotype.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss how geneticists have concluded that the X-linked form of hemophilia that spread through the royal families of Western Europe and Russia in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries probably originated with Queen Victoria.
Q7) Summarize the arguments both for and against irradiating foods.
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Q8) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome results from abnormalities of

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Q1) The mutant BRCA1 gene imparts a dominantly inherited predisposition to breast cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most of the somatic cells in the body are structurally and functionally specialized and do not divide.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There are no direct-to-consumer genetic tests available that screen for breast cancer susceptibility.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cancer causing mutations are always the result of chromosomal rearrangements.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The cancer drugs Gleevec and Herceptin bind to receptor ____________________ and stop the growth of cancer cells.
Q6) The five-year survival rate of ____________________ cancer is only 13%.
Q7) Mutant forms of proto-oncogenes are called ____________________.
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Q1) PCR uses two components: ____________________ that serve as templates and primers that bind to regions on either side of the template to be copied.
A) yeast artificial chromosomes
B) tRNA that has been cut by restriction enzymes
C) mRNA that has been cut by restriction enzymes
D) double strands of DNA
E) single strands of DNA
Q2) Vectors can transfer ____.
A) DNA sequences into bacterial host cells for cloning
B) DNA sequences into viral host cells for cloning
C) cloned viral cells into a bacterial host for cloning
D) cloned mitochondria from donor cell to host cell
E) cloned chromosomes from the nucleus of a cell into its cytoplasm
Q3) Summarize the major advantage of using YACs to carry genome libraries.
Q4) Plant and animal food sources have been improved by ____________________ for thousands of years.
Q5) The polymerase chain reaction allows DNA to be copied in a test tube without using a ____________________ or a host cell.
Q6) Describe a benefit of cloning plants and animals.
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Q1) What is one concern with the use of genetically-engineered,herbicide-tolerant crops?
A) decreased yields
B) potential allergic reactions
C) transfer of herbicide resistance to weeds
D) loss of genetic diversity
E) expense of using herbicides
Q2) A bone marrow transplant is an example of a stem cell therapy using adult stem cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Transgenic crops are planted in _____ countries,with the amount of land dedicated to such crops _____ every year.
A) more than 50; remaining the same
B) more than 25; decreasing
C) less than10; increasing
D) more than 25; increasing
E) just under 25; increasing
Q4) The use of recombinant DNA technology to produce commercial products is known as ____________________.
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Q1) The Ethical,Legal,and Social Issues program seeks to deal with issues related to privacy,fairness,discrimination,and reproductive decisions that emerge due to the availability of genomic information.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Historically,inheritance of _____ was used to study the genome organization,as well as biological processes such as metabolism and development.
A) chromosomal abnormalities
B) blood types
C) SNPs in humans and lab animals
D) induced mutations in humans
E) induced and spontaneous mutations in lab animals
Q3) Approximately what percentage of the human genome encodes proteins?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 15
E) 50
Q4) How is the field of bioinformatics indispensable for genomic research?
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Q1) ____________________ assess the risks of developing,inheriting,or transmitting genetic disorders,and assist clients in understanding this information.
Q2) A variation of the PGD method,called ____________________,can test for genetic disorders in the egg before fertilization.
Q3) In women,blocked oviducts can result from sexually transmitted diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Usually,the first procedure a genetic counselor performs for a client is _____.
A) amniocentesis
B) construction of a karyotype
C) biochemical testing
D) construction of a pedigree based on family and medical histories
E) ultrasonic imaging
Q5) The genetic engineering of human-animal hybrids is a routine procedure related to assisted reproductive technologies.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Discuss the three most important factors for successful reproduction. Page 19
Q6) The condition of having no sperm in the semen is called
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Q1) Activated B cells divide to form plasma cells and memory B cells,both of which are short-lived and secrete copious amounts of antibody molecules into the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Suppose that an infectious agent,such as a virus or bacterium,had surface antigens identical to those displayed on the surface of human cells.Would the immune system be able to detect and destroy these agents? Why or why not?
Q3) The use of organs harvested from animals for human transplants is called ____________________.
Q4) Most of the organisms that normally inhabit our skin help defend us against infection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Complement proteins can form a system of proteins that create a pore in the membranes of bacteria.This system is called the ____________________.
Q6) ____________________ T cells secrete interleukins that activate other cells in both the cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immune responses.
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Q1) What is the function of a normal MAOA protein?
A) It breaks down neurotransmitters in the synapse.
B) It carries neurotransmitters across synapses.
C) It is a neurotransmitter.
D) It is an enzyme essential in the formation of certain neurotransmitters.
E) It is an enzyme responsible for the construction of neurotransmitter receptors.
Q2) Someone who steps on a sharp nail will quickly lift their foot away. This quick reaction is known as a(n)_____________________.
Q3) To quantify the environmental contribution of a behavioral trait,scientists turn to
A) whole genome sequencing
B) heritability
C) genome wide association studies
D) analysis of innate behaviors
E) SNP and haplotype analyses
Q4) _____________________ is defined as the interaction of two or more gene variants to produce a certain phenotype.
Q5) Discuss the difficulties in studying the genetics of human behavior traits
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Q1) The measure of differential survival and reproductive success is termed
Q2) Genetic drift is a random process that can change the genetic structure of a population.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compare and contrast the out-of-Africa model and multiregional theories of the origin of modern man.Which theory is supported by the preponderance of genetic evidence? What type of evidence supports the other theory
Q4) The genotypic definition of race states that races are populations of the same species in which allele frequencies differ by ____.
A) 15%-20%
B) 85%
C) 1 in 1000 nucleotides
D) 25%-30%
E) 5%-10%
Q5) What is the effect of genetic drift on evolution? How does the founder effect work to cause change in allele frequency?
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