Principles of Biology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts of biological science. The course covers topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, critical thinking, and the interconnectedness of biological systems, preparing students with a solid foundation for advanced studies in the life sciences.
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Discover Biology Core Topics 5th Edition by Anu Singh Cundy
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA is an example of the molecular level of biological organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The DNA of all living things is functionally organized into discrete segments called ____________________ that provide the directions for a specific genetic character.
Answer: genes
Q3) A medical diagnosis is a(n)
A)observation.
B)experiment.
C)theory.
D)hypothesis.
Answer: D
Q4) Through the process of ____________________, a group of organisms can develop new characteristics over time.
Answer: evolution
Q5) Having first developed a ____________________, scientists can then propose testable predictions. Answer: hypothesis
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Chapter 2: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) ____________________ is the science of naming and classifying organisms within the Linnaean hierarchy.
Answer: Taxonomy
Q2) Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya are the three ____________________; they form the highest hierarchical level in the organization of life.
Answer: domains
Q3) Protists are part of the domain Bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) At the base of the evolutionary tree of all life is the A)universal ancestor.
B)convergent ancestor.
C)derived ancestor.
D)descended ancestor.
Answer: A
Q5) New features that allow a group to survive and reproduce successfully can be called ____________________ innovations.
Answer: evolutionary
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Chapter 3: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) The defining feature of the angiosperms is the ____________________.
Answer: flower
Q2) Because healthy forests capture and store large amounts of carbon dioxide as they grow they can moderate the severity of climate change; this type of benefit is termed a(n)____________________.
Answer: ecosystem service
Q3) Despite having cell walls like plant cells, this feature is not considered a shared derived trait between the fungi and plants because A)fungal cell walls are incomplete.
B)chitin rather than cellulose is the primary structural component of a fungal cell wall.
C)digestive enzyme can be secreted through the cell wall of a hypha.
D)glycogen rather than glucose is a primary structural component of a fungal cell wall.
Answer: B
Q4) A waxy covering known as the ____________________ was an important adaptation for terrestrial life; it helps keep land plants from drying out when exposed to sun and wind.
Answer: cuticle
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Chapter 4: Animalia
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Q1) Cephalization described a body plan that is characterized by
A)a fluid-filled space lined with tissue derived from embryonic mesoderm.
B)a complete digestive system with mouth and anus.
C)the anterior location of feeding and sensory structures.
D)the organization of muscle into bands with perpendicular alignments.
Q2) The success of mammals is due in large part to several highly effective reproductive strategies, which include
A)the mammary gland for nourishing their young.
B)the placenta for supporting the growth of the embryo.
C)internal fertilization.
D)all of the above
Q3) Reptiles display many adaptations supporting a terrestrial lifestyle, but _____ is the most significant in reducing their dependency on an aquatic habitat.
A)keratinized scales
B)ectothermy
C)the amniotic egg
D)the three-chambered heart
Q4) The vertebrates are grouped into a lineage because all members possess an internal ____________________.
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Chapter 5: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The outer electron shell of a nitrogen atom can hold up to eight electrons, but contains only five. As a result, nitrogen can form _____ covalent bonds.
A)zero
B)one
C)three
D)eight
Q2) Cholesterol is commonly found in the cell membranes of warm-blooded animals because
A)excess dietary cholesterol is stored in cell membranes.
B)cholesterol is involved in the muscle contractions needed to move an animal around its environment.
C)it prevents the cell membrane from becoming too flexible at body temperature.
D)warm-blooded animals tend to consume large amounts of cholesterol-rich foods.
Q3) Oil and water do not mix together well because
A)water is polar and oil is nonpolar.
B)only identical molecules of the same chemical can easily mix together.
C)water has hydrogen bonds and oil is polar.
D)water and oil are covalently bonded together.
Q4) The monomers linked together in DNA are called ____________________.
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Chapter 6: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) Until recently public health officials had mistakenly believed that the mosquitoes responsible for transmitting malaria primarily live indoors, and thus officials had concentrated eradication efforts on dwellings.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ____________________ endoplasmic reticulum is covered with ribosomes.
Q3) Your muscle cells need large amounts of ATP to function in the movement of your body. Which of the following organelles would you expect to be especially abundant in muscle cells?
A)mitochondria
B)ribosomes
C)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D)lysosomes
Q4) All of the energy in the food we eat is produced when organelles in plants called ____________________ convert the energy in sunlight to chemical energy.
Q5) Prokaryotic cells are generally larger than eukaryotic cells.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ____________________ has a double membrane but no cristae.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) Multicellular organisms have various specialized cells because A)any one cell can contain only one kind of organelle. B)each kind of cell is able to function in isolation.
C)specialized cells ensure that processes necessary for life occur efficiently. D)the DNA of cells is not accurately copied.
Q2) Cells that experience high mechanical stress, like heart cells, typically connect to one another using a(n)____________________ junction, allowing the stress to be distributed to a larger area.
Q3) Receptors in target cells can be located in the plasma membrane, the cytosol, or the ____________________.
Q4) When the solute concentration outside of a cell is equal to the solute concentration inside of the cell, the cell is in a(n)____________________ solution.
Q5) Plasmodesmata are not found in animal cells.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Passive carrier molecules often require active carrier proteins to provide amino acids for transport.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) Plants and animals use different energy storage molecules, yet they both use the same mechanism to "burn" their stored energy. How can plants and animals both be successful, even though they "burn" different energy storage molecules?
A)The internal components of plant and animal cells are identical.
B)The second law of thermodynamics says that all cells have the same energy transfer system.
C)The breaking of the chemical bonds of a storage molecule transfers energy, no matter what molecule is stored.
D)All organisms have the same enzymes to catalyze their energy-producing reactions.
Q2) Enzymes can make otherwise impossible reactions happen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the reaction CH O + O CO + H O,
A)carbon is reduced and hydrogen is oxidized.
B)carbon is oxidized and oxygen is reduced.
C)carbon and hydrogen are reduced.
D)carbon and oxygen are oxidized.
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Chapter 9: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) As an energy carrier, ATP differs from NADPH in that A)ATP carries less energy than NADPH.
B)ATP transfers energy through redox reactions, whereas NADPH uses phosphorylation.
C)NADPH is involved in a larger variety of chemical reactions than ATP.
D)NADPH is made by Photosystem I, whereas ATP is made by Photosystem II.
Q2) The Krebs cycle takes place in the A)mitochondrial matrix.
B)cytosol.
C)thylakoid membrane.
D)outer mitochondrial membrane.
Q3) During the Calvin cycle, the enzyme rubisco combines a ____________________-carbon compound with CO to form an unstable carbohydrate [the answer is a number].
Q4) During the process of photosynthesis, plants capture the kinetic energy of moving photons and transform it into potential energy in the form of A)pyruvate.
B)stroma.
C)chemical bonds.
D)thylakoid disks.
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Chapter 10: Cell Division
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Q1) During anaphase I of meiosis,
A)sister chromatids are pulled apart toward opposite poles.
B)each member of a bivalent moves toward a different pole.
C)all bivalents are pulled to the same pole.
D)paired homologues become attached to each other by microtubules.
Q2) The reduction division of meiosis has occurred when
A)bivalents are cut in half by proteins in their centromeres.
B)half of the bivalents line up on each side of the metaphase plate.
C)the first cell division of meiosis is complete.
D)the second cell division of meiosis is complete.
Q3) If the skin cell of an organism has 24 chromosomes, its gametes must also have 24 chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The parthenogenetic whiptail lizards have maintained their population levels primarily because they live in an extremely stable environment, a situation that minimizes the value of genetic diversity within a population.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Chromosomes become visible during the ____________________ stage of mitosis.
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Chapter 11: Stem Cells, Cancer, and Human Health
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Q1) Which of the following is not likely to cause a cell to become cancerous?
A)mutation
B)meiosis
C)chemical pollutants
D)cigarette smoke
Q2) If a cell's p53 genes are inactivated, the cell
A)loses control over cell division.
B)no longer makes proto-oncogenes.
C)stops dividing.
D)activates tumor suppressors.
Q3) When a mutant receptor protein no longer requires a growth factor to activate it, the result is
A)reduction in cell division.
B)extra binding sites.
C)uncontrolled cell division.
D)lack of protein products.
Q4) While HPV infection in women can lead to life-threatening cancer, in males infection typically results in ____________________.
Q5) A physical, chemical, or biological agent that causes cancer is a
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Chapter 12: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Most genes contain instructions for building
A)carbohydrates.
B)steroids.
C)proteins.
D)lipids.
Q2) Inheritance of ABO blood type in humans is an example of A)codominance.
B)complete dominance of one allele over another.
C)a gene that is coded by more than two alleles.
D)all of the above
Q3) Chromosomes are located on genes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Specific mutations occur because they are needed.
B)Mutations only occur during development.
C)All mutations are harmful.
D)Gametes fuse without regard to which mutations they carry.
Q5) If two alleles for the same trait have an equal effect on the phenotype, the alleles are
14
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) One chromosomal abnormality that is usually fatal is
A)a mutation in a gene on the chromosome.
B)the exchange of material between homologous chromosomes.
C)a change in the number of sex chromosomes.
D)the addition of an extra autosomal chromosome.
Q2) If a recessive allele causes a fatal disease that kills the affected individual before he or she can reproduce, why doesn't that allele quickly become extinct in the population?
A)Alleles are never lost from a population.
B)The homozygous dominant individuals protect the recessive allele in their genomes.
C)The recessive allele is carried in the genome of heterozygotes, who do not suffer from the disease.
D)The homozygous recessive individuals give their alleles to other individuals before they die from the disease.
Q3) Lethal ____________________ mutations are not eliminated from a population because they can be "hidden" in symptom-free individuals also carrying dominant alleles.
Q4) All sex-linked genes are either X-linked or _-linked.
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Chapter 14: Dna and Genes
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Q1) Gene ____________________ is the synthesis of a gene's protein or RNA product.
Q2) Housekeeping genes
A)prevent repressors from binding the promoter.
B)prevent operators from expressing genes.
C)are expressed by most of the cells in an organism
D)break down a cell's DNA.
Q3) The sequence of DNA differs among individuals within a species. This is the basis for A)mutation.
B)protein structure.
C)base pairing.
D)variations in phenotypes.
Q4) Specific types of proteins can attach to long-lived mRNA molecules to prevent their ____________________ when the cell does not need their protein product.
Q5) Translation builds DNA from an RNA template.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A permanent change in the DNA base sequence due to an uncorrected mismatch error is called a ____________________.
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Chapter 15: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) If a particular stretch of DNA has the base sequence TAC, what will be the base sequence of the anticodon of the tRNA that carries the amino acid encoded by that stretch of DNA?
A)TAC
B)UAC
C)ATG
D)GUC
Q2) A mutation occurs in the promoter of a protein-encoding gene. How might this mutation affect the production of the protein encoded by the gene?
A)The mRNA made from this gene would exhibit the same mutation and, therefore, would not fold or function properly.
B)The protein made from the promoter would have a different amino acid sequence and, therefore, would not function properly.
C)The promoter might not be recognized by RNA polymerase, so the enzyme would be unable to attach to the promoter and start transcription.
D)The start codon would be missing from the mRNA made from this gene, so the mRNA could not be translated.
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Chapter 16: Dna Technology
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Q1) The goal of DNA ____________________ is to make many copies of a piece of recombinant DNA so that the DNA can be further manipulated and studied.
Q2) To clone a recombinant plasmid you would
A)insert the plasmid into a virus and inject the virus into a human cell.
B)allow bacteria to take up the plasmid and copy it many, many times.
C)Mix the plasmid with restriction enzymes and nucleotides.
D)Use ligase to fuse the ends of the plasmids together.
Q3) RNA is not a useful tool for the development of cures for genetically inherited diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____________________ catalyzes the formation of covalent bonds between two DNA fragments, creating a single piece of DNA.
Q5) Among these DNA fragments, which would move most quickly during gel electrophoresis?
A)AATAAT
B)AATAATAATAAT
C)AAATTAAT
D)AATAATAATAATAATAATAAT
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Chapter 17: How Evolution Works
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Q1) Chimpanzees could carry a species of lice that evolved from the gorilla louse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding the evolutionary history of an organism is false?
A)Predictions of evolutionary relatedness based on fossil records often agree with predictions based on continental drift.
B)Predictions of evolutionary relatedness based on fossil evidence often agree with those based on protein sequences.
C)Predictions of evolutionary relatedness based on DNA usually contradict those based on anatomical evidence.
D)Predictions based on DNA sequences provide the strongest evidence that two organisms are related.
Q3) The human pubic louse evolved from the species of louse that is found exclusively in
Q4) Scientists disagree on whether evolution occurs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Evolution of Populations
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Q1) A fisherman catches one trout from each of two ponds. Pond A contains 100 trout and pond B contains 1,000 trout. Which population is more affected by the fisherman?
A)Pond A; the fisherman has a greater likelihood of completely removing alleles from the gene pool by taking a fish from the smaller population.
B)Pond A; fewer fish are able to move into a small pond and find mates.
C)Pond B; the fisherman is more likely to catch a fish that is undergoing evolution in a bigger population.
D)Pond B; the process of evolution occurs more slowly in large populations and removing a fish speeds up the process.
Q2) Genetic drift causes random changes in ____________________ frequency.
Q3) Which of the following is not likely to be a cause of rapid evolution in a population?
A)a changing environment
B)an organism that exhibits a rapid rate of mutation
C)an organism that reproduces very slowly
D)the immigration of individuals carrying a new allele that significantly increases reproductive success
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Chapter 19: Speciation and the Origins of Biological
Diversity
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Q1) The only modern humans that exhibit Neandertal genes are descended from non-African ancestors. This is because
A)hybrids produced by interbreeding between Neandertals and African humans were not fertile.
B)the ancestors of African humans have the same ancestors as Neandertals.
C)Neandertals evolved outside of Africa, so only humans who lived outside of Africa could have interbred with them.
D)African humans evolved after Neandertals went extinct.
Q2) Two species live in the same area but breed in different parts of their habitat. These species are
A)geographically isolated.
B)ecologically isolated.
C)artificially isolated.
D)likely to produce hybrids.
Q3) Ninety-nine percent of all the species that ever existed on Earth are now extinct.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: The Evolutionary History of Life
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Q1) Fossils found closer to the surface are usually older than those buried deeper in the Earth's crust.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first members of the genus Homo arose approximately _____ years ago.
A)200,000
B)2 million
C)1 billion
D)3.5 billion
Q3) Ninety-five percent of marine invertebrate species went extinct during the ____________________ mass extinction
Q4) Archaic Homo sapiens gave rise to
A)Neandertals and modern humans.
B)Homo habilis and Australopithecus africanus.
C)Australopithecus africanus and Neandertals.
D)Homo erectus and Homo habilis.
Q5) Adaptive ____________________ is the diversification of groups of organisms to form new species and higher taxonomic groups. It can occur after a mass extinction or at other times.
Q6) The first single-celled organisms arose 3.5 ____________________ years ago.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: The Biosphere
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Q1) In the oceanic region, how could you increase productivity?
A)pump oxygen into the water
B)mix carbon dioxide into the water
C)decrease the salinity of the water
D)add nutrients to the water
Q2) Climate is defined as the prevailing weather conditions in an area over a time period of 30 years or longer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The intertidal zone is somewhat unusual in comparison to the other aquatic biomes because
A)its primary production depends extensively on the photosynthetic output of mutualistic algae.
B)sand is one of the few aquatic substrates that regularly moves.
C)it experiences periodic submersion and exposure during the tidal cycle.
D)the mixing of salt- and freshwater moderates the temperature more so than any other aquatic habitat.
Q4) The rotation of Earth causes winds to ____________________ as they move across the Earth's surface.
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Chapter 22: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Under the one-child policy, China's population is expected to peak and then decline in the year
A)2020.
B)2030.
C)2050.
D)2075.
Q2) The Rapanui people created an environmental disaster on Easter Island by
A)planting crops that required too much water.
B)overfishing the lagoons around the island.
C)cutting down too many of the island's palm trees.
D)using resources to make statues instead of using these resources as fertilizer.
Q3) Which of the following populations would be most likely to experience an S-shaped growth pattern?
A)all of the animals in the San Diego Zoo
B)Gause's Paramecia without a constant food supply
C)a founding colony of rats on a small island with abundant resources
D)a beehive infected midsummer with a deadly bacterial disease
Q4) Food shortages and communicable disease are examples of factors that would ____________________ a population's growth rate.
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) Why would a food web rather than a food chain be the preferred way to represent the movement of food through the community?
A)Food chains are oversimplified and suggest that a consumer eats only a single food item.
B)Food webs place producers at the bottom, whereas food chains place them at the top.
C)Food webs are based on a foundation of producers.
D)Actually, ecologists prefer to use food chains to describe food movements.
Q2) During exploitation, consumer organisms never cause their prey to become extinct. A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following symbols represents a parasitic relationship?
A)+/-
B)+/+
C)o/+
D)-/-
Q4) ____________________ kill their prey directly and immediately, in contrast to parasites, which weaken their hosts or cause illness.
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) A nutrient whose biogeochemical cycle does not include an atmospheric phase is said to have a(n)____________________ cycle.
Q2) Which of the following is the dominant type of organism in the two natural terrestrial ecosystems that have the greatest net primary productivity (NPP)?
A)grass
B)trees
C)food crops
D)fish
Q3) Human activities
A)rarely affect nutrient cycles.
B)can alter nutrient cycles on a global scale.
C)tend to cause only local changes in nutrient cycles.
D)generally improve nutrient cycling in ecosystems.
Q4) Pollutants from industrial areas may contain _____, which can react with water to produce airborne particles of acid.
A)oxygen
B)carbon dioxide
C)sulfur dioxide
D)nitrate
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Marine organisms with calcified structures, such as clams, are affected by increased atmospheric carbon dioxide levels because in the ocean these increases also cause an increase in ____________________.
Q2) Which of the following choices is a major difference between human-caused global change and that which occurs naturally?
A)Human-caused global change occurs more quickly, leaving organisms less time to adapt.
B)Human-caused global changes are of a smaller scale than naturally caused changes.
C)Naturally caused global change occurs only at one place on Earth at a time.
D)Naturally caused global changes are limited to the terrestrial habitats where humans live.
Q3) Historically, an unusual aspect of the recent rise in CO levels is that
A)there is no known mechanism for its occurrence.
B)CO<sub>2</sub> reacts so quickly with other compounds that it should not be occurring.
C)it has occurred relatively slowly.
D)it has occurred relatively rapidly.
Q4) The conversion of N to NH is called ____________________.
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Chapter 26: Internal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) Kidneys conserve water but not solutes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Conduction is a form of convection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A molecule of ammonia leaving a cell would first move into
A)a capillary.
B)the interstitial fluid.
C)the blood plasma.
D)a nephron.
Q4) An iguana swimming in water colder than its body temperature
A)balances the loss through metabolism.
B)gains heat from the water by reverse conduction.
C)loses heat by conduction and convection.
D)retains heat by increasing its heart rate.
Q5) In a nephron the filtrate is derived from blood plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The basic functioning unit of the kidney is the ____________________.
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) Which one of the following food sources would be eaten by carnivores?
A)apples
B)Girl Scout cookies
C)mushrooms
D)deer
Q2) Many longevity-enhancing nutrients such as fiber and antioxidants are found in ____________________-based foods.
Q3) The nutrients in food enter our body by crossing through the epithelial cells lining the ____________________ intestine.
Q4) The gallbladder
A)stores bile.
B)secretes digestive enzymes.
C)breaks down fats.
D)absorbs fats.
Q5) Which of the following is not secreted by the mammalian pancreas?
A)pepsin
B)bicarbonate
C)trypsin
D)chymotrypsin
Q6) Vitamins are either water soluble or ____________________ soluble.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Gills were the first gas exchange organ to evolve in animals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ____________________ contracts in order to pump blood through the systemic circuit.
Q3) The process of inhalation requires more energy than the process of exhalation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When we inhale, air moves in through the mouth or nose and next moves into the A)bronchi.
B)alveoli.
C)lungs.
D)pharynx.
Q5) Another name for the "pacemaker" is the A)atrioventricular (AV) node.
B)sino atrial (SA) node.
C)atrium.
D)ventrical.
Q6) ____________________ is the process of expelling carbon dioxide from the lungs and taking oxygen into the lungs.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Animal Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) After ovulation,
A)gonadotropin levels rise quickly.
B)estrogen levels rise quickly.
C)progesterone becomes the dominant hormone.
D)LH levels decrease slowly.
Q2) In a human female, the hormone ____________________ controls the development of female reproductive structures.
Q3) Which of the following would be least affected by gonadotropins?
A)development of facial hair in human males
B)development of pubic hair
C)development of the thyroid gland
D)development of breasts in human females
Q4) Excessive amounts of growth hormone (GH)after puberty can cause acromegaly.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Acromegaly results from
A)too little gonadotropin.
B)a lack of progesterone.
C)insufficient amounts of growth hormone during puberty.
D)exposure to growth hormone after maturity.
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Chapter 30: Nervous and Sensory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cerebrum has four major lobes. Which of the following is one of these?
A)parietal
B)cerebellum
C)thalamus
D)medulla oblongata
Q2) The flow of ions across an axon's plasma membrane generates an electrical impulse known as the ____________________.
Q3) Which of the following would not be found in the retina of a horse?
A)rods
B)lenses
C)proprioceptors
D)pigments
Q4) How does the central nervous system recognize how important a particular stimulus is?
A)by the frequency at which the action potentials are created by the stimulus
B)by the overall strength of the action potential produced by the stimulus
C)by the number of neurotransmitters that reach the brain through the circulatory system
D)by the amount of hormone that the stimulus releases from endocrine glands
Q5) Nodes of Ranvier are found only in ____________________ neurons.
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Chapter 31: Skeletons, Muscles, and Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) The energy source for muscle contraction comes from A)actin.
B)myosin.
C)ATP.
D)calcium ions.
Q2) The axial skeleton includes the A)spinal column only.
B)spinal column, skull, and rib cage.
C)all bones in the arms and legs.
D)spinal column and pelvis.
Q3) Running times in the 100-meter dash have decreased due to A)a decrease in illegal drug use.
B)better corporate sponsors.
C)use of equipment that reduces drag.
D)use of equipment that increases drag.
Q4) If there were no tendons in your appendicular skeleton, you would not be able to A)walk.
B)nod your head.
C)speak.
D)chew your food.
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Chapter 32: Defenses Against Disease
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Q1) The fetus of a lion receives antibodies that were produced by its mother while it was still in the womb. This is an example of
A)active immunity.
B)a secondary immune response.
C)a primary immune response.
D)passive immunity.
Q2) When an item irritates the eyes, tears form in order to release lysozyme enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Allergies are often attributed to
A)a hypersensitive immune system.
B)a deficient immune system.
C)passive immunity.
D)adaptive immunity.
Q4) ____________________ cells remain in our body after the initial exposure to a disease organism and help the immune system recognize that particular organism during a second exposure.
Q5) Macrophages and neutrophils make up a ____________________ response to invaders.
Q6) A disease-causing agent is called a(n)____________________.
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Chapter 33: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Morphogens act in humans as well as in other animals, such as fruit flies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about animal sperm and eggs is false?
A)Sperm are generally able to move.
B)Oocytes generally do not move unaided.
C)Sperm and eggs are produced through meiosis.
D)Sperm and eggs have the same amount of genetic material per cell as the cells in their parent organisms.
Q3) Why is the head of a sperm covered with a sac of enzymes?
A)The enzymes are used to prevent other sperm from entering the egg after the sperm and egg membranes have fused.
B)The enzymes are needed to digest a hole in the protective "shell" surrounding the egg.
C)The enzymes are released to kill other sperm so that, by the time sperm reach the egg, only a hundred or so remain to compete with.
D)The enzymes are gradually released into the sperm, where they break down sugars, releasing the energy needed to power sperm movement.
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Chapter 34: Animal Behavior
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Q1) A honeybee gives up its life when it stings to protect the hive. This is an example of A)fixed behavior.
B)imprinting.
C)altruistic behavior.
D)learned behavior.
Q2) Human culture is not a result of
A)fixed behavior.
B)learned behavior.
C)communication.
D)social behavior.
Q3) Which of the following examples does not illustrate an advantage gained by communication?
A)Animals can resolve territory conflicts without physically fighting.
B)Bees are able to tell their nest mates where to find a good food source.
C)Young deer hide well from predators because the spots on their fur coat blend into the environment.
D)Wolves are able to coordinate their activities during a hunt.
Q4) In ____________________ behaviors, the response to a stimulus depends on past experiences.
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) The most abundant plant cell type in ground tissue is ____________________.
Q2) What best explains why sugar maple trees are tapped on the sun-warmed south side of the trunk?
A)Sap on the north side of the tree is still frozen in early spring.
B)During the summer most photosynthesis occurs on the south side of the tree.
C)The reaction rate for the enzymes that convert starch to sucrose is temperature dependent.
D)The sap expands as it is warmed and flows upward through the trunk.
Q3) The basic plant body consists of a root system and a ____________________ system.
Q4) Within its vascular tissue, sieve tube elements and companion cells are connected by the
A)guard cells.
B)central vacuoles.
C)plasmodesmata.
D)Casparian strip.
Q5) A high-quality soil provides everything needed for plant growth.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ____________________ is the evaporation of water from the surface of a leaf.
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Chapter 36: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) Imagine driving a nail into a tree trunk. Which of the following tissues would the nail point first contact?
A)heartwood
B)cork cambium
C)vascular cambium
D)sapwood
Q2) Plant growth aboveground can be accomplished by adding new A)leaf units.
B)bud units.
C)stem units.
D)bud-stem-leaf units.
Q3) Which of the following would be the least likely pollinator?
A)a butterfly
B)a bat
C)a rattlesnake
D)a human
Q4) Meristem cells in plants are similar to ____________________ cells in vertebrates.
Q5) Increases in length due to cell divisions at apical meristems are called ____________________ growth.
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