Principles of Biology Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology introduces students to the fundamental concepts of the life sciences, exploring the structure, function, and diversity of living organisms. The course covers core topics such as cell biology, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology, emphasizing the molecular and biochemical basis of life. Students will also examine how organisms interact with each other and their environments, the flow of energy and matter through living systems, and the scientific methods used in biological research. This foundational course is essential for understanding the complexities of life and forms the basis for further studies in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 2nd Canadian Edition by Scott; Sharp
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2275 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recall the chili pepper experiment that tested whether capsaicin acts as a deterrent to predators.What eating habits were predicted for the curve-billed thrasher-a known seed disperser?
A)The thrasher was predicted to eat both mild and hot chilies.
B)The thrasher was predicted to eat only the mild chilies.
C)The thrasher was predicted to eat only the hot chilies.
D)The thrasher was predicted to not eat any of the chilies.
Answer: A
Q2) In the Linnaean classification system,which taxon would generally include the largest number of species?
A)family
B)phylum
C)order
D)genus
Answer: B
Q3) The pattern component of the cell theory claims that all organisms consist of cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many times can humans be sure the switch from nonlife to life has happened in the universe?
A)once
B)twice
C)four times
D)forty-two times
Answer: A
Q2) In the Gibbs free-energy relationship,why is the T term necessary?
A)The free-energy change caused by a change in entropy is a function of temperature.
B)The free-energy change caused by a change in potential energy is a function of temperature.
C)The free-energy change caused by a change in electrical charge is a function of temperature.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) You've just sequenced a new protein found in mice and observe that sulfur-containing cysteine residues occur at regular intervals.What is the significance of this finding?
A)Cysteine residues are required for the formation of -helices and -pleated sheets.
B)It will be important to include cysteine in the diet of the mice.
C)Cysteine residues are involved in disulfide bridges that help form tertiary structure.
D)Cysteine causes bends,or angles,to occur in the tertiary structure of proteins.
Answer: C
Q2) Consider the HIV enzyme called protease.The amino acid residues at the active site are highly hydrophobic.In designing a drug that would bind to the active site and jam it,researchers should use which type of molecule?
A)hydrophobic
B)polar
C)charged
D)acidic
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Q1) When doing gel electrophoresis,why do researchers add a "ladder" made up of molecules of known size?
A)to help the molecules they are studying get through the gel more easily
B)to help the researchers identify the size of each molecule after the separation has occurred
C)to make sure the radioactivity doesn't interfere with the movement of the molecules that are being studied
D)The molecules being studied would not show up without the ladder.
Q2) Which of the following chemical bonds do you think Nakano is referring to in his quote?
A)peptide
B)glycosidic
C)phosphodiester
D)ionic
Q3) What is gel electrophoresis used for?
A)to denature proteins for further analysis
B)to separate macromolecules by size or charge
C)to separate the two helices that make up the DNA double helix
D)to identify the first self-replicating molecule that formed during chemical evolution
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Page 6
Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Q1) Why do artificial sweeterns have less calories than sucrose and fructose,but still taste sweet?
A)They bind to specific taste receptor,but are quickly metabolized by the body.
B)They do not bind to any receptors and are quickly eliminated from the body.
C)They bind to a specific taste receptor,but do not have any ATP.
D)They bind to ATP,which then binds to the taste receptor.
Q2) Why do endurance athletes practice "carbohydrate loading," meaning to eat massive amounts of starch in the days leading up to a long race?
A)Starch is used as a building block for the synthesis of many other molecules.
B)Starch provides dietary fiber or "roughage" that aids digestion.
C)Carbohydrates are reduced molecules that can provide the chemical energy required during exercise.
D)Starch can be used to synthesize cellulose and build up the cell walls of muscles.
Q3) In animals,the role of carbohydrate polymers is primarily A)body protection.
B)information storage.
C)energy storage.
D)enzymes.
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) You make two sucrose solutions,one of 0.5M and one of 2M and go out for lunch.When you return,you realize that you forgot to label the beakers! You remake the solutions,but give the undergrads in your lab an experiment to determine which beaker holds which solution.They fill two balloons,which are semi-permeable to water,but not to sucrose,with a 0.75M sucrose solution.One balloon is then placed in each of the unknown sucrose solution beakers.After several hours,they observe that the balloon in beaker 1 has swelled,while the balloon in beaker 2 has shrivelled.This indicates that beaker one contained the ________ sucrose solution,while beaker 2 contained the ________ sucrose solution.
A)0)5M,2M
B)2M,0,5M
C)unable to determine given the information provided.
Q2) Integral membrane proteins stay in membranes because of A)osmotic pressure from proteins outside the cell.
B)diffusion of proteins from the cytoplasm to the membrane.
C)the locations of their polar and nonpolar amino acids.
D)their small size,which does not allow them to pass through the membrane.
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Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) You arrive late to lecture and your professor is describing a feature of the nucleus that provides it with structural support.You are not sure which feature is being discussed,but because you read the book before you came to class,you are fairly certain that it is
A)the nucleus pore.
B)the nucleoplasm.
C)the nuclear lamina.
D)the nucleolus.
Q2) What is the most likely role of a cell that contains an extensive smooth ER?
A)It plays a role in storage.
B)It synthesizes large quantities of lipids.
C)It actively exports protein molecules.
D)It plays a role in immune function.
Q3) Which of the following organelles is involved in the oxidation of fatty acids or ethanol?
A)Golgi apparatus
B)Peroxisomes
C)Mitochondria
D)Rough endoplasmic reticulum
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Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Q1) Intercalated disks are cell-cell junctions found between cardiac muscle cells.A feature of intercalated disks is a large number of gap junctions.This means
A)an extension of smooth endoplasmic reticulum goes through the gap junction,making it continuous from one cardiac muscle cell to the next.
B)water and small ions can readily pass from one cardiac muscle cell to the next.
C)the plasma membrane encompasses multiple cardiac muscle cells.
D)RNA from one cardiac muscle cell can be transported into an adjacent cell through the gap junction.
Q2) Transport of materials across a cell membrane
A)is selective.
B)always takes place from a region of greater concentration to a region of lesser concentration.
C)is an energy-requiring process regardless of the chemical properties of the substance being transported.
D)requires a carrier molecule in the membrane regardless of the chemical properties of the substance being transported.
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) A cell has enough available ATP to meet its needs for about 30 seconds.What is likely to happen when an athlete exhausts his or her ATP supply?
A)He or she has to sit down and rest.
B)Catabolic processes are activated that generate ATP.
C)ATP is transported into the cell from circulation.
D)Other cells take over and the muscle cell that has used up its ATP quits.
Q2) Refer to Figure 9.3.Which of these statements concerning the following reaction is true? Malate + NAD oxaloacetate + NADH + H
A)Malate is more oxidized than oxaloacetate.
B)Malate is more reduced than oxaloacetate.
C)NAD+ is more reduced than NADH.
D)Oxaloacetate is more reduced than malate.
Q3) A substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in the Krebs cycle where
A)GDP is phosphorylated to produce GTP.
B)NAD is phosphorylated to NADH.
C)oxaloacetate is phosphorylated.
D)acetylation of oxaloacetate takes place.
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Energy from sunlight can excite electrons,kicking them out of their orbitals and creating free radicals.Free radicals are highly reactive atoms or molecules that have unpaired electrons.They degrade and destroy other compounds in their vicinity.Carotenoids,one of the pigments present in most chloroplasts,can stabilize these free radicals.This suggests that
A)once chloroplasts are destroyed,the free radicals will destroy the cell.
B)carotenoids probably have a protective function in the cell.
C)other pigments (besides carotenoids and chlorophyll)are essential for the health of a plant cell.
D)carotenoids communicate directly with the immune system of plants.
Q2) How are the light-dependent and light-independent reactions of photosynthesis related?
A)They cannot occur in the absence of light.
B)The products of light-dependent reactions are used in light-independent reactions.
C)The products of light-independent reactions must be present for light-dependent reactions to take place.
D)They are not related.
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Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) Myosin is a motor protein involved in animal cell cytokinesis.It binds to ATP or ADP,causing the myosin to move with respect to actin.What is the effect of the interaction between myosin and actin?
A)Vesicles containing plasma membrane constituents are transported to the metaphase plate,where cytokinesis takes place.
B)Excess cytoplasm is removed.
C)The cleavage furrow deepens.
D)It triggers the reformation of the daughter nuclei.
Q2) Cancer-causing mutated tumour suppressor genes result from which of the following?
A)programmed cell death
B)mutations in genes encoding proteins that normally inhibit progression through the cell cycle
C)mutations that cause overexpression of genes encoding proteins that normally stimulate progression through the cell cycle
D)cell-contact inhibition
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13
Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Q1) The bulldog ant has a diploid number of two chromosomes.Therefore,following meiosis,each daughter cell will have a single chromosome.There is/are ________ different possible combination(s)of genes in the daughter cells of meiosis because
A)one;there is only one chromosome per cell
B)two;there are two homologous chromosomes per cell prior to meiosis
C)more than 2;the two homologues cross over
Q2) Somatic cells of roundworms have four chromosomes.How many chromosomes would you find in an ovum from a roundworm?
A)four
B)two
C)eight
D)a diploid number
Q3) For the duration of meiosis I,each chromosome is A)in the form of a tetrad.
B)two sister chromatids joined by a centromere.
C)a chromosome and its homologue.
D)undergoing synapsis.
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Q1) Whenever the dominant allele of either (or both)gene A or gene B is present,red color is produced.A cross of AaBb × AaBb can be expected to yield how many red offspring out of 16? Assume the genes are not linked.
A)1
B)4
C)12
D)15
E)16
Q2) Phenylketonuria is an inherited disease caused by a recessive autosomal allele.If a woman and her husband are both carriers,what is the probability that their first child will be a phenotypically normal girl?
A)1/4
B)1/16
C)1)0
D)3/16
E)3/8
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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Q1) What is a major difference between eukaryotic DNA replication and prokaryotic DNA replication?
A)Prokaryotic replication does not require a primer.
B)Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication,while eukaryotic chromosomes have multiple origins of replication.
C)DNA polymerase III of eukaryotes has both endonuclease and exonuclease activity,while that of prokaryotes has only exonuclease activity.
D)DNA polymerases of prokaryotes can add nucleotides to both 3 and 5 ends of DNA strands,while those of eukaryotes function only in the 5 3 direction.
Q2) In the polymerization of DNA,a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate group of the nucleotide being added and ________ of the last nucleotide in the polymer.
A)ATP
B)C
C)the 3 OH
D)a nitrogen from the nitrogen-containing base
Q3) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which structure is responsible for stabilizing DNA in its single-stranded form?
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Q1) Refer to Figure 15.5.If the codon CAC was present in the ribosome A site,which amino acid would be added?
A)phenylalanine
B)methionine
C)aspartic acid
D)histidine
Q2) What molecule serves as a link between the information-containing macromolecule,DNA,and protein synthesis?
A)rRNA
B)tRNA
C)mRNA
D)snRNA
Q3) There are three stop codons (nonsense codons);all remaining codons specify addition of an amino acid (sense codons).How many sense codons are there?
A)20
B)45
C)61
D)72
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Chapter 16: Transcription, RNA Processing, and Translation
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Q1) Which of the following processes is central to the initiation of transcription?
A)binding of sigma to the promoter region
B)formation of a phosphodiester bond in the elongating RNA strand
C)binding of DNA polymerase to the promoter region
D)formation of a DNA primer
Q2) How are RNA hairpin turns related to termination?
A)The turns are formed from complementary base pairing and cause separation of the RNA transcript and RNA polymerase.
B)A three-base repeat signals a stop sequence,and the RNA transcript is released.
C)Release factors bind to sites on the hairpin turn,causing release of the RNA transcript.
D)The hairpin turn prevents more nucleoside triphosphates from entering the active site of the enzymes,effectively shutting off the process of polymerization.
Q3) The ribosome-binding site of prokaryotes is also known as
A)the TATA box.
B)the promoter.
C)the Shine-Dalgarno sequence.
D)the Pribnow box.
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18
Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) To date,several lactose metabolism mutants have been found in Escherichia coli.One of these mutants has a phenotype in which the cell cannot accumulate lactose because no lactose permease protein is present.What genotype would be associated with this mutation?
A)lacZ
B)lacY
C)lacI
Q2) Recall from Chapter 11 that cyclin-dependent kinases are activated when they bind to a cyclin protein.This form of regulation is
A)constitutive control.
B)transcriptional control.
C)translational control.
D)post-translational control.
Q3) A technique that can be used to identify mutant bacterial cells is called A) indicator plating.
B)replica plating.
C)master plating.
D)comparison plating.
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19
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) How do chromatin-remodeling complexes recognize the genes they should act on?
A)Chromatin-remodeling complexes are activated by specific extracellular signals that direct them to particular genes.
B)Chromatin-remodeling complexes recognize specific promoters when they are phosphorylated,methylated,or acetylated.
C)Chromatin-remodeling complexes recognize specific transcription factors bound to regulatory sequences of DNA.
D)Chromatin-remodeling complexes bind to the basal transcription complex.
Q2) Gene expression is often assayed by measuring the level of mRNA produced from a gene.If one is interested in knowing the amount of a final active gene product,a potential problem of this method is that it ignores the possibility of A)chromatin condensation control.
B)transcriptional control.
C)alternative splicing.
D)translational control.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) Plasmids are used as vectors in both plant and bacterial genetic engineering.However,there is a major difference in the fate of genes introduced into bacteria on most bacterial plasmids and into plants on Ti plasmids.What is this difference?
A)In bacteria,genes are stably expressed;in plants,gene expression is always lost quickly.
B)Gene expression tends to decrease rapidly and unpredictably in bacteria;gene expression is much more stable in plants.
C)Bacterial plasmids are circular DNAs;Ti plasmid DNA is linear.
D)Bacterial plasmids and the genes they carry usually are not integrated into the chromosome;Ti plasmids and the genes they carry are integrated into the chromosome.
E)Bacterial plasmids typically do not modify the growth of the host cells;Ti plasmids modified for genetic engineering always produce plant galls.
Q2) Transgenic mice
A)often provide valuable animal models of human disease.
B)are essential for mapping human genes.
C)are now used in place of bacteria for cloning human genes.
D)were instrumental in pinpointing the location of the huntingtin gene.
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21
Chapter 20: Genomics
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Q1) Because DNAs for sequencing were chosen at random with no way of knowing which organism they came from,how could genes be identified?
A)by searching for ORFs,especially those with translation start and stop sites
B)by searching for similarity between predicted ORFs and those in existing databases
C)by searching for exons bounded by consensus donor and acceptor splice sites (those that mark exon/intron boundaries)
D)A and B only
E)all of the above
Q2) The goal of annotating a whole genome sequence is to
A)establish the nucleotide sequence.
B)learn the number of nucleotides contained within the genome.
C)identify genes and their positions within the genome.
D)learn how gene products interact to produce phenotypes.
Q3) The bulk of the sequence data in whole genome sequencing comes from
A)relatively large (~ 160 kb)sequences cloned into BACs.
B)relatively small (~ 1000 base-pair)sequences cloned into plasmids.
C)whole chromosomes obtained without cloning.
D)whole chromosomes cloned into plasmids.
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) Even though plant and animal development processes share a number of features,there are some differences between the two groups of organisms.Which of the following is NOT a shared characteristic of plant and animal development?
A)Gene expression in developing embryonic tissues is closely regulated.
B)Orientation of cells and tissues is critical for proper development.
C)Differentiation of cells is directed and maintained by cascades of signals.
D)Cell types,once determined,generally cannot change their differentiated characteristics.
Q2) One form of programmed cell death is apoptosis.In which developmental situation would you predict apoptosis would NOT play a major role?
A)growth of nerves and blood vessels into a body segment
B)sculpting of digits in the developing hindlimb
C)growth of the atrial septum in the four-chambered mammalian heart
D)disappearance of the embryonic tail in developing humans
Q3) Cellular differentiation is usually produced by
A)differences in gene expression.
B)differences in DNA sequences.
C)differences in gene copy numbers.
D)morphogenesis.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) The function of the acrosomal complex during fertilization is
A)to block polyspermy.
B)to dissolve the coating of the egg.
C)to nourish the sperm mitochondria.
D)to permit maximum sperm motility.
Q2) If microtubule formation were disrupted experimentally by the use of drugs,the effects might include all of the following EXCEPT
A)failure of cytoplasmic RNAs to be translated into zygote proteins.
B)failure of organizer formation in the fertilized egg.
C)failure of gastrulation of the embryo.
D)failure of transcription of tissue-specific mRNAs.
Q3) Given the relative positions of the three embryonic germ layers in the gastrula,which of these layers contributes to the formation of the gut?
A)mesoderm
B)ectoderm
C)endoderm
D)All three layers contribute equally to formation of the gut.
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Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) How do plants cope with the considerable variation in their environment?
A)Plants continually grow and take in cues from their environment,which alter their growth patterns in specific directions.
B)Plants have reproductive meristems that allow them to reproduce in response to poor conditions.
C)Plants have meristems that allow the plant to grow in more suitable conditions.
D)Plants undergo limited development and cannot adjust to changes in their environment.
Q2) Meristematic tissue cells in plants are MOST similar to which kind of cells in animals?
A)somite cells
B)ectodermal cells
C)embryonic stem cells
D)mesodermal cells
Q3) On the figure above,which of the letters represents the radial axis?
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25
Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) Why was Darwin and Wallace's theory of evolution by natural selection revolutionary?
A)It implied that England's economy would improve if the monarchy were eliminated.
B)It proved that individuals acclimated to their environment over time.
C)It dismissed the idea that species are constant and emphasized the importance of variation and change in populations.
D)It was the first time a biologist had proposed that species changed through time.
Q2) Who proposed that organisms could be organized into a great chain of being?
A)Aristotle
B)Lamarck
C)Linnaeus
D)Darwin
E)Wallace
Q3) Evolution by natural selection changes the population but not the individual.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) The UCSD campus male junco population tails were,on average,36% white,whereas the tails of males from nearby mountain populations averaged 40-45% white.If this observed trait difference were due to a difference in the original colonizing population,it would be due to
A)disruptive selection.
B)sexual selection.
C)sexual dimorphism.
D)a genetic bottleneck.
E)founder effect.
Q2) For biologists studying a large flatworm population in the lab,which Hardy-Weinberg condition is most difficult to meet?
A)no selection
B)no genetic drift
C)no gene flow
D)no mutation
E)random mating
Q3) Which sex typically has more extreme sex-selected characteristics: males or females? Why? Give an example.
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Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) Many songbirds breed in North America in the spring and summer and then migrate to Central and South America in the fall.They spend the winter in these warmer areas,where they feed and prepare for the spring migration north and another breeding season.Two hypothetical species of sparrow,A and B,overwinter together in mixed flocks in Costa Rica.In spring,species A goes to the east coast of North America,and species B goes to the west coast.What can you say about the isolating mechanisms of these two species?
A)They must have strong prezygotic or postzygotic isolating mechanisms in order to spend winter in such close proximity.
B)The two species do not breed in the same area,so they are reproductively isolated by allopatry.
C)One of the species is probably polyploid,so they are reproductively isolated by genetic incompatibility.
D)Reinforcement must be occurring when they winter together.
Q2) Which of the following does not tend to promote speciation?
A)the founder effect
B)gene flow
C)natural selection
D)polyploidy
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) Why would gene duplication events,such as those seen in the Hox gene complex,set the stage for adaptive radiation?
A)There are more copies of genes,meaning speciation had occurred by polyploidy.
B)The original gene copy is the out-group,and the new gene copies are the adaptive radiation.
C)Without duplicated genes,species would be vulnerable to extinction.
D)One copy of a gene can perform the original function while other copies are available to take on new functions.
Q2) A hypothetical island lies far from any other landmasses.There are many different types of plants,but only one animal-a beetle that can fly or walk from plant to plant and feeds by chewing leaves.Which morphological change would be most likely to trigger an adaptive radiation of the beetles?
A)a change in wing shape that improves flight speed
B)an additional segment on a pair of legs
C)a mouthpart that can pierce fruits and seeds
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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) While examining a rock surface,you have discovered an interesting new organism.Which of the following criteria will allow you to classify the organism as belonging to Bacteria,but not Archaea or Eukarya?
A)It is unicellular.
B)Its cell walls are made primarily of peptidoglycan.
C)The organism does not have nucleus.
D)It can survive at a temperature over 100°C.
Q2) While examining soil from a cornfield,you found a new type of bacteria that turns purple when treated with Gram stain.What lineage might it belong to?
A)Spirochaeles
B)Proteobacteria
C)Cyanobacteria
D)Firmicutes
E)Chlamydiales
Q3) Bacteria and Archaea are most easily distinguished from each other by their
A)chromosome structure.
B)habitat.
C)transcription and translation mechanism.
D)reproduction method.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) Assume that some members of an aquatic species of motile,photosynthetic protists evolve to become parasitic to fish.They gain the ability to live in the fish gut,absorbing nutrients as the fish digests food.Over time,which of the following phenotypic changes would you expect to observe in this population of protists?
A)loss of motility
B)loss of chloroplasts
C)gain of a rigid cell wall
D)gain of meiosis
E)no changes would be expected
Q2) A particular species of protist lacks the ability to engulf food and does not contain chloroplasts.However,gene sequencing data indicate that this species evolved from a lineage containing many species with the ability to engulf food.What does this information suggest about this species of protist?
A)It probably reproduces asexually.
B)It is likely parasitic.
C)It is likely aquatic.
D)It probably eats bacteria.
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Chapter 30: Green Algae and Land Plants
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Q1) Which set contains the most closely related terms?
A)megasporangium,megaspore,pollen,ovule
B)microsporangium,microspore,egg,ovary
C)megasporangium,megaspore,egg,ovule
D)microsporangium,microspore,carpel,ovary
Q2) Which group is the most diverse of the seedless vascular plants?
A)club mosses
B)horsetails
C)ferns
D)ginkgoes
Q3) Which of the following is a correct element of alternation of generations?
A)The sporophyte is haploid and produces gametes.
B)The sporophyte is diploid and produces spores.
C)The gametophyte is haploid and produces spores.
D)The gametophyte is diploid and produces gametes.
E)Two spores unite to form a zygote.
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Microsporidians are considered parasitic because of the ability to penetrate their host cells using this structure.
A)mycelium
B)polar tube
C)sporangia
D)chitin
Q2) Looking at Figure 31.1,draw a new graph that plots the percentage of plant species in the fossil pollen and spore record,and write a figure legend comparing it to the original figure.
Q3) Refer to Figure 31.2.Which of the following results would support Simard et al.'s (1997)hypothesis that fungi can move carbon from one plant to another? Hypothesis: Sugars made by one plant during photosynthesis can travel through a mycorrhizal fungus and be incorporated into the tissues of another plant.
A)Carbon-14 is found in the birch seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the Douglas fir.
B)Carbon-14 is found in the Douglas fir seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the birch.
C)Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the fungal tissues.
D)Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the cedar seedling's tissues.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics is not true of animals?
A)They typically have more haploid cells than diploid cells.
B)They have an extracellular matrix.
C)They are the only group on the tree of life with muscle and nervous tissue.
D)They have a cell wall.
E)All of the above are true of animals.
Q2) To reproduce,many plants produce seeds-structures containing embryonic offspring along with nutrients inside a tough case.These offspring develop after being released by the parent plant.To which animal reproductive strategy is seed production most comparable?
A)oviparous reproduction
B)ovoviviparous reproduction
C)viviparous reproduction
Q3) Which of the following combinations of embryonic features is common in the deuterostomes?
A)spiral cleavage and the gastrulation pore (or gastropore)becomes the anus
B)radial cleavage and the gastropore becomes the mouth
C)absence of cleavage and gastropore becomes the anus
D)spiral cleavage and the absence of gastropore formation
E)radial cleavage and the gastropore becomes the anus
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Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) Upon close inspection of movement in annelids and nematodes,you would notice an obvious difference.Nematodes tend to wriggle back and forth,while annelids tend to contract along their length as their girth swells and then thins out as they stretch.What anatomical feature explains this type of movement?
A)The annelids possess longitudinal muscle fibers that the nematodes lack.
B)The nematodes lack circular muscle fibers.
C)Nematodes lack a coelom.
D)Annelids have a highly specialized nervous system capable of more complex movements.
Q2) Among protostomes,which morphological trait has shown the most diversity?
A)type of symmetry (bilateral vs.radial vs.none)
B)type of body cavity (coelom vs.pseudocoelom vs.acoelom)
C)number of embryonic tissue types (diploblasty vs.triploblasty)
D)direction of gastrulation (protostome vs.deuterostome)
Q3) The body cavity type for arthropods and molluscs can best be described as A)coelom.
B)pseudocoelom.
C)reduced coelom.
D)no coelom.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) For which of the following feeding tactics discussed in Chapter 33 do echinoderms use their podia?
A)food-mass feeding
B)suspension feeding
C)deposit feeding
D)all of the above
Q2) If a kelp farmer wanted to maximize her harvest,which type of echinoderm would she be most concerned about in the habitat?
A)sand dollars
B)brittle stars
C)sea stars
D)sea urchins
E)sea cucumbers
Q3) Which of the following statements about human races is correct?
A)Africans are genetically much closer to Asians than to Caucasians.
B)Humans are one of only a few mammal species with clearly defined genetic races.
C)Very little genetic divergence occurs among different human populations.
D)All of the above are correct.
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36
Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following viruses would be the most likely to have reverse transcriptase?
A)an RNA-based lytic virus
B)an RNA-based lysogenic virus
C)a DNA-based lytic virus
D)a DNA-based lysogenic virus
Q2) You have isolated the genome from a novel virus and would like to determine its composition.You have three tubes,each containing one of these substances: 1. a protein that degrades dsDNA (DNase,tube 1)
2) a protein that degrades ssRNA (RNase,tube 2)
3) a protease that degrades viral proteins (tube 3)
You add some of your novel genome to tubes 1,2,and 3.The genome is degraded in tube 2,but not in tube 1 or tube 3.Based on your knowledge of genome types that have been found in viruses,what could the genome's composition be?
A)dsDNA
B)ssDNA
C)ssRNA
D)protein
E)None of the above seem likely.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) The main source of water necessary for photosynthesis to occur in the leaf mesophyll is
A)soil via the xylem.
B)soil via the phloem.
C)the atmosphere through the cuticle and stomata.
D)all of the above.
Q2) Which of these structure-function pairs is correct?
A)stomata-protect against pathogens
B)trichomes-secrete the waxy cuticle
C)cuticle-inhibits water loss and pathogen entry
D)wax-makes leaf slippery so insects skid off
E)guard cells-prevent insects from laying eggs on leaves
Q3) Root hairs on a root develop
A)on the entire root surface.
B)before the cells elongate.
C)after the cells elongate.
D)on the root cap.
Q4) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) The processes of water flow in xylem and sugar translocation in phloem differ in many respects.Which of the following is not a difference between xylem and phloem transport?
A)Water potential gradients are required for xylem transport to occur,but not for phloem transport.
B)Xylem transport is a wholly passive process;phloem transport includes active (energy-requiring)processes.
C)Cells through which xylem transport occurs are "dead" at maturity;those in phloem transport are "alive."
D)Xylem transport always occurs in the same direction;phloem transport does not.
Q2) Researchers using a dendrograph found that the trunk diameter of a beech tree increased and decreased slightly on a daily basis and that this variation correlated negatively with transpiration rate.Under which of the following sets of conditions should the daily changes in trunk diameter be the highest?
A)cool spring day,no wind,soil partially frozen
B)cool spring day,no wind,high soil moisture
C)hot summer day,windy,low soil moisture
D)hot summer day,no wind,low soil moisture
E)hot summer day,windy,high soil moisture
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Q1) Which of the following binds to clay particles?
A)potassium ions
B)nitrate ions
C)phosphoric acid
D)carbon dioxide
E)potassium and nitrate ions
Q2) Which elements are most often the limiting nutrients for plant growth?
A)nitrogen,potassium,phosphorus
B)nitrogen,phosphorus,sulfur
C)nitrogen,sodium,phosphorus
D)phosphorus,potassium,carbon
E)calcium,nitrogen,phosphorus
Q3) What type of soil contains the highest amount of oxygen?
A)clay
B)sand
C)gravel
D)silt
Q4) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Q1) You are out working in your garden,and you notice that one of your favorite flowering plants has black,dead spots on the leaves.You immediately suspect that the plant has been invaded by a pathogen and has initiated a
A)avirulence response.
B)pathogenic response.
C)hypersensitive response.
D)resistance response.
E)virulence response.
Q2) The addition of a phosphate group to a protein is called ________,and it usually results in ________.
A)dephosphorylation;mutation
B)phosphorylation;protein activation or inactivation
C)signal transduction;changes in gene transcription
D)photoreversibilty;changes in growth patterns
Q3) Shoots that grow vertically toward the sun can be characterized as
A)positively phototropic and negatively gravitropic.
B)positively phototropic and positively gravitropic.
C)negatively phototropic and negatively gravitropic.
D)negatively phototropic and positively gravitropic.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following correctly identifies the function of the flower part named?
A)Sepals protect the flower bud.
B)Petals attract seed-dispersing animals.
C)The stigma produces pollen.
D)The carpel attracts pollinators.
E)All of these answers are correct.
Q2) How are the life cycles of liverworts and angiosperms alike?
A)In both groups,the sporophyte is the dominant generation.
B)In both groups,the gametophyte is the dominant generation.
C)In both groups,the gametophyte is smaller than the sporophyte.
D)In both groups,the sporophyte is smaller than the gametophyte.
E)In both groups,the sporophyte produces spores.
Q3) The flowering hormone is made in ________ and alters development of ________.
A)flowers;leaves
B)flowers;root meristem
C)leaves;apical meristem
D)leaves;flowers
E)roots;flowers
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Q1) Structure-function correlations exist throughout nature at all levels of organization,from the cellular level to systems level.Keeping this in mind,you visualize a cell under a microscope and it contains a lot of rough endoplasmic reticulum.What might you hypothesize the primary function of the cell to be?
A)energy storage
B)hormone (protein)synthesis and release
C)conduction of electrical signals
D)participation in the immune response
Q2) A woman standing and watching the stars on a cool,calm night will lose most of her body heat by which mechanism?
A)radiation
B)convection
C)conduction
D)evaporation
E)A and B only
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43
Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Q1) What role do chloride cells play in osmoregulation of marine fish with bony skeletons?
A)They actively transport chloride into the gills.
B)They mediate the movement of salt from seawater through their gills.
C)They are involved in excretion of excess salt.
D)They actively transport salt across the basolateral membrane of the rectal gland.
Q2) Freshwater fish dilute ammonia and excrete it in a watery urine.Both freshwater and saltwater fish get rid of ammonia through diffusion across the gills.Humans convert ammonia to urea and excrete it in the urine.Birds convert ammonia to uric acid and excrete it.Why is it important for birds to get rid of ammonia?
A)It is insoluble in water.
B)Ammonia interferes with water loss.
C)It is toxic.
D)It is used to synthesize nonessential amino acids.
Q3) Where does filtration take place in the figure above?
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44
Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) Refer to Figure 43.1.Which of the mouthparts shown in the figure above are specialized for crushing and grinding?
Q2) The parietal cells that line the stomach secrete hydrogen ions into the stomach against a concentration gradient.Based on that knowledge,which of the following transport processes is most likely involved in hydrogen ion secretion?
A)diffusion
B)facilitated diffusion
C)active transport
D)endocytosis
Q3) How would you,as an athlete or trainer,interpret the data portrayed in the graph above?
A)A high-carbohydrate diet is deleterious to all individuals because carbohydrates contain empty calories.
B)A high-carbohydrate diet consumed before an endurance event improves endurance.
C)The protein-fat diet resulted in the longest endurance.
D)It is highly probable that muscle cells involved in exercise use fatty acids as a fuel source.
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45
Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) What is the rate of diffusion in the gas-exchange organ of an air-breathing animal where the area for gas exchange in the lung is 200 mm²,the diffusion constant is 0.08,the PO (partial pressure of oxygen)of the air in the lung is 140 mm Hg,the PO in blood flowing into the lung is 90 mmHg,and the thickness of the gas exchange membrane is 0.001 mm?
A)800,000
B)125
C)00032
D)10,000,000
Q2) Which of the following best describes the process of ventilation?
A)the movement of oxygen gas through the blood of the circulatory system
B)the movement of carbon dioxide gas through the blood of the circulatory system
C)the movement of air through lungs or gills
D)the diffusion of gases into and out of the circulatory system
E)the diffusion of gases into and out of tissues where cellular respiration occurs
Q3) On the ECG above,which waveform represents electrical activity within the atria?
A)1
B)2
C)3
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following types of ions are most likely to cross the plasma membrane of a resting neuron?
A)K
B)Na
C)Ca
D)Cl
E)Mg
Q2) Most synapses found so far in the mammalian central nervous system (CNS)are classified as chemical rather than electrical.
A)true
B)false
Q3) Which nervous pathway does sensory information travel through to elicit a response in the effector cells?
A)CNS afferent division CNS interneuron PNS efferent division effector
B)PNS efferent division CNS interneuron PNS afferent division effector
C)CNS efferent division CNS interneuron PNS afferent division effector
D)PNS afferent division CNS interneuron PNS efferent division effector
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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) What causes rigor mortis?
A)exhaustion of Ca² from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B)lack of ATP in dead tissue
C)lack of acetylcholine (ACh)in dead tissue
D)cessation of action potentials after death
Q2) Bat echolocation (sonar)is most closely related to which human sensory system?
A)hearing
B)smell
C)taste
D)touch
E)vision
Q3) Compared to human eyes,the eyes of cephalopods (squid and octopus)
A)are extremely similar,with no significant differences.
B)are not camera eyes and do not have a single lens.
C)are inferior because they have few photoreceptors.
D)have an adaptive advantage because they do not have a blind spot.
Q4) The amount of depolarization that occurs in a sound-receptor cell is proportional to the volume (loudness)of the sound.
A)true
B)false
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) How can a single hormone can have multiple effects?
A)There could be different types of receptors in different target tissues.
B)There could be different second messengers in different target tissues.
C)There could be different signaling cascades in different target tissues.
D)All of the above answers apply.
E)Only answers A and B apply.
Q2) When partially digested food enters the small intestine from the stomach,several events must occur to protect the intestine and allow for the continued digestion of the food.One hormone in particular performs two of these functions.What intestinal hormone is responsible for causing the pancreas to release digestive enzymes and the gall bladder to release bile salts into the intestine?
A)secretin
B)cholecystokinin
C)insulin
D)epinephrine
E)corticosterone
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following hormones are secreted by a developing embryo during pregnancy in humans?
A)luteinizing hormone (LH)
B)progesterone
C)estradiol
D)human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Q2) Which of the following is FALSE regarding bird reproduction?
A)The female can still lay eggs even when fertilization has not taken place.
B)After they are laid,bird eggs have the same amount of nutrients as a human egg.
C)Birds lay eggs and thus are oviparous.
D)Female birds only have one ovary.
Q3) What is the significance of using the concentrations of 5,25,and 100 ng/l of 17 -estradiol for the dose in this experiment?
A)These concentrations are similar to those found in many animals.
B)These concentrations are found in the environment.
C)These concentrations are effective,yet not lethal to the fish.
D)These concentrations are standard in toxicology assays.
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Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the humoral immune response and NOT true of the cell-mediated immune response?
A)involves T cells at some level
B)require CD8 cells for activation
C)involves destroying entire cells and not just the pathogen
D)uses antibodies as its main weapon
E)All of these answers are true of the humoral immune response and not true of the cell-mediated immune response.
Q2) What do neutrophils and macrophages have in common?
A)Both ingest and kill bacteria.
B)Both arrive simultaneously at a wound site.
C)Both secrete cytokines.
D)Both secrete lysozymes.
Q3) Which of the following would put you at increased risk of pathogens entering your body?
A)a mutation preventing you from making lysozyme
B)cleaning the wax out of your ears on a daily basis
C)a mutation that causes your mucus secretions to be extremely watery
D)all of the above
E)A and C only
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) On Earth,the general trend is that with decreasing latitude and increased solar radiation,there is ________ produced by photosynthesis (by plants,etc).
A)an increase in biodiversity because of increased oxygen supplies
B)a decrease in biodiversity because of increased oxygen supplies
C)an increase in biodiversity because of increased biomass (food)
D)a decrease in biodiversity because of increased biomass (food)
Q2) What is the main difference between climate and weather?
A)Weather typically describes a larger area than climate.
B)Climate typically describes longer-term conditions.
C)Climate typically describes shorter-term conditions.
D)Weather includes temperature and climate does not.
Q3) Based on the data in the figure above,which of the following statements is false?
A)Area 1 has more average precipitation than area 2.
B)Area 1 has a higher average temperature than area 2.
C)Both areas have variation in monthly precipitation.
D)Area 2 has a smaller annual temperature variation compared to area 1.
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Chapter 51: Behavioural Ecology
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Q1) Based on your knowledge of cost-benefit analysis,why would you expect some white-fronted bee-eaters to fly very far away from the nests to forage when there are food sources nearby?
A)There might be some plentiful food sources further away.
B)Competition for food is too intense near the nest.
C)Food near the nest is usually of lower quality.
D)Predation is highest closest to the nest.
Q2) You have captured a number of rats from a wild population and quickly surmise with tests that they are very good at avoiding food with poisons.What would best explain this observation?
A)Rats are probably just intelligent enough to avoid poison.
B)Rats may experience a large variety of toxins in their environment and learn to avoid them.
C)Rats may learn this behavior from their parents or siblings.
D)Rats may be able to tolerate large amounts of poison.
Q3) Which of the following has greatest coefficient of relatedness?
A)black bear siblings
B)human fraternal twins
C)worker honey bees
D)tiger siblings
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Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Q1) What is the primary limiting factor that determines why no female animal can produce a very large number of very large eggs?
A)time
B)energy stores
C)temperature
D)male availability
Q2) What conclusion can you draw from the figure above?
A)Hares control lynx population size.
B)Lynx control hare population size.
C)Lynx and hare populations are independent of each other.
D)The relationship between the populations cannot be determined from this graph.
Q3) In the figure above,which of the following survivorship curves most applies to humans living in developed countries?
A)curve A
B)curve B
C)curve C
D)none of the above
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Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) Which are the only two interaction types to depend on density and effective defense to determine the short-term impact?
A)competition and consumption
B)consumption and parasitism
C)parasitism and mutualism
D)mutualism and commensalism
Q2) According to the figure above,which species is more successful in competing for seeds?
A)species 1
B)species 2
C)These species do not compete for seeds.
D)This figure does not illustrate which species is more successful.
Q3) Which one of the following animals would most likely be defined as a keystone species?
A)sea otter
B)housefly
C)fathead minnow
D)nauplii (a species of zooplankton)
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Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Q1) Considering the global water cycle depicted in the figure above,where does one find the largest amount of water changing phases?
A)groundwater runoff to oceans
B)movement of water vapor from ocean to land
C)evaporation/transpiration and precipitation over land
D)evaporation and precipitation over the oceans
Q2) Which terrestrial category in the figure above has the highest economic impact on Earth's ecosystem?
A)tropical wet forest
B)rock,sand,and ice
C)tropical seasonal forest
D)bogs
Q3) Detritus can be consumed by which of the following primary decomposers?
A)bacteria
B)archaea
C)fungi
D)earthworms
E)all of the above
Q4) How are the components in the figure above linked by the flow of energy?
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Erwin and Scott used an insecticidal fog to knock down insects from the top of a L.seemannii tree.The researchers identified over 900 species of beetles among the individuals that fell.Erwin also projected that this entire tree is host to about 600 specialist arthropods.There are approximately 50,000 species of tropical trees.Although it could not be entirely accurate,what would be the best way to estimate the total number of arthropod species?
A)Estimate the species density and then multiply by 50,000.
B)Multiply 900 by 50,000.
C)Multiply 600 by 50,000.
D)Divide 900 by 600 and then multiply by 50,000.
Q2) Why is it important to preserve the tuataras (see Figure 55.1)?
A)The group has very few representatives of its lineage.
B)The group is particularly sensitive to environmental disturbances.
C)The group has low genetic diversity.
D)The group is economically important.
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding extinction is FALSE?
A)Only certain species are immune from extinction.
B)Species are vanishing today faster than at any other time in Earth's history.
C)Extinction occurs whether humans interfere or not.
D)Extinctions can even be caused indirectly by humans.
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