Principles of Biology Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology provides an introduction to foundational concepts in the biological sciences, exploring the molecular and cellular basis of life, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. This course examines the structure and function of cells, mechanisms of inheritance, principles of evolution and natural selection, as well as interactions between organisms and their environments. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, critical analysis of biological data, and the relevance of biological principles to real-world problems and advances in biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook Essentials of Biology 3rd Edition by Sylvia Mader
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32 Chapters
1770 Verified Questions
1770 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A View of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The metabolic reactions that rake place in a cell obey all of the same laws and require the same conditions necessary for any chemical reaction to occur. To make these reactions possible cells
A) maintain the correct temperature, moisture level and acidity as well as other factors.
B) rely on the external conditions in the environment.
C) are at the mercy of change that occur as each reaction progresses in the cell.
D) rely on external factors that control their internal conditions.
E) sidestep the conditions by manipulating the external environment.
Answer: A
Q2) In science, a theory
A) is tested by an experiment.
B) is more narrow in scope than a hypothesis.
C) encompasses many hypotheses.
D) cannot be tested.
E) is held to be an absolutely correct answer to a question.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A coke has a pH of 3.5. This means that it has an excess of _______ ions and would be called a(n) _____.
A) H<sup>+</sup>; acid
B) OH<sup>-</sup>; acid
C) H<sup>+</sup>; base
D) OH<sup>-</sup>; base
E) H<sup>+</sup>; neutral solution
Answer: A
Q2) Regarding atoms, identify which statement below is correct.
A) An element may be composed of several types of atoms.
B) The nucleus of an atom contains protons and electrons.
C) The number and arrangement of electrons in an atom governs its chemical activity.
D) The positive charges of an element are carried by the electrons.
E) The neutral charges of an element are carried by the protons.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Organic Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fatty acid that has at least two double bonds is called _________.
A) steroid
B) cholesterol
C) unsaturated
D) abonded
E) organic
Answer: C
Q2) A nucleotide is made of which of the following chemical components?
A) a nitrogen-containing base, an amino acid, and a five-carbon sugar
B) a nitrogen-containing base, an amino acid, and a phosphate group
C) a nitrogen-containing base, a phosphate group, and a sugar
D) a nitrogen-containing base, a fatty acid, and an amino acid
E) a long chain of glucose units
Answer: C
Q3) The shape of a protein is a critical factor in its function.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Inside the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a type of intracellular protein?
A) actin filaments
B) myosin
C) cellulose
D) microtubules
E) keratin
Q2) What must materials pass through to enter or leave a cell?
A) ribosome
B) nucleus
C) plasma membrane
D) lysosome
E) vacuole
Q3) A tadpole that is undergoing metamophosis into a frog and losing the need for a tail would see abundant numbers of what organelle to help assist in the tail loss.
A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B) vacuoles
C) centrioles
D) microtubles
E) lysosomes
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Dynamic Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) The opposite of a turgid plant cell is a ________.
A) hypertonic plant cell
B) osmotic plant cell
C) isotonic plant cell
D) plasmolyzed plant cell
E) ruptured plant cell
Q2) Once the substrate moves into the active site of the enzyme
A) the enzyme breaks the substrate into three products.
B) the two molecules fuse together to form the product.
C) the enzyme alters in shape to more closely fit the substrate.
D) the substrate alters shape to more closely fit the active site.
E) the substrate and enzyme both alter shape to fit together.
Q3) The second law of thermodynamics states that all energy transformations result in more disordered energy. How can photosynthesis take more disordered carbon dioxide and water and convert them into glucose which is more ordered?
A) living things do not obey the laws of thermodynamics
B) this is an illusion, it only appears that glucose is more ordered
C) photosynthesis is an exception to the second law of thermodynamics
D) solar energy is being added to the reaction to create glucose
E) plants are able to harness entropy and use it to carry out photosynthesis
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Chapter 6: Energy for Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new species of plant is discovered and you are asked to help classify it. Upon examination under a microscope, you find that there is a layer of bundle sheath cells containing chloroplasts around the vein of the leaf of the plant. What can you tell about the plant from this?
A) This plant is unlike any other plant that has ever been discovered and is a completely new category of plant.
B) This plant very likely carries out C<sub>4</sub> photosynthesis.
C) This plant falls into the category of CAM type plants.
D) This plant uses chemosynthesis rather than photosynthesis.
E) This is a C<sub>3</sub> type of plant.
Q2) CAM photosynthesis limits CO<sub>2</sub> fixation to nighttime hours in order to
A) allow water to enter leaf spaces during the daylight hours.
B) open stomata only at night, limiting water loss because of heat and low humidity.
C) allow NADPH and ATP to enter leaf spaces.
D) limit the Calvin cycle reactions to nighttime only.
E) limit water uptake from the soil during daytime hours.
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Chapter 7: Energy for Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new organism is discovered which contains a super enzyme that requires no ATP to split glucose into pyruvate but cannot function if oxygen is present. What is this organism's net production of ATP from one molecule of glucose?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 38
D) 40
E) 42
Q2) The products of fermentation depend on the type of organism carrying out the process. Yeasts are used to produce
A) wine, beer, and bread with lactic acid fermentation.
B) only wine and beer with lactic acid fermentation.
C) wine, beer, and bread with alcohol fermentation.
D) wine and beer with alcohol fermentation and bread with lactic acid fermentation.
E) wine with alcohol fermentation and beer and bread with lactic acid fermentation.
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Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) If there are twenty centromeres in a cell, how many chromosomes are there?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80
Q2) Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measure of DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. One nucleus had 5 picograms of DNA. What stage of the cell cycle was the nucleus in?
A) G<sub>0</sub>
B) G<sub>1</sub>
C) S
D) G<sub>2</sub>
E) M
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) In each gamete following telophase II, how many copies of each gene is/are present?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 8
Q2) Which of the diagrams best illustrates the appearance of a chromosome pair in a cell at the end of prophase I?
A) diagram 1
B) diagram 2
C) diagram 3
D) diagram 4
E) diagram 5
Q3) It is essential that germ cells undergo meiosis so that
A) the cells can differentiate.
B) the fertilized egg has half the genetic material of the parents.
C) the number of chromosomes is cut in half in gametes.
D) genetic disorders are prevented.
E) genetic diversity is reduced.
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A male is always homozygous for a trait that is _________.
A) codominant
B) X-linked
C) autosomal
D) dominant
E) dihybrid
Q2) In a monohybrid cross, how many traits are examined?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q3) If a heterozygous dominant tall pea plant is crossed with a short pea plant, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of tall:short plants?
A) 1:1
B) 1:2
C) 3:1
D) all tall
E) all short
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Page 12
Chapter 11: DNA Biology and Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If RNA polymerase malfunctions,
A) one of the subunits of rRNA will not be transcribed from DNA.
B) amino acids will not be joined to their tRNA.
C) mRNA cannot bind to rRNA.
D) an mRNA will not be formed.
E) mRNA cannot copy itself.
Q2) Mutations are uncommon because
A) DNA repair enzymes often repair errors.
B) physical mutagens such as X-rays seldom damage DNA.
C) DNA is able to repair itself over time.
D) frameshift mutations occur very frequently.
E) transposons are constantly moving throughout the genome.
Q3) A defect in DNA ligase would most likely cause
A) normal replication, but gaps remain in the sugar-phosphate DNA backbone.
B) failure to remove introns from the primary mRNA.
C) incompletely processed primary mRNA that does not get translated properly.
D) translation to initiate normally, but fail to proceed to elongation.
E) DNA strands to separate normally, but fail to join nucleotides in the growing nucleotide chain.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Gene Regulation and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Embryonic cells and cancer cells are similar because
A) DNA polymerase is inactive.
B) telomerase is active.
C) telomerase is inactive.
D) RNA polymerase is inactive.
E) proto-oncogenes are inactive.
Q2) Why do adult stem cells currently have fewer uses in therapeutic cloning than embryonic stem cells?
A) Embryonic stem cells have longer telomeres and persist for much longer than adult stem cells.
B) Embryonic stem cells are capable of reverting to a G<sub>0</sub> stage when starved.
C) Adult stem cells may become any type of cell, whereas embryonic stem cells may only become adult stem cells first.
D) Embryonic stem cells may become any type of cell, whereas adult stem cells may only become a limited number of cell types.
E) Adult stem cells have more restrictions that prevent them from re-entering the cell cycle at the G<sub>0</sub> stage.
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Chapter 13: Genetic Counseling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Testing for a protein may help reveal whether or not an individual has a genetic disorder.
A)True B)False
Q2) A mutation in a gene that causes the protein to acquire an abnormal activity, such as aggregating within the cell, will usually cause a dominant inherited disorder.
A)True B)False
Q3) A pedigree chart is an important tool for a genetic counselor because
A) it provides the genotype of all the family members.
B) it shows the family history for one genetic trait.
C) it shows whether a child will have a genetic disorder or not.
D) it does not reveal the sexes of the individuals.
E) it reveals the mode of inheritance of any particular genetic trait.
Q4) A female child with an unaffected father can exhibit an X-linked recessive disorder. A)True B)False
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Chapter 14: Darwin and Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fitness refers to
A) the variation in traits within the population.
B) reproductive success.
C) mutations that benefit an organism's survival.
D) the physical health of an individual.
E) the physical health of a population.
Q2) Critical to the theory of evolution, Darwin needed to include an idea that was not generally accepted by scientists or society at that time. That idea was
A) that catastrophism occurred at a uniform rate.
B) that the inheritance of acquired characteristics was true.
C) that the Earth must be very old.
D) that uniformitarianism was false.
E) that diversity of life was constant through time.
Q3) Analogous structures are evidence of common ancestry.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Environmental catastrophes are a requirement of natural selection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Evolution on a Small Scale
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what type of environment is being heterozygous in regards to the sickle cell trait an advantage?
A) An environment that has malaria.
B) An environment that is malaria free.
C) Environment that is exposed to a large amount of sunlight year round.
D) Environments that are degraded.
E) Cold and rainy environments favor the heterozygote.
Q2) What is the typical mutation rate within a cell?
A) 1/100,000
B) 1/1000
C) 1/10,000
D) 1/100
E) 1/10
Q3) Which of the following does not result in a decrease of genetic variation?
A) natural selection
B) genetic drift
C) bottleneck effect
D) founder effect
E) mutation
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Chapter 16: Evolution on a Large Scale
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the three domain system of classification,
A) eukaryotes are more similar to the prokaryotes now classified into domain Bacteria than to those now classified into domain Archaea.
B) animals and plants are less similar to each other than to the prokaryotes now classified into domain Archaea.
C) prokaryotes are classified into two domains, with the organisms in domain Archaea more similar to eukaryotes than to the prokaryotes in the domain Bacteria.
D) cladistics alone were used to formulate the new phylogenetic tree of life.
E) by the principle of parsimony, it required fewer assumptions to divide the prokaryotes into two domains than it did to put them into a single domain.
Q2) Which of the following lists the levels of taxonomic classification in order from the most inclusive to the least inclusive?
A) genus - family - order - class - phylum
B) phylum - order - class - family - species
C) genus - order - family - class - phylum
D) family - order - class - phylum - kingdom
E) domain - kingdom - phylum - class - order
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Chapter 17: The Microorganisms: Viruses, Bacteria, and Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some bacteria carry out a metabolic process known as fermentation, and A) consume acids.
B) produce acids.
C) produce oxygen.
D) consume oxygen.
E) consume both acids and oxygen.
Q2) Retroviruses _____________.
A) contain DNA
B) contain reverse transcriptase
C) produce RNA from DNA
D) only invade plants
E) produce protein directly from DNA
Q3) Viroids and prions are alike in that both are infectious ________.
A) cell types
B) proteins
C) molecules
D) DNA
E) RNA
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Chapter 18: Land Environment: Plants and Fungi
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Q1) You discover a green, filamentous multicellular eukaryote growing at the edge of a pond. How could you determine if the organism is a green alga or a plant?
A) Test for the presence of chlorophylls a and b.
B) Examine the cell walls to see if they are composed of cellulose.
C) See if the organism stores its excess carbohydrates in the form of starch.
D) Determine if the organism protects its zygotes.
E) Determine if the organism protects and nourishes its embryos.
Q2) Which structure is characteristic of angiosperms?
A) vascular tissue
B) seed
C) leaf
D) flower
E) megaphyll
Q3) Which structure is the ovary?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Both Water and Land: Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which feature is present in cnidarians but lacking in sponges?
A) cellular level of organization
B) filter feeding
C) multicellularity
D) radial symmetry
E) cnidarians are classified as an animal while sponges are not animals
Q2) Organisms that live in a marine environment, have skin gills, tube feet, a coelom, and a water vascular system are classified as a(n)
A) tunicate.
B) lancelet.
C) planarian.
D) oligochaete.
E) echinoderm.
Q3) Which of these is not a bivalve?
A) barnacle
B) oyster
C) clam
D) mussel
E) scallop
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Plant Anatomy and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which zone of the eudicot root tip is formed from the division of the apical meristem cells?
A) zone of maturation
B) zone of elongation
C) zone of cell division
D) root cap
E) epidermis
Q2) Eudicot roots may experience secondary growth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____ and _____ are micronutrients in plants, while ____ and ____ are macronutrients.
A) Mn; Zn; N; O
B) Mn; O; Zn; C
C) Cu; K; O; H
D) Cu; K; B; Mn
E) Mn; Zn; B; N
Q4) Mineral transport in plants occurs
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Plant Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The application of abscisic acid to a plant may prevent fruit maturation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a eudicot seed, the zygote becomes the _____, while the _______ is derived from the endosperm.
A) embryo; seed coat
B) cotyledons; embryo
C) embryo; cotyledons
D) embryo; stored food
E) stored food; seed coat
Q3) A winter bud begins winter with an amount of abscisic acid to maintain dormancy. Dormancy is broken in the spring because of
A) a gradual reduction in abscisic acid over winter.
B) an increase of abscisic acid production by the meristem within the bud.
C) an increase in cytokinin in the leaves.
D) a gradual reduction of auxin in the shoot tip.
E) a gradual increase in ethylene production by the meristem within the bud.
Q4) A root growing into the Earth is exhibiting negative gravitropism.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Being Organized and Steady
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Sample Questions
Q1) The source in the body of sample two is
A) the heart.
B) a skeletal muscle.
C) a tendon or ligament.
D) the stomach.
E) the lungs.
Q2) If your body is dehydrated, having insufficient fluid levels in the blood, the control center in the brain will stimulate the release of a hormone which will cause water to be reabsorbed into the blood during urine formation. When the control center senses that enough water is reabsorbed, it will stop the release of the hormone. This is an example of A) a negative feedback mechanism.
B) a positive feedback mechanism.
C) response to external stimuli.
D) lack of control over homeostasis.
E) a combination of negative and positive feedback.
Q3) The urinary system and respiratory system both participate in homeostasis by removing metabolic waste.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: The Transport Systems
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Q1) When red blood cells are destroyed, the heme molecule is returned to the bone marrow to be used again.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following correctly gives the orders of events in a cardiac cycle?
A) atria contract, ventricles contract, AV valves close, ventricles relax, semilunar valves close
B) ventricles contract, AV valves close, atria contract, ventricles relax, semilunar valves close
C) ventricles relax, atria contract, ventricles relax, AV valves close, semilunar valves close
D) AV valves close, ventricles relax, atria contract, semilunar valves close, ventricles contract
E) ventricles contract, atria contract, AV valves close, ventricles relax, semilunar valves close
Q3) Formation of plaques in atherosclerosis can lead to hypertension, blood clots, stroke, and heart attacks.
A)True
B)False
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25
Chapter 24: The Maintenance Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The figure shown represents urine formation. What specific process is occurring at #2?
A) secretion
B) filtration
C) reabsorption
D) excretion
E) urination
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
A) produces plasma proteins such as fibrin and fibrinogen
B) detoxifies the blood by removing poisonous substances
C) produces insulin and glucagon
D) produces bile
E) produces urea from amino acids
Q3) In the figure shown here, O<sub>2</sub> enters the blood stream and CO<sub>2</sub> leaves the blood stream
A) at A.
B) at B.
C) at C.
D) through active transport.
E) in a process called internal respiration.
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Chapter 25: Human Nutrition
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Q1) Anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa are similar in that both involve
A) a starvation diet.
B) a less than healthy body weight.
C) binging and purging.
D) a normal body weight.
E) an abnormal focus on muscle development.
Q2) Trans fats are
A) found naturally in animals.
B) found naturally in plants.
C) produced by hydrogenating unsaturated oils.
D) produced by hydrogenating saturated fats.
E) produced by hydrogenating animal fats.
Q3) Which meal plan is in the closest accordance of the UDSA guide lines?
A) 6 oz. grains, 2.5 cups of vegetables, 2 cups of fruit and 3 cups of milk
B) 2 oz. of grains, 1 cup of vegetables, 2 cups of fruit and 2 cups of milk
C) 6 oz. grains, 2.5 cups of vegetables, 1 cup oils and 5.5 oz. of meat
D) 3 oz. grains, 2 cups fruits, 3 tsp. oils, and 5.5 oz meat
E) 3 cups vegetables, 2 cups fruit, 1 cup milk, and 4 oz meat
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Chapter 26: Defenses Against Diseases
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Q1) Which substances are examples of antigens?
A) protein and carbohydrates
B) nucleic acids and proteins
C) lipids and proteins
D) lipids and carbohydrates
E) nucleic acids and carbohydrates
Q2) In this figure, "B" represents ____________ which is released by "A", _________.
A) histamine; mast cells
B) histamine; neutrophils
C) antibodies; mast cells
D) pathogens; bacteria
E) antibodies; B cells
Q3) Bacteria moved out of the lungs by cilia in the respiratory system are prevented from entering the body because the are often killed by
A) lymphocytes in the saliva.
B) filters lining the pharynx.
C) stomach acid.
D) lymph nodes at the base of the tongue.
E) mucus in the trachea.
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Chapter 27: Control Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is part of both the nervous and endocrine systems, and is crucial to maintenance of homeostasis?
A) adrenal medulla
B) thyroid gland
C) hypothalamus
D) thalamus
E) medulla oblongata
Q2) Which part of a neuron could be covered with a myelin sheath?
A) nucleus
B) axon
C) dendrite
D) cell body
E) terminal
Q3) Weight gain, diabetes mellitus, and a moon-shaped face indicate
A) Addison disease.
B) Graves disease.
C) simple goiter.
D) pituitary dwarfism.
E) Cushing syndrome.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Sensory Input and Motor Output
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Q1) The smell of crayons always brings back fond memories of kindergarten and makes you feel happy. This is because the olfactory bulbs have direct connections with the A) limbic system.
B) thalamus.
C) medulla oblongata.
D) cochlear nerve.
E) vestibular system.
Q2) The contractile units of skeletal muscle are the A) myofibrils.
B) sarcomeres.
C) sarcolemma.
D) sarcoplasmic reticulum.
E) osteons.
Q3) The colored part of the eye is the A) pupil.
B) cornea.
C) iris.
D) retina.
E) sclera.
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Chapter 29: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) There is an old joke that goes, "What do you call a couple who practices coitus interruptus? Parents!" Is there any truth to this joke?
A) Yes, because coitus interrupts is only practiced by couples who already have children.
B) No, because coitus interruptus is the most effective means of birth control.
C) Yes, because coitus interruptus is one of the least effective means of birth control.
D) No, because coitus interruptus is not only a highly effective means of birth control, it also protects against STDs.
E) Yes, because a coitus interruptus is only effective if carefully inserted before intercourse.
Q2) Unfertilized eggs of female Komodo dragons may develop to produce a young Komodo dragon. This is an example of A) parturition.
B) assisted reproduction.
C) parthenogenesis.
D) abiogenesis.
E) copulation.
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Chapter 30: Ecology and Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Meghan is studying interactions between caribou and their wolf predators. This is an example of ___________ ecology.
A) population
B) community
C) ecosystem
D) biosphere
E) demographic
Q2) During a recent hurricane, 25 individuals of the same butterfly species were blown onto a barrier island in southern Florida. After several years, the population stabilized with approximately 150 individuals. The butterflies and the flowers that they require for food would be considered an example of a(n) __________.
A) organism
B) population
C) community
D) ecosystem
E) biosphere
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Chapter 31: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terrestrial ecosystems has the highest rate of primary productivity?
A) marsh
B) tropical rainforest
C) temperate rainforest
D) prairies
E) tundras
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a sedimentary cycle?
A) the phosphorus cycle
B) the nitrogen cycle
C) the carbon cycle
D) the atmospheric cycle
E) eutrophic cycle
Q3) Which of the following is an autotroph?
A) rose bush
B) lion
C) decomposer
D) omnivore
E) hyena
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Chapter 32: Human Impact on the Biosphere
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Q1) Deforestation may contribute towards climate change because
A) the trees naturally trap heat near the Earth's surface, and the loss of trees allows this heat to escape into space through the atmosphere.
B) it leads to habitat loss for many forest species, which invade nearby marginal habitats, including those used by humans.
C) loss of trees disrupts the carbon cycle, limiting the amount that is absorbed by plants, and increasing the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
D) the forest canopy reflects some solar radiation back into space, allowing more of it to penetrate to the Earth's surface.
E) it leads to salinization of the land.
Q2) More sparse urban settlement patterns may help conserve energy and preserve the environment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Beach erosion is often caused by structures built to prevent erosion.
A)True
B)False
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