Principles of Biology Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology provides a foundational introduction to the study of living organisms, exploring the fundamental concepts and processes that govern life. The course covers topics such as the structure and function of cells, genetics and heredity, energy flow and metabolism, evolution and natural selection, as well as ecology and the interactions between organisms and their environments. Laboratory activities and critical thinking exercises supplement theoretical learning, allowing students to apply the scientific method to investigate biological phenomena and develop a deeper appreciation for the diversity and complexity of life on Earth.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Science for Life with Physiology Edition 5th Edition by Colleen M. Belk
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25 Chapters
1631 Verified Questions
1631 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Can Science Cure the Common Cold
Introduction to the Scientific Method
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79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19878
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the result when a well-tested hypothesis is supported by many independent studies in the scientific community?
A) The hypothesis would be considered a scientific theory.
B) The hypothesis is now be referred to as a prediction.
C) Further experiments would not occur unless a sufficient alternative is proposed.
D) The hypothesis is a fact that cannot be refuted.
Answer: A
Q2) How did Barry Marshall test the hypothesis that H. pylori causes stomach ulcers?
A) He surveyed people with stomach ulcers about the acidity of their food.
B) He ingested live H. pylori and developed acute stomach pain.
C) He interviewed physicians who performed surgeries on ulcer patients.
D) He fed spicy foods to laboratory rats to eliminate an alternate hypothesis.
Answer: B
Q3) What is a scientific theory?
A) an explanation supported by large amounts of experimental evidence
B) an explanation that cannot be modified with new experimental evidence
C) little more than one person's educated guess
D) any testable explanation for a question or problem
Answer: A
Page 3
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Chapter
Pseudoscience:
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the pH of a neutral solution?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
Answer: C
Q2) Which macromolecule has a sugar-phosphate backbone?
A) lipid
B) nucleic acid
C) protein
D) polysaccharide
Answer: B
Q3) How do the concentrations of H and OH compare to each other in an acidic solution?
A) The concentration of H is higher.
B) The concentration of H is lower.
C) The concentration of H is the same.
D) Acidic solutions do not contain H .
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Is It Possible to Supplement Your Way to Better
Performance and Health
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is fiber an important part of a healthful human diet?
A) It is easily digested into monosaccharides, which are used for energy.
B) It may decrease the risk of certain types of cancers.
C) It increases the amount of HDL and LDL cholesterol in the body.
D) It contains more energy, gram for gram, than any other nutrient.
Answer: B
Q2) What is the purpose of vitamins in the human body?
A) Vitamins are sources of stored energy.
B) Vitamins help enzymes function properly.
C) Vitamins act as hormones that trigger cells to take up glucose.
D) Vitamins are the basis of the plasma membrane.
Answer: B
Q3) Why are the trans-fatty acids common in fast foods a concern to nutritionists?
A) They increase the incidence of clogged arteries.
B) They decrease the availability of iron to bodily cells.
C) They cannot be digested by the human body.
D) They outcompete the enzymes needed for normal bodily functions.
Answer: A
Q4) What are the "work-bench" structures where cell proteins are assembled?
Answer: ribosomes
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Chapter 4: Body Weight and Health: Enzymes, Metabolism, and Cellular Respiration
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the proteins that catalyze chemical reactions in the body?
A) enzymes
B) coenzymes
C) antioxidants
D) high-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
Q2) Which molecules are made during glycolysis?
A) NADH and ATP
B) ADP and NADPH
C) water and NAD
D) oxygen and water
Q3) Which molecules are required by the body but do not produce ATP?
A) carbohydrates
B) proteins
C) fats
D) vitamins
Q4) What is meant by metabolism?
A) the body's ability to lose weight
B) the body's ability to maintain a constant temperature
C) all of the chemical reactions occurring in the body
D) the chemical reactions that create molecules in the body
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Chapter 5: Life in the Greenhouse: Photosynthesis and Climate Change
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is water so important in controlling Earth's climate?
A) Water vapor is one of the greenhouse gases that allows the release of heat into space.
B) The water in oceans and lakes stores the energy radiated by the sun and releases it slowly.
C) Water warms up quickly when very little energy is added to it.
D) The evaporation of water from oceans and lakes cools the temperature of the continents.
Q2) What process converts carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen?
A) photosynthesis
B) cellular respiration
C) glycolysis
D) fermentation
Q3) Where do the light reactions of photosynthesis occur?
A) stroma
B) outer chloroplast membrane
C) thylakoids
D) rubisco
Q4) What unconsumed macromolecule from dead organisms eventually formed fossil fuels?
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Chapter 6: Cancer: DNA Synthesis, Mitosis, and Meiosis
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which feature is found in DNA?
A) Adenine (A) forms a base pair with cytosine (C).
B) The backbone of each strand is composed of alternating sugar and phosphate groups.
C) Complementary strands are held together by ionic bonds.
D) DNA remains condensed in a short linear form both before and after cell division.
Q2) Which cells would spend the most time in interphase?
A) skin cells on the hands
B) epithelial cells lining the intestine
C) nerve cells in the brain
D) mucous membrane cells in the mouth
Q3) Which statement describes human sperm or egg cells?
A) They are produced by the process of mitosis.
B) They have one copy of each chromosome.
C) They have two copies of each chromosome.
D) They are genetically identical to all gametes made by a person.
Q4) What are specialized cells (egg cells and sperm cells, for example) used for sexual reproduction?
Q5) What enzyme assists in DNA synthesis? (two words)
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Chapter 7: Are You Only As Smart As Your Genes Mendelian and Quantitative Genetics
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71 Verified Questions
71 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In pea plants, the allele for purple flowers (P) is dominant to the allele for white flowers (p). In a cross between a purple-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant, all 73 of the offspring plants had purple flowers. Which cross would provide such results?
A) pp × pp
B) Pp × Pp
C) PP × PP
D) PP × pp
Q2) What information can be inferred if the estimated heritability of a trait is approximately 0.50?
A) The environment must have little to no influence over the expression of the trait.
B) Genes exclusively control the expression of the trait in at least 50% of the population.
C) At least 50% of the variation in the trait in the population is due to genetic differences.
D) The environment completely controls the variation in the trait in the population.
Q3) What is the estimated influence of genes (as opposed to environment) on a trait called?
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9
Chapter 8: DNA Detective: Complex Patterns of Inheritance and
Dna Profiling
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What blood type would a child with the genotype IAi have?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
Q2) On what basis does gel electrophoresis separate DNA segments?
A) weight
B) length
C) types of nucleotides
D) complexity
Q3) What is the ability of a gene to cause multiple effects on a phenotype?
A) pleiotropy
B) codominance
C) polygenic inheritance
D) continuous variation
Q4) What types and numbers of chromosomes are found in humans?
A) two pairs of sex chromosomes and 46 pairs of autosomes
B) two pairs of sex chromosomes and 22 pairs of autosomes
C) one pair of sex chromosomes and 46 pairs of autosomes
D) one pair of sex chromosomes and 22 pairs of autosomes
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Chapter 9: Genetically Modified Organisms: Gene
Expression, Mutation,
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What changes should result from using stem cells in therapeutic cloning?
A) healthy tissues
B) new genomes
C) model organisms
D) reproductive clones
Q2) What is pharming?
A) the use of genetically modified crops with organic pesticides
B) the use of genetically modified organisms to produce medical treatments
C) the use of gene guns to produce genetically modified fish species
D) the use of genetically modified organisms that are photosynthetic
Q3) What type of bond forms between amino acids at the ribosome during translation?
A) peptide
B) ester
C) phosphodiester
D) hydrogen
Q4) What are the "highly specific molecular scissors" that cut DNA?
A) plasmids
B) anticodons
C) codons
D) restriction enzymes
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Chapter 10: Where Did We Come From the Evidence for Evolution
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why would intelligent design not be considered a scientific explanation for the origin of living things?
A) It is not a testable strategy.
B) It is not a testable hypothesis.
C) It is not a testable experiment.
D) It is not a testable theory.
Q2) Which taxonomic level would contain members that are the most similar?
A) class
B) genus
C) kingdom
D) order
Q3) When a biologist is looking for a suitable organism in which she can study the process of evolution in a laboratory setting, what would be an important consideration?
A) The organism should be large.
B) The organism should have a short generation time.
C) The organism should produce relatively few offspring.
D) The organism should have a complete fossil record of its ancestry.
Q4) Based on DNA evidence, fossil evidence, homology, and vestigial structures, what do humans and chimpanzees share?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: An Evolving Enemy: Natural Selection
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary body part affected by tuberculosis?
A) the liver
B) the muscles
C) the immune system
D) the lungs
Q2) True or false: During a time when resources are abundant, one would not expect much evolutionary change.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which variation could be subject to natural selection?
A) A dog with short legs due to malnutrition is able to crawl into holes better than his littermates.
B) A tree is not infested by a ground-dwelling beetle when the homeowner cuts the lower branches.
C) A hyena is born with a spotted fur pattern that allows it to hide in the grass better than its littermates.
D) A pigeon learns that when its keeper comes near it will get fed.
Q4) What process could result from the natural selection explained by Darwin in his book The Origin of Species?
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Chapter 12: Who Am I Species and Races
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fruit flies all look more or less alike. If you have a male and female fruit fly, how could you test the hypothesis that they're the same species?
A) Determine the sequence of several of their genes.
B) Examine them closely under a microscope, and compare what you see to a published description of fruit flies.
C) See if they'll mate when they're put together.
D) See if they mate and if their offspring can also mate.
Q2) Why might traits such as skin color be fairly consistent within a racial group, but alleles for skin color aren't consistent?
A) There's no relationship between alleles and skin color.
B) Skin color is influenced by many genes, so several different gene pools can produce the same skin color.
C) Only one gene is important in skin color, and when analysis is limited to that gene, there's clear evidence of a long separation of groups.
D) Few allele variations between groups are just what you would expect if races were genealogical species.
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14
Chapter 13: The Greatest Species on Earth Biodiversity and Classification
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For what reason might scientists change the most current classification system?
A) if more species became extinct
B) if more types of vertebrates were discovered
C) if more information became available on the evolutionary history of existing species
D) if new species evolved
Q2) What evolutionary milestone is shown in the figure?
A) bacteria evolving into archaea
B) prokaryotes evolving into eukaryotes
C) protists evolving into animals
D) algae evolving into plants
Q3) True or false: Organisms on Earth are currently classified first as either plant or animal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the adaptive value of natural antibiotic production for fungi?
A) Bacteria use fungi for food.
B) Bacteria spoil the food that the fungi need for their own nutrition.
C) Bacteria are the main competitors with fungi for food.
D) Bacteria inhibit the reproduction of fungi.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Is the Human Population Too Large Population
Ecology
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19891
Sample Questions
Q1) Why may human populations surpass the carrying capacity of their environment?
A) temporary reliance on stored or nonrenewable resources
B) sudden population crashes
C) increases in death rates as the population growth approaches carrying capacity
D) decreases in birth rates as resources are depleted
Q2) True or false: The human population may continue to increase even though it surpasses carrying capacity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which energy source is a nonrenewable resource?
A) solar energy
B) hydrogen fuel cell
C) wind power
D) natural gas
Q4) What characteristics apply to developed countries?
A) industrial economies and low individual incomes
B) agricultural economies and high individual incomes
C) agricultural economies and low individual incomes
D) industrial economies and high individual incomes
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Chapter 15: Conserving Biodiversity: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19892
Sample Questions
Q1) During the last decade, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service has worked to reestablish the critically endangered California condor in its last stronghold, the mountains of southern California. Recently, the service has also tried to establish a second population in the Grand Canyon region of Arizona. Why would the Fish and Wildlife Service consider it a high priority to establish two populations that are geographically distant from each other?
A) Multiple condor populations reduce inbreeding.
B) Multiple condor populations provide more opportunities for people to view the endangered species, which may cause more people to be concerned with its fate.
C) Multiple condor populations reduce genetic drift within each population.
D) Multiple condor populations reduce the risk of extinction due to localized catastrophes.
Q2) In order to be considered extinct, a species can't be found
A) at all, in the wild or in captivity at the present time.
B) at all, presently or during the past 10 years.
C) at all, presently or during the past 50 years.
D) in the wild presently but may exist in captivity.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Where Do You Live Climate and Biomes
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19893
Sample Questions
Q1) What factor affects the average temperature of a region?
A) the amount of cloud cover that exists
B) the amount of light energy per unit area hitting it
C) whether there's an El Niño that year
D) the amount of precipitation it receives
Q2) What is the purpose of the fragrant oils found in rosemary and thyme?
A) They encourage humans to pick them and spread their seeds.
B) They protect the plants from fire.
C) They help fuel fires, to which they've become adapted.
D) They discourage humans from consuming the plants.
Q3) Why do the deciduous leaves on temperate forest trees turn from green to orange, red, and/or yellow before falling?
A) The chlorophyll changes color as it's broken down.
B) The chlorophyll is absorbed by the tree, leaving the other pigments visible.
C) New photosynthetic pigments are created as the amount of daylight becomes limited.
D) New pigments are created in response to colder temperatures.
Q4) In a general sense, ________ refers to short term environmental conditions, and ________ refers to long term environmental conditions.
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Chapter 17: Organ Donation: Tissues and Organs
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54 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does homeostasis allow an organism to do?
A) Organisms can obtain energy from food.
B) Organisms can interact with their specific environment.
C) Organisms can maintain a constant internal environment.
D) Organisms can survive without water for long periods of time.
Q2) How do ectotherms primarily regulate their body temperature?
A) by adjusting their rate of metabolism
B) by absorbing or releasing heat
C) by eating more or less, depending on their need for body heat
D) by panting when it gets too hot and shivering when it gets too cold
Q3) What process is responsible for the maintenance of blood glucose levels by the liver?
A) diabetes
B) thermoregulation
C) positive feedback
D) negative feedback
Q4) What connective tissue is made from substances secreted by osteocytes?
Q5) What tissue type protects the body from water loss?
Q6) What example of homeostasis includes the maintenance of constant internal body temperature?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Binge Drinking: the Digestive and Urinary Systems
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is emulsification?
A) the digestion of food inside vacuoles
B) the breaking up of fat molecules
C) the secretion of digestive enzymes in the stomach
D) the involuntary movement of a bolus through the alimentary canal
Q2) What is the contraction of smooth muscles that moves a bolus of food down the esophagus called?
A) emulsification
B) elimination
C) peristalsis
D) detoxification
Q3) What risk may result from mixing alcohol with energy drinks?
A) Large amounts of alcohol are digested in the stomach.
B) Less urine will be formed when drinking alcohol.
C) More alcohol will be released through exhalation.
D) Energy drinks may mask the true intoxicating effects of alcohol.
Q4) Which enzyme in saliva breaks down sugars? (two words)
Q5) What are the functional units of the kidneys?
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Chapter 19: Clearing the Air: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Systems
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54 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) True or false: The majority of deaths due to smoking result from cardiovascular disease, not lung cancer or other lung diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which blood vessels do the exchange of gases and other materials occur?
A) arteries
B) veins
C) capillaries
D) right atrium
Q3) Which best describes an artery?
A) Arteries carry blood away from the heart.
B) Arteries carry oxygenated blood.
C) Arteries contain valves.
D) Arteries have thinner walls than veins.
Q4) What potential consequence on the cardiovascular system may result from smoking?
A) an increase in the production of HDL
B) a decrease in the production of LDL
C) a higher risk of atherosclerosis
D) an increase in the risk for lung cancer
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Chapter 20: Vaccination: Protection and Prevention or Peril
Immune System,
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68 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a part of the body's nonspecific defense mechanism?
A) skin
B) T cells
C) B cells
D) antibodies
Q2) You suffer a bee sting that leaves a red mark and is warm as well as itchy. What actions would be blocked by the medication that would be best to treat this body reaction?
A) interferons
B) complement proteins
C) pyrogens
D) histamine
Q3) Which situation has contributed to widespread antibiotic resistance?
A) doctors underprescribing antibiotics that would eradicate cold-causing bacteria
B) patients finishing their antibiotic prescription even though they feel better
C) farmers using an abundance of antibiotics to treat feedlot animals
D) chefs cooking meat thoroughly in restaurants
Q4) Some RNA viruses, such as HIV, require what enzyme (two words) to convert the viral RNA genome into a DNA version?
22
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Chapter 21: Human Sex Differences: Endocrine, Skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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57 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) You're treating a patient who experienced a fracture to her appendicular skeleton. Which bone would need to be treated?
A) skull
B) vertebral column
C) sternum
D) tibia
Q2) A young person suffered a head injury that damaged her pituitary. As this person got older, what condition was the only thing that she and her doctors found that was unaffected by the injury?
A) growth
B) menstrual cycle
C) production of breast milk
D) blood sugar level
Q3) Which change is a sign of puberty occurring in males?
A) increased fat deposition
B) breast development
C) underarm hair growth
D) widening of hips
Q4) Which structure produces immune cells and is part of the lymphatic system?
Q5) Which type of skeleton protects a human's soft internal organs?
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Chapter 22: Is There Something in the Water Reproductive and Developmental Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jane is a 20-year-old individual who externally resembles a female but who is actually genetically a male (XY). Based on your knowledge of human development, how could this be possible?
A) Although Jane is genetically a male, she has produced an abnormal amount of estrogen since birth.
B) During development, Jane's body produced an excessive amount of testosterone, leading to the development of female external genitalia.
C) Jane's embryonic gonads did not produce androgens, or they lacked functional testosterone receptors.
D) Due to a genetic defect, Jane lacks sufficient aromatase activity, the enzyme that converts testosterone into estrogen.
Q2) What is the form of reproduction used by E. coli, a type of bacteria found in your digestive tract?
A) budding
B) vegetative reproduction
C) binary fission
D) meiosis
Q3) What body system allows the survival of different species?
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Chapter 23: Study Drugs: Brain Boost or Brain Drain Brain
Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) True or false: Electrical signals travel faster down unmyelinated axons than myelinated axons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Where are higher brain functions, such as creativity and analytical skills, centered?
A) corpus callosum
B) hypothalamus
C) spinal cord
D) cerebrum
Q3) What would a drug that caused sodium to leak into a neuron do?
A) It would cause the outside of the neuron to become more positive.
B) It would trigger an action potential in the neuron.
C) It would cause the inside of the neuron to become more negative.
D) It would cause potassium to move into the neuron as well.
Q4) Which structure is directly associated with synaptic transmission?
A) axon
B) vesicles
C) nodes of Ranvier
D) cell body
25
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Chapter 24: Feeding the World: Plant Structure and Growth
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71 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) From what food source do most of the calories in a typical American diet come?
A) meat
B) cereal grains
C) legumes
D) plant leaves
Q2) Why do plants containing nitrogen-fixing bacteria in their roots need less nitrogen-based fertilizer than others?
A) The plants break down the bacteria as a source of nitrogen-rich nutrients.
B) The bacteria convert nitrogen in the air into a form that can be taken up by the plants.
C) The plants and bacteria work together to attract birds, which deposit nitrogen-rich droppings near the plant.
D) The bacteria kill and digest earthworms and other animals in the soil, providing excess nitrogen to the plants.
Q3) In plants, what are the mature ovaries containing seeds?
A) bulbs
B) fruits
C) tubers
D) rhizomes
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Chapter 25: Growing a Green Thumb: Plant Physiology
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66 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which process occurs when a grapevine wraps around a trellis or another supporting structure?
A) photoperiodism
B) thigmotropism
C) gravitropism
D) phototropism
Q2) A greenhouse manager wants to encourage long-term, productive flowering instead of short-term, rapid flowering in annual garden plants that are for sale. Which action would accomplish that goal?
A) pruning away early flowers
B) limiting water and fertilizer
C) moving the plants to the shadiest part of the greenhouse
D) allowing any flowers to become fruits and seeds
Q3) What will happen to a houseplant that's overwatered?
A) The leaves will burst.
B) The leaves will wilt.
C) The flowers will leak excess water.
D) It will grow faster than usual.
Q4) What is the response of a plant to the proportion of light and dark in a day?
Q5) Which plants live for many years and produce flowers every year?
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