Principles of Biology Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology provides a foundational understanding of life and living systems, exploring key concepts such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, biodiversity, ecology, and physiology. This course examines the molecular and cellular basis of life, the mechanisms of inheritance, and the principles governing the diversity and interdependence of organisms. Through lectures, laboratory experiences, and discussions, students gain insight into scientific methods, develop critical thinking skills, and appreciate the relevance of biology to contemporary issues in health, environment, and society.
Recommended Textbook
Concepts of Biology 3rd Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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Chapter 1: Biology, the Study of Life
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Q1) Humans belong to which kingdom?
A)Animals
B)Plants
C)Protists
D)Fungi
E)Archaea
Answer: A
Q2) The unity and diversity of living organisms on our planet can best be explained by which of the following processes?
A)taxonomy
B)metabolism
C)evolution
D)homeostasis
E)reproduction
Answer: C
Q3) A group of cells with a common structure and function is referred to as an organ.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry of Cells
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Q1) Which bond results from the sharing of electrons?
A)isotope
B)metallic
C)covalent
D)ionic
E)octet
Answer: C
Q2) A solution which resists pH changes is
A)a hydrophilic solution.
B)a base.
C)a buffer.
D)a hydrophobic solution.
E)an acid.
Answer: C
Q3) Out of covalent,ionic,and hydrogen,the hydrogen bond is the strongest.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Organic Molecules of Cells
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Q1) Which of these functional groups would be associated with nucleotides and phospholipids?
A)hydroxyl
B)phosphate
C)sulfhydryl
D)carbonyl
E)carboxyl
Answer: B
Q2) Since carbon has four electrons in its outer shell,it must
A)gain four electrons to complete its outer shell.
B)lose four electrons to become stable.
C)gain or lose two electrons to become stable.
D)share four electrons to complete its outer shell.
E)share two electrons to complete its outer shell.
Answer: D
Q3) The bond between amino acids is referred to as an amino bond.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Structure and Function of Cells
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Q1) Generally,as a cell increases in size,how does the ratio of surface area to volume change?
A)the volume stays the same but the surface area increases
B)the volume and surface area increase in equal amounts
C)the surface area stays the same but the volume increases
D)the volume increases more than the surface area
E)the surface area increases more than the volume
Q2) What is the cell structure marked "a." on the animal cell diagram?
A)nucleus
B)rough endoplasmic reticulum
C)mitochondria
D)Golgi apparatus
E)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Q3) If a poison specifically destroyed the ribosomes of a cell,what is the main reason that the cell would die?
A)the cell would not be able to digest any unwanted bacteria
B)the cell would not be able to generate any cell energy
C)the cell would not be able to make any new proteins
D)the cell would no longer be able to move
E)there would be no more nutrients transported into the cell
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Chapter 5: Dynamic Activities of Cells
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Q1) A cell lacking ATP would be able to run all endergonic reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What structure joins the cells in heart tissue together,so that the cells work in a coordinated fashion?
A)tight junctions
B)gap junctions
C)extracellular matrix
D)anchoring junctions
E)microvilli
Q3) If a membrane only allows certain types of substances to go through,then the membrane is said to be what kind?
A)facilitated diffusing
B)active transporter
C)differentially permeable
D)permanently permeable
E)gradiently soluble
Q4) A substance that is being dissolved is known as a solvent.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Pathways of Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following have the shortest wavelength?
A)radio waves
B)X rays
C)microwaves
D)gamma rays
E)ultraviolet rays
Q2) Which of the following is a molecule which helps prepare for the Calvin cycle,rather than participating in it?
A)chlorophyll
B)NADPH
C)ATP
D)RuBP
E)G3P
Q3) What would occur if a photosystem contained no antenna molecules?
A)Carbohydrate synthesis would increase.
B)The chloroplast would synthesize more ATP.
C)The Calvin cycle would fix carbon dioxide more rapidly.
D)More oxygen would be released from the splitting of water.
E)No reaction center electrons could become excited.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Pathways of Cellular Respiration
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Q1) Which of the following is a product of a part of metabolism other than the electron transport chain in cellular respiration?
A)NAD<sup>+</sup>
B)oxygen
C)ATP
D)FAD
E)water
Q2) In the overall reaction for cellular respiration,_____ is oxidized,and _____ is reduced.
A)glucose,water
B)oxygen,glucose
C)oxygen,water
D)glucose,carbon dioxide
E)glucose,oxygen
Q3) What material(s)are put into the Krebs Cycle?
A)acetyl groups
B)carbon dioxide
C)NADH
D)FADH<sub>2</sub>
E)ATP
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Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction
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Q1) When cancer has spread beyond its original location,it is said to have metastasized.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cancerous cells can be properly said
A)to travel from the site of their formation.
B)to become specialized.
C)to divide in a controlled fashion.
D)to avoid interfering with other cells.
E)to be driven by normal genetics.
Q3) Cancer can best be described as
A)cells from one organ invading another.
B)cells which divide too slowly.
C)cells which can no longer divide.
D)uncontrolled cell division.
E)foreign cells attacking an organ.
Q4) The spindle has not changed significantly during the evolution of eukaryotic organisms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction
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Q1) What phase of meiosis precedes prophase II?
A)telophase I
B)anaphase I
C)metaphase II
D)anaphase II
E)telophase II
Q2) In the figure of the life cycle of humans,what does "d" represent?
A)fertilization
B)zygote or embryo
C)gamete production
D)mitosis
E)meiosis II
Q3) Common lifecycles include haploid and diploid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The plant lifecycle is one of alternation of generations.
A)True
B)False
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Patterns of Genetic Inheritance
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Q1) If you were studying the phenomena of one gene having more than one effect,you would be studying which of the following?
A)gene linkage
B)codominance
C)incomplete dominance
D)genotype dominance
E)pleiotropy
Q2) When two different dominant alleles are both fully expressed in the phenotype,it is referred to as
A)incomplete dominance.
B)codominance.
C)genotype dominance.
D)polygenic dominance.
E)pleiotropic dominancE.
Q3) Human colorblindness is sex-linked.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Genetic crosses which involve two traits are referred to as phenotypic crosses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Molecular Biology of Inheritance
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Q1) Which of these items is critical for translation,but indirectly only?
A)mRNA
B)rRNA
C)tRNA-amino acid complex
D)DNA
E)Ribosome
Q2) Which of these is an environmental mutagen?
A)bacteria in water
B)X-rays and Gamma rays
C)fungal spores
D)radio waves
E)Air-bourne sand
Q3) Which of these facts would be a fundamental and surprising discovery if found to be true of the DNA for all species in a newly discovered genus of plants?
A)It undergoes mutation.
B)It stores information.
C)It has variability between species.
D)It remains constant among different species.
E)It can be replicated.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Regulation of Gene Activity
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Q1) What are the highly condensed portions of chromatin which appear as very dark areas in an transmission electron micrograph?
A)histone
B)DNA helix
C)heterochromatin
D)nucleosome
E)euchromatin
Q2) Which of the following structures can be transcribed to make mRNA?
A)compacted chromatin
B)DNA helix
C)nucleosome
D)histone
E)condensed chromosome
Q3) This figure shows the levels of chromatin structure.What does "A" represent?
A)a nucleosome
B)compacted chromosome
C)histones
D)DNA helix
E)coiled nucleosomes
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Q1) Which of the following is a reason why the genetic modification and the transfer of genes between organisms can occur?
A)All species produce the same proteins.
B)All species share many similar genes and proteins.
C)Different species of organisms freely swap genetic information.
D)All species are genetically the same.
E)It is easy to genetically modify an organism.
Q2) Xenotransplants
A)are animal or plant clones.
B)involve the injection of viruses into humans.
C)involve the replacement of whole sets of chromosomes in humans.
D)involve the injection of plasmids into humans.
E)use animal organs for transplants.
Q3) Which of the following is not an example of a genetic modification in a plant?
A)strawberries which are resistant to freezing
B)potatoes which are resistant to blight disease and beetles
C)strawberries which are resistant to freezing.
D)corn that has a built in nitrogen fertilization
E)soybeans which make a desired fatty acid (oleic acid)
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) Natural selection was independently proposed as a means of evolution by which of the following individuals?
A)Lyell
B)Wallace
C)Cuvier
D)Lamarck
E)Malthus
Q2) A biologist is studying changes in allele frequency of a gene pool due to chance rather than selection by the environment,called what?
A)disruptive drift
B)heterozygous drift
C)stabilizing drift
D)directional drift
E)genetic drift
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Speciation and Evolution
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Q1) What is thought to have killed the animals found in the Burgess Shale?
A)global warming
B)volcanic activity
C)a mud slide
D)fire
E)an ice age
Q2) Which of the following was important of the evolution of something other than the modern horse?
A)an increase in size
B)a decrease in the number of toes
C)a switch from meat eating to plants
D)a change in tooth size
E)a change in tooth shape
Q3) If you were studying postzygotic isolation mechanisms,which of the following would you be studying?
A)mechanical isolation
B)temporal isolation
C)behavioral isolation
D)habitat isolation
E)hybrid sterility
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Chapter 16: The Evolutionary History of Life on Earth
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Q1) A paleontologist is studying strata of rock and discovers one of the first mammal fossils ever found.Based on this information,you would conclude that the rock stratum is from which time?
A)the Cenozoic
B)the Permian
C)the Devonian
D)the Mesozoic
E)the Cretaceous
Q2) Fish appeared in the fossil record during the A)Devonian.
B)Mesozoic.
C)JurassiC.
D)Ordovician.
E)Tertiary.
Q3) Which of the following is an ancestral characteristic for all placental mammals?
A)having a tail
B)walking on four legs
C)giving birth to live young
D)having antlers
E)having thumbs
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Chapter 17: Evolution of Microbial Life
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Q1) Which of the following is least often true about viruses which infect plants?
A)There are approximately 2,000 plant diseases attributed to viruses.
B)Plant viruses kill the host plant outright.
C)The symptoms of plants infected with a virus include stunted growth and a discoloration of leaves.
D)Plant viruses can be spread by contaminated soil or pollen.
E)Plant viruses can be spread via insects and nematodes.
Q2) The innermost core of a virus's structure is made up of
A)a membrane envelope.
B)both DNA and RNA.
C)either DNA or RNA.
D)a protein capsiD.
E)a protein spore coat.
Q3) Prokaryotes which make their own nutrients with the use of sunlight are referred to as
A)photoautotrophic.
B)saprotrophic.
C)autoheterotrophiC.
D)chemoautotrophic.
E)chemoheterotrophic.
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Chapter 18: Evolution of Protists
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Q1) The main function of the trichocysts of a ciliate is
A)chlorophyll production.
B)synthesis of carbohydrates.
C)eliminating excess water.
D)to be photoreceptors to detect light.
E)defense and capturing prey.
Q2) In comparing green algae and ciliates,which of the following terms would not apply to the the ciliates?
A)free-living
B)parasitic
C)sessile
D)colonial
E)autotrophic
Q3) This figure shows the anatomy of a <i>Euglena</i>.What does "d" represent?
A)chloroplast
B)nucleus
C)flagellum
D)contractile vacuole
E)eyespot
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Evolution of Plants and Fungi
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Q1) Mushrooms and puff balls belong to the A)sac fungi.
B)flowering fungi.
C)club fungi.
D)zygospore fungi. E)chytrids.
Q2) The seeds of gymnosperms are mostly spread by A)water.
B)insects.
C)wind.
D)mammals.
E)birds.
Q3) If you were studying the portion of the gymnosperm which will give rise to the egg-producing gametophyte,you would be studying the A)megaspore.
B)stigma.
C)microspore.
D)carpel.
E)receptaclE.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Evolution of Animals
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Q1) A __________ of a tapeworm contains both male and female sex organs and becomes filled with developing embryos.
A)proglottid
B)scolex
C)cyst
D)gastrovascular cavity
E)nematocyst
Q2) Which of these characteristics first developed in reptiles?
A)amniotic egg
B)scales on the skin
C)a four-legged body
D)a skull and vertebral column
E)animals living on land
Q3) Which characteristic falls outside the earthworms?
A)segmentation
B)complete digestive system
C)hermaphroditic
D)nephridia to remove waste
E)dorsal hollow nerve cord
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Evolution of Humans
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Q1) Which statement reverses a trend seen during primate evolution?
A)It is associated with an increased age of sexual maturity.
B)It is associated with an extended life.
C)It is associated with multiple offspring from every pregnancy.
D)It is associated with a lengthy gestation perioD.
E)It is associated with an extended period of juvenile dependency.
Q2) One characteristic of primate evolution is decreasing brain size over time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which primate trait is least important for arboreal life?
A)Reduced reproductive rates
B)Complex brains
C)Binocular vision
D)Mobile limbs
E)Bipedalism
Q4) Agriculture arose among the Neandertals due to the greater amount of food available.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Plant Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) A plant physiologist is studying the parts of the root system in a plant,implying an interest in
A)axillary buds.
B)petioles.
C)roots.
D)internodes.
E)nodes.
Q2) Woody plants have large trunks composed mostly of A)phloem.
B)xylem.
C)palisade mesophyll.
D)spongy mesophyll.
E)endodermis.
Q3) This figure shows the cross sectional anatomy of a leaf.What does "b" represent?
A)spongy mesophyll
B)cuticle
C)upper epidermis
D)leaf vein
E)palisade mesophyll
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Transport and Nutrition in Plants
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Q1) This figure shows the pathways of water and mineral uptake by the roots.What does "e" represent?
A)symplast route
B)root hairs
C)apoplast route
D)vascular cylinder
E)endodermis and Casparian strip
Q2) The waxy covering of the upper and lower epidermis which is found in some plants is known as the
A)cuticle.
B)stomata.
C)guard cells.
D)phloem sap.
E)Casparian strip.
Q3) Which statements about phytoremediation is least accurate?
A)Microbes help in the process.
B)Plants absorb inorganic contaminants.
C)Plants must be harvested and disposed of to remove contaminants from the soil.
D)Some of the material may remain in the soil and water.
E)Plants in general can absorb large amounts of heavy metals like lead.
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Chapter 24: Control of Growth Responses in Plants
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Q1) If you were to place some auxin on one side of a tipless coleoptile,what would be the result?
A)The shoot would bend away from the auxin.
B)The shoot would increase in length on both sides.
C)The shoot would bend toward the auxin.
D)The shoot would shrink.
E)The auxin would have no effect on this part of the plant.
Q2) Which example illustrates that plants have a signal transduction pathway that leads to the activation of genes for proteinase inhibitors?
A)the production of primary metabolites
B)a plant's response to light
C)a plant's response to gravity
D)the production of secondary metabolites
E)the plant's response to wounds
Q3) The dropping of leaves,fruit,and flowers is called
A)dormancy.
B)gravitropism.
C)abscission.
D)senescence.
E)turgor movement.
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Chapter 25: Reproduction in Plants
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Q1) This figure shows the anatomy of a flower.What does "A" represent?
A)anther
B)sepal
C)ovule
D)petal
E)stigma
Q2) Which list is arranged in the proper order?
A)fertilization,pollination,seed formation,germination
B)seed formation,fertilization,germination,pollination
C)pollination,fertilization,seed formation,germination
D)germination,seed formation,fertilization,pollination
E)pollination,fertilization,germination,seed formation
Q3) If you were studying the mature female gametophyte of a flowering plant,you would be studying what?
A)stigma
B)style
C)pollen grain
D)zygote
E)embryo sac
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Chapter 26: Animal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) The kangaroo rat does not need to drink water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is not a correct pairing of term and function?
A)Adipose-stored fat
B)Ligament-connect bone to bone
C)Platelets-fight infection
D)Red blood cells-transport oxygen
E)Hyaline cartilage-protect the ends of bones
Q3) Muscles are connected to bones by:
A)Nerve tissue
B)Epithelial tissue
C)Ligaments
D)Tendons
E)A basement membrane
Q4) Glands are primarily made of connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Coordination by Neural Signaling
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Q1) The outer portion of the spinal cord which acts as a superhighway by continuously passing information between the brain and the rest of the body is referred to as:
A)The corpus callosum
B)The thalamus
C)Gray matter
D)The meninges
E)White matter
Q2) The small gap between neurons is called the:
A)Axon cleft
B)Synaptic cleft
C)Dendrite cleft
D)Neurotransmitter cleft
E)Myelin cleft
Q3) Dendrites:
A)Carry impulses away from a cell body
B)Are always myelinated
C)Are found only in the central nervous system
D)Are solely responsible for nervous conduction
E)Carry impulses toward a cell body
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Sense Organs
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Q1) If you were studying the sense of balance in humans you would be studying which of the following?
A)The cochlea
B)The middle ear
C)The ossicles
D)The vestibule
E)The tympanic membrane
Q2) If you were studying the response to chemical stimuli,you would be studying which of the following?
A)Thermoreceptors
B)Electromagnetic receptors
C)Nociceptors
D)Chemoreceptors
E)Mechanoreceptors
Q3) The sensory receptor for hearing would be classified as which of these?
A)A thermoreceptor
B)An electromagnetic receptor
C)A nociceptor
D)A chemoreceptor
E)A mechanoreceptor
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Chapter 29: Locomotion and Support Systems
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Q1) The joints found between vertebrae are classified as being:
A)Fibrous joints
B)Cartilaginous joints
C)Synovial joints
D)Hinge joints
E)Discoidal joints
Q2) Which is not a correct association of bone structures and functions?
A)Growth plate-contributes to increase in bone length
B)Red bone marrow-source of blood cells
C)Osteons-tubular units of compact bone
D)Spongy bone-makes up the shaft of a long bone
E)Lacunae-tiny chambers in concentric circles around a central canal
Q3) The source of energy for bonding between myosin and actin is:
A)ATP
B)ADP
C)Creatine phosphate
D)Lactic acid
E)Glycogen
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Chapter 30: Circulation and Cardiovascular Systems
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Q1) What are the consequences of having a low level of calcium when the body is trying to form a blood clot?
A)Calcium is necessary for the conversion of thrombin to prothrombin by the clotting factor thrombin activator
B)Calcium will increase the rate at which thrombin is converted into prothrombin by the clotting factor prothrombin activator
C)A low level of calcium will allow for the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin by the clotting factor prothrombin activator
D)
Calcium is necessary for the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin by the clotting factor prothrombin activator.
E)Calcium is necessary for the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by the clotting factor prothrombin activator
Q2) The hepatic portal system takes blood from the intestines to the liver. A)True B)False
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Chapter 31: Lymph Transport and Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following would be considered a form of active immunity?
A)Antibodies from breast milk
B)A vaccination
C)Antibodies from the mother's placenta
D)Antibiotics given by a doctor
E)An injection of gamma globulin
Q2) During cell-to-cell combat between a cytotoxic T cell and a cancer cell,what substances are used to perforate the cancer cells membrane?
A)Granzymes
B)Perforins
C)Histamine
D)MHC antigens
E)Tumor necrosis factor
Q3) What is the correct order of the lymphatic system?
A)Lymphatic capillaries - lymphatic vessels - lymphatic duct - subclavian vein
B)Lymphatic capillaries - lymphatic vessels - lymphatic duct - subclavian artery
C)Lymphatic capillaries - lymphatic duct - lymphatic vessels - subclavian vein
D)Capillary beds - lymphatic vessels - lymphatic duct - subclavian vein
E)Lymphatic capillaries - lymphatic vessels - lymphatic duct - superior vena cava
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Digestive Systems and Nutrition
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Q1) A nutritionist is studying a protein which contains all nine essential amino acids.Based on this information you would conclude that he or she is studying which type of protein?
A)Low-quality
B)Incomplete
C)Saturated
D)Trans
E)Complete
Q2) Which of the following is not a consequence of someone having a section of their large intestine removed?
A)A decreased ability to absorb water,salts and vitamins.
B)A decreased ability to store undigested material that forms into feces.
C)A decrease in the production of vitamin K which can lead to problems with blood clotting.
D)An increased frequency of elimination of feces.
E)A decreased ability to absorb nutrients like glucose,amino acids and fatty acids.
Q3) The large intestine has a large population of the bacteria Escherichia coli.
A)True
B)False
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Gas Exchange and Transport in Animals
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Q1) If a person has a large piece of food lodged in their pharynx blocking the glottis,what can be done to ensure that they can still breathe?
A)Push your fingers down their throat in an attempt to grab the piece of food.
B)Have the person eat a large piece of bread to see if they can push the blocked food down into the esophagus.
C)Tell them to breathe through their nose so that the air will go around the blockage.
D)Make a small incision in the trachea,just beneath the larynx.
E)Give them an oxygen mask that has a high concentration of pure oxygen.
Q2) The gas exchange between air and the blood within the lungs is referred to as:
A)Pulmonary respiration
B)External respiration
C)Cellular respiration
D)Internal respiration
E)Ventilation
Q3) During inspiration the diaphragm contracts and moves down.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Q1) If precipitates have built up forming a blockage in the ureter,what is the correct order of structures that will be blocked due to back filling of fluids?
A)Ureter - renal pelvis - collecting duct - distal convoluted tubule - loop of Henleproximal convoluted tubule - glomerular capsule
B)Ureter - renal pelvis - collecting duct - proximal convoluted tubule - loop of Henledistal convoluted tubule - glomerular capsule
C)Ureter - collecting duct - distal convoluted tubule - renal pelvis - loop of Henleproximal convoluted tubule - glomerular capsule
D)Glomerular capsule - proximal convoluted tubule - loop of Henle - distal convoluted tubule - collecting duct - renal pelvis - ureter
E)Renal pelvis - distal convoluted tubule - loop of Henle - collecting duct - proximal convoluted tubule - glomerular capsule - ureter
Q2) The optimal blood pH range is between 7.34 and 7.45.
A)True B)False
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36
Chapter 35: Coordination by Hormone Signaling
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Q1) The hypothalamic-releasing hormones directly control the:
A)Adrenal cortex
B)Posterior pituitary gland
C)Thyroid
D)Anterior pituitary gland
E)Pancreas
Q2) Which of the following hormones require iodine?
A)Insulin
B)Parathyroid hormone
C)Cortisol
D)Thyroxine
E)Aldosterone
Q3) Which of the following is produced by the adrenal medulla and produce short-term effects in the body?
A)Melatonin
B)Glucocorticoids
C)Epinephrine
D)Glucagon
E)Oxytocin
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Which structure is the place where sperm cells mature and acquire the ability to swim?
A)vas deferens
B)epididymis
C)ejaculatory duct
D)seminal vesicles
E)testis
Q2) The allantois:
A)Gives rise to the umbilical blood vessels in humans
B)Is a structure composed of two germ layers
C)Is the outermost membrane in chick eggs
D)Has the same function in chicks and humans
E)Becomes the chorionic villi
Q3) If you were studying the process by which a fertilized egg undergoes division without further growth you would be studying which of the following?
A)Cleavage
B)Gastrulation
C)Differentiation
D)Morphogenesis
E)Proliferation
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Chapter 37: Population Ecology
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Q1) Equilibrium species are more likely to go extinct when compared to opportunistic species.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An ecosystem contains:
A)Only the food relationships found in an environment
B)Only the abiotic components of the environment
C)Only the energy flow components of the environment
D)Both the living and the abiotic components of the environment
E)Only the biotic components of the environment
Q3) Ecology is best defined as the study of:
A)Organisms as they interact with other organisms and their physical surrounding
B)Population increases and decreases
C)How populations are restricted by environmental resistance
D)Populations
E)The rate of population change
Q4) Extinction is the total disappearance of a species or a higher group.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) Behavior is any action which can observed or described.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true for inherited behavior?
A)Once the fixed action pattern starts,it can be modified by behavior
B)The behavior pattern is stereotyped
C)It is a fixed action pattern
D)All members of a species perform the exact same sequence
E)The fixed action pattern is initiated by a sign stimulus
Q3) Why do females have a greater investment in offspring?
A)Females continuously invest energy as the embryo develops
B)Females invest energy in fighting off other females to obtain a mate
C)Females must fight off any predators
D)Females are the only ones who invest any energy in raising offspring
E)Choosing a mate takes a great deal of the energy from the female
Q4) Territoriality is more likely to occur during the mating season than any other time of the year.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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Q1) You are on vacation in the Canadian Rocky Mountains and you observe that a massive forest fire has burned all the trees off the side of the mountain and sterilized the soil,leaving no topsoil.The type of succession that occurs following this type of fire is A)facilitated succession.
B)primary soil leaching.
C)primary succession.
D)pioneer species growth.
E)secondary succession.
Q2) A small marine amphipod has recently been discovered that carries another bad tasting organism on its back against its normal behavior.The "backpack" organism tastes bad.If a fish ingests the pair,it immediately spits them back out.If the amphipod is alone,however,the amphipod is readily eaten and swallowed.There is no apparent benefit in this relationship for the "backpack" organism which appears to be neither helped nor harmed.This is therefore a case of A)commensalism.
B)competitive exclusion.
C)predation.
D)parasitism.
E)mutualism.
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Chapter 40: Major Ecosystems of the Biosphere
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Q1) The poor soil of tropical rain forests is due to
A)poor quality substrate,such as bedrock that lacks iron and phosphorus.
B)intense sunlight bleaching the substrate.
C)lack of litter;the leaves never fall to the ground.
D)lack of freezing cold to break apart the substrate bedrock.
E)high temperatures that allow rapid decomposition and rapid recycling of nutrients.
Q2) This figure shows a coastal ocean ecosystem.What does "d" represent?
A)The euphotic zone
B)The continental shelf
C)The deep sea water
D)The intertidal zone
E)The pelagic zone
Q3) What drives the movement of winds across the face of the earth?
A)The unequal heating of the surface of the earth by the sun
B)The currents of the oceans
C)The distribution of mountains and valleys
D)The rotation of the earth
E)The greenhouse effect
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Chapter 41: Conservation Biology
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Q1) The major goal behind conservation biology is to manage biodiversity for the sustainable use by humans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a possible outcome of global climate change?
A)Glaciers will melt
B)Ocean temperatures will increase
C)Ecosystems will be forced to move north
D)Sea level will rise
E)The ozone layer will become thinner
Q3) A species which is in peril of immediate extinction throughout all or most of its range is referred to as:
A)An endangered species
B)An introduced species
C)An extinct species
D)A threatened species
E)A keystone species
Q4) The biodiversity of organisms is evenly distributed throughout the biosphere.
A)True
B)False
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