Course Introduction
Principles of Biology Review Questions
Principles of Biology introduces students to the fundamental concepts of biological science, emphasizing the diversity, structure, function, and evolution of living organisms. This course covers topics such as the molecular and cellular basis of life, genetics and heredity, energy transformation and metabolism, ecology, and the interactions among organisms and their environments. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and problem-solving activities, students develop a foundational understanding of the scientific method, biological research, and the relevance of biology to everyday life and societal issues.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Today and Tomorrow with Physiology 4th Edition by Cecie Starr
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28 Chapters
3839 Verified Questions
3839 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are characteristics of ALL living organisms with one exception.Select the exception.
A) complex structural organization
B) homeostasis
C) cells as their basic units
D) the ability to derive energy from inorganic sources
E) capacity to evolve
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following words describes a tentative explanation to a given question?
A) law
B) theory
C) hypothesis
D) fact
E) principle
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Molecules of Life
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159 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atomic isotopes
A) are electrically unbalanced.
B) behave the same chemically and physically but differ biologically from other isotopes.
C) are the same physically and biologically but differ from other isotopes chemically.
D) have varying numbers of neutrons.
E) are produced when substances are exposed to radiation.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following inventions led to trans fats being marketed as a solid cooking fat?
A) the electric light
B) the telephone
C) the automobile
D) the microwave oven
E) the refrigerator
Answer: A
Q3) the two units that combine in various ways to form lipids
Answer: J
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) flagellum
Answer: A
Q2) Plasma membrane proteins might be involved in
A) cell-to-cell recognition.
B) signal recognition.
C) transport of nutrients.
D) metabolic activities.
E) all of these.
Answer: E
Q3) When contaminated with E.coli strains toxic to humans,fresh meat should be cooked to at least ____ in order to prevent any food intoxication.
A) 71°C (160°F)
B) 75°C (167°F)
C) 65°C (149°F)
D) 85°C (185°F)
E) 91°C (196°F)
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Energy and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sodium-potassium pump is used in
A) facilitated diffusion.
B) simple diffusion.
C) active transport.
D) osmosis.
E) bulk flow.
Q2) In passive transport,the movement of a small,nonpolar molecule across a cell membrane depends on
A) adequate amounts of ATP.
B) a concentration gradient.
C) adequate ATP and a concentration gradient
D) the proper transport protein.
E) gated channels.
Q3) process by which atoms from different molecules are recombined to form new molecules
Q4) phosphate-group transfer
Q5) attaching a phosphate group by forming a higher energy bond
Q6) molecule remaining at the end of a reaction
Q7) This process explains movement from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration without the use of supplied energy.
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Chapter 5: Capturing and Releasing Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) For six molecules of carbon dioxide fixed in the light-independent reaction,how many molecules of PGA are produced?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 12
E) 18
Q2) What happens if you eat too many carbohydrates?
A) acetyl-CoA is made into fatty acids.
B) pyruvate is made into proteins.
C) glycolysis stops.
D) ammonia waste is formed.
E) glucose is converted directly into fat.
Q3) Which of the following is most descriptive of an electron transport chain?
A) It generates energy from nothing.
B) It is a mechanism used by cells to dispose of unused electrons.
C) It transfers electron energy, stepwise, from one compound to another.
D) It transfers energy, stepwise, from one compound to another.
E) It requires activation by sunlight.
Q4) Process that fixes carbon twice.
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Chapter 6: DNA Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a eukaryote,DNA polymerase can add up to
A) 1,000 nucleotides per second.
B) 500 nucleotides per second.
C) 50 nucleotides per second.
D) 10 nucleotides per second.
E) one billion nucleotides per minute.
Q2) built the first precise model of DNA that implied its method of replication
Q3) Each DNA strand serves as which of the following during DNA synthesis?
A) a replicate
B) a substitute
C) a template
D) a source of nucleotides
E) all of these
Q4) Four of the five answers listed below are related to the structure of DNA and/or its composition.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) protease
B) double helix
C) polymerase
D) phosphate
E) deoxyribose
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Chapter 7: Gene Expression and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gene mutation
A) is a change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA.
B) may be harmful.
C) may arise spontaneously.
D) may have no effect.
E) is true of all of these.
Q2) In this representation of transcription,strand # ____ is ____ because it ____.
A) 2; RNA; is double-stranded
B) 3; RNA; contains uracil
C) 2; RNA; contains thymine
D) 2; RNA; has no uracil
E) 3; DNA; contains adenine
Q3) Sickle-cell anemia has been traced to what type of mutation?
A) frameshift
B) base-pair substitution
C) mutagenic
D) transposable element
E) viral
Q4) This codon codes both for an amino acid and indicates the beginning of a coding region.
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Chapter 8: How Cells Reproduce
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Sample Questions
Q1) Researchers use HeLa cells to A) study cancer.
B) study viral growth.
C) perform protein synthesis.
D) study the effects of radiation.
E) do all of these.
Q2) Nuclear membranes re-forms during A) prophase.
B) telophase.
C) interphase.
D) anaphase.
E) metaphase.
Q3) Cytoplasmic division occurs as this phase of mitosis proceeds.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase
Q4) nuclear division
Q5) this is the last stage of interphase
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main problem for those with cystic fibrosis involves which of the following?
A) mucus sticking to dry surfaces
B) jerky muscle contractions
C) constant thirst
D) salt accumulations between tissues
E) low pH in tissues preventing proper enzymatic activity
Q2) Observable traits are known in genetics as
A) phenotypes.
B) genotypes.
C) homozygous.
D) heterozygous.
E) more than one of these.
Q3) Six fingers on one hand would be classified as A) a genetic disorder.
B) a disease.
C) a syndrome.
D) a genetic abnormality.
E) an illness.
Q4) refers to a gene whose product influences multiple genes
Q5) the set of symptoms that characterize a genetic disease
11
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Chapter 10: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) bacterial population containing thousands or millions of identical copies of one to several genes
Q2) an individual's unique array of short tandem repeats
Q3) The term "biotech barnyards" refers to
A) the production of human products by farm animals.
B) the development of new species of farm animals.
C) the increased production of milk, egg, wool, etc.
D) modern methods of raising more animals on less feed.
E) the creation of transgenic animals that can produce several products.
Q4) If the nucleotide sequence,ACTGAG,represents the sticky end of a DNA molecule,to what other nucleotide sequence would it "stick"?
A) TGACTC
B) UGACUC
C) ACTGAG
D) ACUGUG
E) GAGTCA
Q5) molecules that chop up DNA molecules in specific ways
Q6) circular DNA isolated from bacteria that serve as gene vectors
Q7) transferring normal or modified genes into the cells of a person with a genetic disorder
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Chapter 11: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the method called that indicates the age of material by measuring the content of the radioisotope and the daughter elements?
A) radiometric dating
B) carbon dating
C) catastrophism
D) all of these
E) none of these
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE about asteroids?
A) they can be as large as 1,500 meters in diameter
B) in our solar system, most are found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
C) many cross the Earth's orbit
D) one of them impacted Earth as early as 50,000 years ago
E) all of these are true
Q3) During the 1800's and earlier,most individuals thought the Earth was approximately
A) 6 billion years old.
B) 600 million years old.
C) 600,000 years old.
D) 60,000 years old.
E) 6,000 years old.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Processes of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) this type of isolation is most closely related to sexual selection
Q2) the grouping of species on the basis of shared characteristics
Q3) ____ introduce(s)new genetic combinations of alleles into the chromosomes.
A) Independent assortment in meiosis I
B) Crossing over in meiosis II
C) Breeding between the dominant individuals in the population
D) Breeding between the recessive individuals in the population
E) More than one of these
Q4) evolutionary history of a species
Q5) A mutation that results in the death of the individual is called
A) a beneficial mutation.
B) a lethal mutation.
C) a random mutation.
D) a spontaneous mutation.
E) a neutral mutation.
Q6) an evolutionary novelty that stems from an adaptation of an existing structure
Q7) this often sets the stage for adaptive radiation
Q8) two species of hawk are able to mate successfully,but one hunts in the morning and the other hunts at night.Mating between the two species does not occur
Q9) quantifiable,heritable characteristics Page 14
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Page 15
Chapter 13: Early Life Forms and the Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first organisms
A) had to be aerobic.
B) were pathogenic.
C) had to be anaerobic.
D) were heterotrophs.
E) were multi-celled.
Q2) According to one hypothesis,clay may have played an essential role in the formation of complex molecules of life.How might clay have participated in that process?
A) by attracting positively charged molecules that became concentrated
B) by acting as an enzyme to catalyze dehydration synthesis reactions
C) by transferring electrons from one molecule to another
D) by acting as a template for RNA molecule production
E) by gathering from the sun energy necessary to power reactions of synthesis of complex molecules
Q3) most likely the first eukaryotes
Q4) These have no cell wall,shell,or constrictive pellicle to prevent a change in shape.
Q5) cause of red tide
Q6) This group of protozoans has no locomotor organelles.
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Chapter 14: Plants and Fungi
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139 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do mosses and other nonvascular plants have that seed plants don't have?
A) spores
B) gametes
C) gametophytes
D) sporophytes
E) flagellated sperm
Q2) Which of the following are single-celled fungi?
A) molds
B) yeasts
C) mushrooms
D) more than one of these
E) none of these
Q3) gametophyte is independent and short-lived; sporophyte is dominant part of life cycle
Q4) Land plants most likely evolved from which of the following organisms?
A) brown algae
B) red algae
C) green algae
D) bryophytes
E) seedless vascular plants
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Chapter 15: Animal Evolution
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170 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do turtles differ from other reptiles (excluding birds)?
A) they are mostly predators
B) they do not have internal fertilization
C) they give birth to live young
D) they do not have teeth
E) they must live part of their live in water
Q2) Sharks differ from most other fishes in that they lack
A) lungs.
B) scales.
C) bones.
D) paired appendages.
E) jaws.
Q3) Which of the following functions does an arthropod's exoskeleton serve?
A) protection from predators
B) attachment points for muscles
C) water conservation
D) body weight support
E) it serves all of these functions
Q4) one or more types of cells that are organized in a specific pattern and that carry out a particular function
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Four of the five answers listed below follow a type I survivorship curve.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) deer
B) sea turtles
C) bears
D) humans
E) elephants
Q2) Horses typically can live around 30 years and a healthy mare can produce one foal per year.Horses are __ species.
A) opportunistic
B) type I
C) K-selected
D) r-selected
E) more than one of these types of
Q3) As population density increases,the chance of ____ also increases.
A) pathogens
B) parasitism
C) predation
D) competition
E) all of these
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Chapter 17: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Niche refers to the
A) home range of an animal.
B) preferred habitat for an organism.
C) functional role of a species in a community.
D) territory occupied by a species.
E) locale in which a species lives.
Q2) Structure of communities may be affected by A) temperatures.
B) sunlight intensity.
C) humidity.
D) condition of the soil.
E) all of these.
Q3) Populations are held in check by A) resource partition.
B) predation.
C) social parasitism.
D) competition.
E) all of these.
Q4) third-level consumer
Q5) primary consumers
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Chapter 18: The Biosphere and Human Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) What ultimately is the greatest threat to biodiversity?
A) plant pathogens
B) exotic species
C) unthinking humans
D) mineral and energy use
E) conservation efforts
Q2) The Earth's orbit shifts approximately every ___ years.
A) 1,000
B) 10,000
C) 100,000
D) 1,000,000
E) 1,000,000,000
Q3) Due to biological magnification,which of the following have the highest concentration of a chemical herbicide?
A) grass- the dominant primary producer
B) cow- an herbivore
C) grasshoppers - an herbivore
D) mice - predators of butterflies
E) hawk - predators of mice
Q4) found on the ocean floor
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Chapter 19: Animal Tissues and Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) This type of tissue consists of fibroblasts,has cells surrounded by a calcium matrix,and works with other tissues to move the body.This tissue type is
A) bone.
B) cartilage.
C) tendon.
D) cardiac.
E) loose connective.
Q2) Controls body functioning through hormones
Q3) In what part of the skin is loose connective tissue found?
A) epidermis
B) dermis
C) hypodermis
D) more than one
E) none of these
Q4) Prolonged exposure to __________ can lead to hypothermia.
Q5) contains parallel arrays of muscle fibers
Q6) covers the body surface
Q7) detects stimuli
Q8) brain
Q9) Removes carbon dioxide and wastes; receives and delivers oxygen Page 22
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Page 23
Chapter 20: How Animals Move
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of skeleton do earthworms have?
A) exoskeleton
B) endoskeleton
C) hydrostatic skeleton
D) segmental skeleton
E) none of these
Q2) The ion,_____,causes proteins associated with actin to move out of the way allowing _____ to bind to binding sites on _____.
Q3) In muscle contraction,the breaking of the cross-bridge between actin and myosin is caused by___.
A) hydrolysis of ATP into ADP plus Pi
B) formation of ATP from ADP and Pi
C) release of Pi from the myosin head
D) binding of a new ATP to the myosin head
E) return of myosin to a high-energy state
Q4) skeleton of clams
Q5) __________ results from a mutation to a gene on the X chromosome that will eventually lead to muscle fibers to break down.
24
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Chapter 21: Circulation and Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the heart's pacemaker malfunctions ___ can result.
A) artherosclerois
B) sudden cardiac arrest
C) congenital heart defect
D) coronary heart diseases
E) hypertrophic cardiac defect
Q2) The vessels in which you would find the highest concentration of plasma proteins are the
A) venules.
B) arterioles.
C) capillaries.
D) veins.
E) arteries.
Q3) The excitatory signal generated by the cardiac pacemaker spreads from fiber to fiber via
A) gap junctions.
B) tight junctions.
C) gated channels.
D) desmosomes.
E) sodium-potassium channels.
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Chapter 22: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of complement proteins?
A) they are part of the third line of defense
B) they may be activated by antigens
C) they can activate other complement proteins
D) some bind to pathogens making them a target for phagocytosis
E) all of these are NOT true of complement proteins
Q2) Autoimmune disorders are caused by
A) lymphocytes and antibody molecules attacking self cells instead of only foreign cells.
B) B cell activation.
C) impaired innate immunity function.
D) T cell activation.
E) the inability to make antibodies.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of antibodies?
A) they are secreted by B cells and T cells
B) they are Y shaped
C) they activate complement
D) they facilitate phagocytosis
E) they bind to specific antigens
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Chapter 23: Digestion and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gastric bypass surgery is effective in part because it
A) increases ghrelin levels.
B) decreases ghrelin levels.
C) increases leptin levels.
D) decreases leptin levels.
E) increases ghrelin levels and decreases leptin levels.
Q2) Colon polyps
A) are mostly benign but some may become cancerous.
B) are difficult to cure.
C) are small growths that project from the wall of the small intestine.
D) are responsible for 500,000 deaths in the U.S. every year.
E) are usually benign but may become cancerous and are responsible for 500,000 deaths in the U.S. every year.
Q3) Which of the following is true of water-soluble vitamins?
A) they are stored in body fat
B) they are not destroyed by heat
C) many are coenzymes
D) deficiencies are rare
E) all of these are true of water-soluble vitamins
Q4) structural role in bone,teeth,and cartilage
Page 27
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Chapter 24: Neural Control and the Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which lobe contains the Broca's area?
A) frontal
B) parietal
C) occipital
D) temporal
E) a combination of more than one of these
Q2) This part of the brain controls skeletal muscle activity and governs memory,emotions and abstract thought.This part of the brain is the
A) cerebellum.
B) cerebrum.
C) medulla oblongata.
D) pons.
E) thalamus.
Q3) Referring to the above diagram of the brain,A identifies which lobe of the cerebrum?
A) frontal lobe
B) parietal lobe
C) occipital lobe
D) temporal lobe
E) primary motor cortex
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Page 28
Chapter 25: Endocrine Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the United States,most thyroid disorders are caused by A) iodine deficiency.
B) iron deficiency.
C) an autoimmune disorder.
D) insecticides.
E) a combination of more than one of these.
Q2) Calcium concentration in the blood is controlled by this gland.
Q3) steroid hormone
Q4) The hormone in which levels remain high when the body is suffering from inflammation and stress is A) cortisol.
B) somatotropin.
C) thymosin.
D) prolactin.
E) parathyroid hormone.
Q5) insulin
Q6) produces cortisol
Q7) The glands at letter _____ have powerful influences on metabolism and calcium levels in the body.
Q8) The gland at letter "D" is the __________.
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true about asexual reproduction?
A) offspring of asexual reproduction are genetically the same as their parent
B) no mammals are known to reproduce asexually
C) many invertebrates reproduce asexually
D) asexual reproduction is advantageous in changing environments
E) all of these are true about asexual reproduction
Q2) Select the correct sequence of animal developmental events.
A) fertilization >>> cleavage >>> organ formation >>> growth of tissues
B) fertilization >>> cleavage >>> gastrula >>> organ formation
C) fertilization >>> gastrula >>> cleavage >>> organ formation
D) fertilization >>> organ formation >>> gastrula >>> cleavage
E) fertilization >>> organ formation >>> cleavage >>> gastrula
Q3) Which embryonic tissue is INCORRECTLY associated with its derivative?
A) skin from mesoderm
B) nervous system from ectoderm
C) liver from endoderm
D) circulatory system from mesoderm
E) muscles from mesoderm
Q4) This represents the product of the first meiotic division.
Q5) This stage appears as a multicellular,hollow ball.
Page 30
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Chapter 27: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following plant cells has a companion cell?
A) tracheids
B) vessel members
C) sieve-tube members
D) sclerids
E) fibers
Q2) If you were to penetrate through the epidermal layer of a root,you would next encounter the
A) xylem.
B) endodermis.
C) cortex.
D) phloem.
E) pith.
Q3) The tissue systems of the root and shoot system are classified as
A) ground tissue.
B) dermal tissue.
C) vascular tissue.
D) ground and dermal tissues.
E) ground, dermal, and vascular tissues.
Q4) vascular bundles organized in a ring in the stem
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Chapter 28: Plant Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) petal
Q2) Four of the five answers listed below are useful to flowers as means of attracting vectors.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) nectar
B) flower color
C) color patterns
D) pollen
E) wind
Q3) When you prune the tips off of branches,the plant tends to become more shrubby,this is due to
A) apical dominance release.
B) removal of auxin.
C) increased levels of cytokinin.
D) the development of lateral shoots.
E) a combination of all of these factors.
Q4) microspores
Q5) megaspores
Q6) closes stomata in times of stress
Q7) Pollen is produced in the structure at letter _____.
Q8) sepal
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