Principles of Biology
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology introduces students to the fundamental concepts underlying the study of living organisms, including cellular structure and function, genetics, evolution, and ecology. The course explores the biochemical foundations of life, mechanisms of heredity and gene expression, and the diversity of life forms, along with ecological interactions and evolutionary processes that shape the natural world. Emphasis is placed on developing scientific inquiry skills, understanding experimental design, and appreciating the relevance of biology in everyday life and global contexts.
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Discover Biology Core Topics 5th Edition by Anu Singh Cundy
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Q1) New cells are created when existing cells divide; immediately after division, every cell of every known living organism will contain DNA.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Microbiologists quickly responded to the paper by Dr. Wolfe-Simons claiming to have discovered organisms using arsenic to construct their DNA; one of the most challenging criticisms involved
A)the researcher's inability to account for arsenic's toxicity to other organisms.
B)publishing the paper prior to the conventional peer review.
C)the preparation of the bacterial DNA using nonconventional protocols.
D)the lack of comparative information on closely related bacteria within the Halomonadacea family.
Answer: C
Q3) Because the California sea lions that live along the Pacific coast freely migrate and regularly interbreed with one another biologists classify the group as a
Answer: population
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Chapter 2: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) Evolutionary tree diagrams representing the relationships between various organisms can be drawn only when those organisms share a
A)common cellular metabolism.
B)distinct lineage.
C)common cellular organization.
D)common ancestor.
Answer: D
Q2) The chemical composition of ancient sediments suggests that oxygen was essentially absent from the atmosphere of the early Earth; how can its abundance in today's atmosphere be explained?
A)Sunlight split water molecules apart, a process that produced oxygen gas.
B)Volcanic activity released oxygen that had been trapped beneath the Earth's surface.
C)Cyanobacteria and some eukaryotes produced oxygen as a byproduct of photosynthesis.
D)Chemical erosion of the Earth's surface released oxygen initially bound in surface rocks.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) Fertilization is the event occurring when a(n)
A)egg and sperm unite to first form a zygote and eventually an embryo.
B)pollen tube grows through the style and reaches the ovary.
C)pollen grain is transported by wind or insect to the female portion of the plant.
D)pollen grain is released from the male portion of the plant.
Answer: A
Q2) Protists may superficially resemble organisms in the other kingdoms; one exception is the kingdom _____, whose members do not resemble protists in any meaningful way.
A)Bacteria
B)Fungi
C)Plantae
D)Animalia
Answer: A
Q3) One reason plants can live on land is because they have developed a ____________________, which facilitates the distribution of water and nutrients obtained from the soil.
Answer: vascular system
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Chapter 4: Animalia
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Q1) For the insects that undergo complete metamorphosis the larva matures to form a ____________________.
Q2) Biologists might have been able to predict that raising lobsters in captivity would be unsuccessful; once a lobster
A)molts it becomes defenseless and a prey item for other lobsters.
B)reaches marketable size the cost of feeding it exceeds its sales value.
C)reaches sexual maturity they quit feeding, lose weight, and search for mates.
D)molts its flavor and texture make it almost unpalatable.
Q3) Cephalization is clearly adaptive for the free-living planarians that must locate their food; why would the parasitic flukes and tapeworms retain cephalization?
A)Those with separate sexes would need to locate one another when mating.
B)Parasitic infection is typically organ specific; parasites need to sense their location before attaching to a body structure.
C)Parasite life cycles require dispersal to new hosts, some parasites actively sense potential hosts and move toward them.
D)All of the above are reasonable hypotheses.
Q4) Endoderm forms the ____________________ layer of an animal embryo.
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Chapter 5: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) A solution with a pH of _____ is _____ times more acidic than a solution with a pH of _____.
A)3; 10,000; 7
B)12; 100; 10
C)7; 1,000; 9
D)4; 10; 3
Q2) Cholesterol is commonly found in the cell membranes of warm-blooded animals because
A)excess dietary cholesterol is stored in cell membranes.
B)cholesterol is involved in the muscle contractions needed to move an animal around its environment.
C)it prevents the cell membrane from becoming too flexible at body temperature.
D)warm-blooded animals tend to consume large amounts of cholesterol-rich foods.
Q3) A molecule with the general formula CH O is a(n)
A)protein.
B)carbohydrate.
C)amino acid.
D)nucleic acid.
Q4) Lipids with a four-ring structure are called ____________________.
Q5) The sum of an atom's protons and neutrons is its ____________________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) The boundary structure that physically defines a cell is the
A)plasma membrane.
B)protein channel.
C)hydrophilic layer.
D)phospholipid side chain.
Q2) In eukaryotic cells both the nucleus and mitochondria have double membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The definition of life is somewhat arbitrary; the critical aspect(s)that currently define(s)cells as living structures is (are)
A)structural organization, energy-dependence, and self-replication.
B)nucleic acid housed within a protective protein-based container.
C)size: any carbon-based molecular assembly between 0.1 and 1 µm.
D)the presence of at least two classically recognized organelles.
Q4) Which of the following statements is false?
A)The plasma membrane prevents some molecules from entering the cell.
B)The plasma membrane prevents some molecules from leaving the cell.
C)The plasma membrane receives signals from the outside environment.
D)The plasma membrane is the storehouse for each cell's genetic information.
Q5) The ____________________ has a double membrane but no cristae.
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Chapter 7: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fragrance of bread baking in a kitchen spreads to other rooms by A)active transport.
B)diffusion.
C)osmosis.
D)selective permeation.
Q2) Several types of lipoproteins exist; the best balance for cardiovascular health is achieved with ____________________ LDL and ____________________ HDL.
Q3) The concentration of glucose inside of a cell is higher than the concentration outside of that cell, yet glucose continues to enter the cell. This is an example of A)passive transport.
B)diffusion.
C)active transport.
D)osmotic transport.
Q4) Active transport
A)moves substances out of but not into cells.
B)occurs in dense patches far removed from passive carrier proteins.
C)moves substances from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration.
D)involves a carrier protein.
9
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Chapter 8: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) A given enzyme
A)can be used for many different kinds of chemical reactions.
B)is permanently changed during a chemical reaction.
C)has a special site where the products bind before the reaction begins.
D)lowers the activation energy of a particular reaction.
Q2) A molecule of methane burns, producing carbon dioxide, heat, light, and water. The direction of the event is dictated by the ____________________ law of thermodynamics.
Q3) The gain of electrons by one atom from another atom is referred to as ____________________.
Q4) During photosynthesis, light energy is converted into chemical energy, a type of A)potential energy.
B)kinetic energy. C)heat.
D)metabolism.
Q5) Metabolic pathways are relatively uncommon in cells; most biologically significant molecules are obtained intact from a well-balanced diet.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) Most of the oxidation reactions that produce NADH in a cell take place in
A)the Krebs cycle.
B)glycolysis.
C)photosynthesis.
D)the electron transport chain.
Q2) During the Calvin cycle, the enzyme rubisco combines a ____________________-carbon compound with CO to form an unstable carbohydrate [the answer is a number].
Q3) As an energy carrier, ATP differs from NADPH in that
A)ATP carries less energy than NADPH.
B)ATP transfers energy through redox reactions, whereas NADPH uses phosphorylation.
C)NADPH is involved in a larger variety of chemical reactions than ATP.
D)NADPH is made by Photosystem I, whereas ATP is made by Photosystem II.
Q4) Light consists of massless particles called photons, each of which propagates through space with a wavelike oscillation; the ____________________ the wavelength the greater the energy content.
Q5) Fermentation produces more ATP molecules than aerobic respiration does.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Cell Division
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Q1) The most critical stage of interphase for a cell that needs to undergo cell division is the ____________________ phase. If the cell does not complete this phase, it cannot undergo DNA segregation.
Q2) Some human cells, skeletal muscle for example, are multinucleated and originate when uninucleated cells fuse. What cell division process alone could produce a multinucleated cell?
A)a cell experiencing mitosis but not cytokinesis
B)a cell experiencing cytokinesis but not mitosis
C)a cell arresting after meiosis I
D)fertilization of a haploid egg by a diploid sperm
Q3) When examining the rapidly dividing cells of a fish embryo, you notice a cell that seems to contain two nuclei. The middle of the cell is pinched inward. This cell must be in _____ of mitosis.
A)prophase
B)telophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
Q4) The four cells that result from meiosis are ____________________ rather than diploid.
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Chapter 11: Stem Cells, Cancer, and Human Health
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Q1) A physical, chemical, or biological agent that causes cancer is a ____________________.
Q2) When cells are stimulated to divide,
A)proto-oncogenes are inactivated.
B)tumor suppressors are activated.
C)tumor suppressors are inactivated.
D)oncogenes become proto-oncogenes.
Q3) The only source of noninduced totipotent human stem cells is the inner mass of the blastocyst, a structure that forms within a week of fertilization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Even today relatively few human cells can be grown successfully in culture; the process began in the 1950s with the discovery of HeLa cells. A)True
B)False
Q5) Cancer-causing genes are known as ____________________.
Q6) Not all stem cells can generate all body cell types, only those described as ____________________ have this ability.
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Chapter 12: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Gregor Mendel deduced the laws of ____________________ by observing the offspring in a series of pea-breeding experiments.
Q2) Humans have many genes that contribute to the unique array of proteins found on their red blood cells. Your MN blood type (the letters indicate the presence of M and N proteins on the red blood cells)is determined by the codominant alleles L and L . Which of the following genotypes could be produced when a man with MN blood and a woman with MN blood mate?
A)LMLM
B)LMLN
C)LNLN
D)all of the above
Q3) Which of the following statements is a basic summary of one of Mendel's laws?
A)All beneficial human genetic traits are dominant, and harmful traits are recessive.
B)The pattern of inherited characteristics of organisms is not predictable.
C)The separation of alleles for one gene does not affect the separation of alleles for other genes.
D)Recessive alleles cause the death of the gamete.
Q4) The genetic makeup of an organism, such as Gg, is its ____________________.
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) "New" chromosomes are generated when homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material during ____________________.
Q2) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype
Q3) Human males have one chromosome that females do not, known as the ____________________ chromosome.
Q4) The farther apart on the same chromosome that two genes are located, the more likely they are to undergo ____________________.
Q5) Scientists are able to determine what alleles are present in your DNA because every gene in a human occupies a specific position or ____________________ in your chromosomes.
Q6) Even though it is deadly, the Huntington's disease allele can remain in the population, because
A)the dominant allele sometimes reverts to a recessive form.
B)it is sex-linked to the male gamete, and females do not carry the allele.
C)people with the disorder often live long enough to reproduce.
D)it is autosomal and can be masked by a codominant harmless allele.
Q7) All sex-linked genes are either X-linked or _-linked.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Dna and Genes
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Q1) People with xeroderma pigmentosum frequently exhibit skin cancer. The disease is a result of a mutation in a gene that produces a ____________________ protein. Without this protein, cells cannot fix changes in their DNA sequence caused by exposure to ultraviolet (UV)light.
Q2) How can a cell contain DNA molecules that are much longer than the cell?
A)The cell expands to fit the DNA inside.
B)DNA not used by that cell is deleted.
C)DNA is very narrow and tightly packed.
D)RNA copies allow DNA to dissolve.
Q3) Which of the following can be described as housekeeper genes?
A)genes that code for processing arabinose in E. coli
B)genes that code for producing chemicals that transmit nerve signals
C)genes that code for making muscle proteins
D)genes that code for making rRNA
Q4) Which of the following are removed from mRNA after transcription?
A)introns
B)transposons
C)spacer DNA
D)exons
Q5) Gene ____________________ is the synthesis of a gene's protein or RNA product.
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Chapter 15: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Protein coding genes specify the production of _____ as their immediate product.
A)rRNA
B)tRNA
C)DNA
D)mRNA
Q2) If a particular stretch of DNA has the base sequence TAC, what will be the base sequence of the anticodon of the tRNA that carries the amino acid encoded by that stretch of DNA?
A)TAC
B)UAC
C)ATG
D)GUC
Q3) Each tRNA molecule carries only one specific ____________________, but it can bind with up to three codons.
Q4) If a molecule of mRNA is a sentence, its bases are the letters and the codons are the ____________________.
Q5) The first amino acid in most proteins is methionine.
A)True
B)False
Q6) For translation to begin mRNA must first bind to a ____________________.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Dna Technology
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Q1) In research, restriction enzymes are used to
A)stop replication of DNA at a specific base during DNA sequencing.
B)cut DNA molecules into pieces that can be used to create recombinant DNA.
C)measure the relative amounts of each base in a DNA molecule.
D)join two fragments of DNA together to form a molecule of recombinant DNA.
Q2) Cloning is useful because it
A)repairs broken DNA.
B)mixes the DNA from two different organisms.
C)produces many copies of recombinant DNA.
D)determines the base sequence of a gene.
Q3) A vector is used to
A)transfer a gene to a specific cell in the body.
B)separate DNA fragments from one another.
C)probe DNA for faulty genes.
D)attach DNA fragments to one another.
Q4) The use of genetic engineering has social, economic, and ecological implications.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: How Evolution Works
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Q1) Flounder (a type of fish)generally match the color of the sandy bottoms they inhabit. Their color allows them to hide from other organisms that might eat them. This is an example of
A)speciation.
B)adaptation.
C)continental drift.
D)guided mutation.
Q2) Evolutionary changes occur when _____ acts upon populations containing individuals with genetic differences.
A)continental drift
B)natural selection
C)weather
D)mutation
Q3) Vestigial organs have important functions in many organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The domestication of agricultural crops, such as corn and wheat, provide evidence for evolution.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Evolution of Populations
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Q1) The human allele that causes six fingers per hand is dominant over the allele that produces five fingers per hand, yet most humans have five fingers per hand. Why is this so?
A)A Punnett square shows this situation to be impossible.
B)The F2 generation never expresses the dominant trait.
C)The heterozygote expresses the recessive trait.
D)The six-finger allele exists at a low frequency in the human population.
Q2) In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, ____________________ represents the predicted frequency of the heterozygous genotype.
Q3) Which of the following is true with regard to mutations?
A)Mutations occur in response to environmental pressures.
B)Mutations are more common in slowly growing organisms.
C)Mutations appear without regard to environmental pressures.
D)Several mutations must occur at one time for a new phenotype to appear.
Q4) The allele frequency of a recessive allele is always less than the allele frequency of a dominant allele.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Genetic drift causes random changes in ____________________ frequency.
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Chapter 19: Speciation and the Origins of Biological Diversity
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Q1) A biological species is a group of interbreeding populations that is ____________________ isolated from other species of organisms living in the same region.
Q2) Sympatric speciation can occur in the absence of geographic isolation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Speciation can occur when populations of a species are separated by a physical barrier becoming ____________________ isolated and subsequently reproductively isolated from one another.
Q4) Which of the following is not an example of a prezygotic barrier?
A)Two populations of plants produce flowers at different times of year.
B)The reproductive organ of the male of one species of damselfly is physically unable to deposit sperm in the reproductive receptacle of the female of another species of damselfly.
C)The hybrid produced by the mating of a lion and a tiger is reproductively sterile.
D)One population of frogs lives in the middle of a pond and the other lives exclusively on land.
Q5) An organism is polyploid if it has more than two complete sets of ____________________.
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Chapter 20: The Evolutionary History of Life
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Q1) An asteroid can cause a mass extinction by creating a cloud that blocks out the sun for months or years after impact.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hominids adapted to life on the ground approximately _____ years ago.
A)3.5 billion
B)130,000
C)600 million
D)5-7 million
Q3) Fossil anklebones from the ancestors of whales and the anklebones of hippopotamuses have the same shape, which is an adaptation for running on land. This suggests that
A)whales and ancient hippopotamuses underwent convergent evolution.
B)whales and ancient hippopotamuses evolved from a common ancestor.
C)the fossils of ancient hippopotamuses should be found in the same location and at the same depth from the Earth's surface as the fossils of ancient whales.
D)whales evolved from aquatic dinosaurs, whereas hippopotamuses evolved from terrestrial dinosaurs.
Q4) The first single-celled organisms arose 3.5 ____________________ years ago.
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Chapter 21: The Biosphere
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Q1) An ecosystem consists of both biotic (living)and ____________________ (nonliving)factors.
Q2) How do ozone molecules form in the atmosphere?
A)CFCs react with water vapor and O<sub>2</sub> to form hydrogen gas and ozone.
B)Ultraviolet light from the sun reacts with water vapor to form hydrogen gas and ozone.
C)Ultraviolet light from the sun reacts with oxygen gas, which then reacts with other oxygen gas to form ozone.
D)CFCs react with oxygen gas, which then reacts with other oxygen gas to form ozone.
Q3) When a predator is removed or displaced from its ecosystem, only its preferred prey is affected.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The biosphere is defined as all the living organisms on Earth along with the ____________________ in which they live.
Q5) The rotation of Earth causes winds to ____________________ as they move across the Earth's surface.
Q6) The ____________________ consists of all life and its surroundings.
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Chapter 22: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Nene, the Hawaiian goose, live on Maui. Their population density is 0.164 per square kilometer. Maui is 1,830 square kilometers in size. Approximately how many nene live on Maui?
A)16
B)150
C)300
D)11,600
Q2) The carrying capacity of a population can be affected by weather.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The human population crash that occurred on Easter Island was due to A)fire.
B)expanding forests and the consequent loss of farmland.
C)the aftermath of a volcanic eruption.
D)deforestation, soil erosion, and resource depletion.
Q4) The ecological footprint of a typical college student in the United States is about the same as a typical college student at a university in China.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) Which of the following is not a producer in an aquatic biome?
A)algae
B)mussels
C)phytoplankton
D)bacteria
Q2) During _____ a newly created habitat is inhabited.
A)primary succession
B)climax community formation
C)disturbance colonization
D)keystone recovery
Q3) Certain species of squirrels and acorn woodpeckers both eat acorns. In forests without squirrels, the density of acorn woodpeckers averages 100 per square kilometer, whereas in forests with squirrels the density of acorn woodpeckers is roughly halved. This reduced density most probably results from
A)interference competition.
B)herbivory.
C)character displacement.
D)exploitative competition.
Q4) A(n)____________________ is a single sequence of who eats whom in a community.
Page 25
Q5) ____________________ are animals eaten by other animals.
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) Which of the following groups of organisms would not be considered to be consumers?
A)herbivores
B)predators
C)photosynthesizers
D)decomposers
Q2) Secondary productivity can never exceed primary productivity because
A)secondary productivity is limited by the amount of energy produced by primary producers.
B)secondary productivity is less efficient than primary productivity.
C)energy loss to the surroundings in an ecosystem depends mostly on tertiary consumers.
D)nutrient cycling is much slower in secondary productivity.
Q3) Methane is about 20 times less powerful as a greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most human-caused environmental damage can be successfully reversed and natural habitats can be reconstructed.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Humans are particularly adept at water transformation; current estimates are that human activities have affected nearly _____ percent of the world's rivers.
A)10
B)40
C)70
D)100
Q2) Converting atmospheric nitrogen into chemical forms that can be used biologically is called fixation. Which of the following organisms can fix nitrogen?
A)insects
B)oak trees
C)bacteria
D)fish
Q3) Ample evidence now exists to show that worldwide environmental changes are occurring; one example is the A)increased NPP observed within the world's aquatic ecosystems.
B)widespread occurrence of invasive species.
C)moderate decline in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations.
D)expansion of forested land as tree-replanting efforts become more accepted.
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Chapter 26: Internal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) To maintain constant internal conditions, an animal
A)must produce more metabolic heat than it loses to its surroundings.
B)needs to take in more water than it loses to its surroundings.
C)needs to lose and gain equal amounts of heat and water but lose more solutes than it gains.
D)must gain and lose equal amounts of heat, solutes, and water.
Q2) Why do animals that live in cold climates have thick fur coats?
A)Fur reduces convection and traps a layer of air heated by conduction close to the skin, keeping the animal's body warmer.
B)Thicker fur allows animals to better blend into the environment, providing protection from other animals.
C)Fur decreases the ratio of surface area to volume of the animal so it does not lose as much heat.
D)Fur prevents the formation of ice crystals next to the skin of the animal, which prevents cells from freezing and being damaged by ice.
Q3) Sweating results in heat loss by convection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Shivering and goose bumps are ways of producing ____________________.
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) Vitamins are an essential source of energy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the best way to control your weight and live longer?
A)Eat only foods high in protein.
B)Become a vegetarian.
C)Eat only foods high in carbohydrates.
D)Get plenty of exercise.
Q3) The enzyme lactase is found only in populations of people who suffer from lactose intolerance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which pair of elements would make up more of your body weight than any of the other pairs below?
A)sodium and chlorine
B)carbon and oxygen
C)phosphorus and magnesium
D)potassium and iodine
Q5) The nutrients in food enter our body by crossing through the epithelial cells lining the ____________________ intestine.
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Chapter 28: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Air entering the lungs has a
A)higher concentration of carbon dioxide than air in an alveolus.
B)higher concentration of both carbon dioxide and oxygen than in an alveolus.
C)higher concentration of oxygen and a lower concentration of carbon dioxide than in an alveolus.
D)lower concentration of oxygen and a concentration of carbon dioxide equal to that in an alveolus.
Q2) Referring to the question above, which of the following responses will not be temporarily expressed by visitors to high altitudes?
A)increased blood flow
B)increased concentration of hemoglobin in the blood
C)increased heart rate
D)increased attraction of hemoglobin to oxygen
Q3) The process of inhalation requires more energy than the process of exhalation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An irritated pharynx could be caused by sinus drainage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Animal Hormones
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Q1) Cancer of the pituitary gland can cause gigantism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pancreas regulates ____________________ levels in the blood by producing a pair of antagonistic hormones.
Q3) In human females, eggs begin to develop at puberty due to the release of A)gonadotropins. B)calcitonin.
C)glucagon.
D)insulin.
Q4) When liver cells are unable to respond to insulin, the level of glucose in the blood remains ____________________ than normal.
Q5) Progesterone and luteinizing hormone have the same effects.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The hormone-producing tissues of animals make up the ____________________ system.
Q7) In a human female, the hormone ____________________ controls the development of female reproductive structures.
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Chapter 30: Nervous and Sensory Systems
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Q1) In bright light, the openings in the pupils of our eyes become smaller.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to be myelinated?
A)an interneuron
B)the axon between your spinal cord and your big toe
C)an axon that only exists within the spinal cord
D)a neuron in the thalamus
Q3) A resting neuron is negatively charged inside relative to the outside.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As you complete this exam, which part of the brain is helping you decide which answer is correct?
A)cerebellum
B)pons
C)thalamus
D)cerebral cortex
Q5) The flow of ions across an axon's plasma membrane generates an electrical impulse known as the ____________________.
Q6) We perceive pressure waves in air as ____________________.
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Chapter 31: Skeletons, Muscles, and Movement
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Q1) The axial skeleton includes the A)spinal column only.
B)spinal column, skull, and rib cage.
C)all bones in the arms and legs.
D)spinal column and pelvis.
Q2) Your small intestine has smooth muscle in its walls.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Muscle contraction is caused by
A)movement of bones that anchor the muscles.
B)movement of sarcomeres along other sarcomeres.
C)sliding of myosin filaments along actin filaments.
D)contraction of actin and myosin filaments.
Q4) An increase in muscle strength can result from either an increase in muscle fiber number or an increase in the thickness of existing muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Lobsters, insects, and many other invertebrate groups have a(n)____________________, an external skeleton that surrounds and encloses the soft tissues it supports.
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Chapter 32: Defenses Against Disease
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Q1) The fetus of a lion receives antibodies that were produced by its mother while it was still in the womb. This is an example of
A)active immunity.
B)a secondary immune response.
C)a primary immune response.
D)passive immunity.
Q2) During a major infection, you get a high fever because
A)the bacteria in your body produce chemicals that cause the brain to raise your temperature to make the environment more amenable to bacterial growth.
B)your immune system signals the brain to raise body temperature to limit bacterial growth and speed up phagocytosis.
C)pathogens damage tissues throughout your body, causing an extreme inflammatory response.
D)your low energy levels prevent the brain from maintaining the negative feedback loop that controls body temperature.
Q3) Macrophages are smaller than neutrophils but have a similar function.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Spermatogenesis results in the production of ____________________ sperm, whereas oogenesis produces just one egg.
Q2) In humans, the exchanges of materials between the embryo and its mother occur through the A)umbilical cord.
B)amnion.
C)yolk sac.
D)endometrium.
Q3) The second meiotic division in a secondary oocyte is completed
A)just after its release into the oviduct.
B)only after the polar body degenerates.
C)only if it is fertilized.
D)immediately after the primary oocyte divides.
Q4) The skulls of newborn humans and chimpanzees closely resemble each other.
A)True
B)False
Q5) To start a stem cell line from humans, a scientist would want to take a cell from the ____________________ of an embryo.
Q6) In humans development from zygote to completion is ____________________ weeks.
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Chapter 34: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Imprinted behaviors are fixed behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following does not describe a learned behavior?
A)a laboratory monkey lifting blocks to find the piece of food hidden under one
B)sea turtles moving toward the ocean immediately after hatching
C)a cat coming to be fed after hearing the sound of a can opener
D)a mother releasing milk in response to a baby's cry rather than to the baby's attempts to nurse
Q3) Lending a friend money when you do not have much money to spare is being
Q4) A division of labor is present in most ____________________ groups.
Q5) Which of the following statements about learned behaviors is true?
A)Learned behaviors provide animals with flexible responses.
B)Learned behaviors are not influenced by an organism's surroundings.
C)Learned behaviors are totally under genetic control.
D)Learned behaviors develop only when an animal interacts with another animal.
Q6) The consumption of ____________________ both alters our behavior and decreases our ability to regulate behavior.
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Q7) ____________________ is a highly advanced form of communication found in humans.
Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) What observation would indicate that the thorns on a rose bush are actually modified stems?
A)the presence of stomata
B)vascular bundles arranged in a ring
C)a centrally located vascular bundle
D)the presence of a cuticle
Q2) Essential oils from plants like peppermint and sage are used by plants as protection from bacteria, fungi, and plant-eating animals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The basic plant body consists of a root system and a ____________________ system.
Q4) Once sugars have been actively transported into the phloem,
A)the sugars move to other parts of the phloem by diffusion.
B)water is actively transported into the phloem to prevent diffusion.
C)water enters the phloem through osmosis.
D)pressure decreases in the phloem.
Q5) The most abundant plant cell type in ground tissue is ____________________.
Q6) ____________________ is the evaporation of water from the surface of a leaf.
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Chapter 36: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) The energy used by seedlings before they begin photosynthesis is stored in the ____________________.
Q2) Meristem cells in plants are similar to ____________________ cells in vertebrates.
Q3) The growth of cells within the cork cambium results in the production of A)heartwood. B)bark.
C)secondary phloem. D)sapwood.
Q4) The plant body is modular, formed by the repeated addition of the same basic units. A)True
B)False
Q5) In flowering plants, sperm form the pollen grain. A)True B)False
Q6) Most flowering plants rely on animals rather than wind to transport pollen. A)True B)False
Q7) Mature pollen grains contain ____________________ sperm cells.
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