Principles of Biology Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology provides an introduction to the fundamental concepts of biology, exploring the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. The course emphasizes scientific methodologies, basic chemical foundation of life, energy transformations, and the interrelationships among organisms and their environments. Designed for students beginning their study of the life sciences, it lays the groundwork for more advanced coursework and cultivates an understanding of the impact of biological principles on society and daily life.
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Discover Biology 6th Core Edition by Anu Singh
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Q1) Which of the following questions could NOT be used to develop a testable hypothesis?
A) Does exposure to secondhand smoke affect the probability of developing lung cancer?
B) Do organic vegetables contain harmful substances?
C) Should everyone drink bottled water only?
D) Does a can of vegetable juice contain more salt than the same size can of iced tea?
Answer: C
Q2) Consider each of the following true statements; which statement supports the theory that all living organisms descended from one common ancestor?
A) Bacteria have a cell wall outside the plasma membrane.
B) Offspring resemble their parents.
C) All living organisms use DNA as their hereditary material.
D) Some organisms are consumers, whereas others are producers.
Answer: C
Q3) The observation that polar ice floes are thinning or melting much earlier each spring than they did 20 years ago is an example of a scientific ________.
Answer: fact
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) The primary structure of a protein consists of its amino acid sequence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Most living organisms consist of more than 70 percent ________ by weight.
Answer: water
Q3) The outer electron shell of a nitrogen atom can hold up to eight electrons but contains only five.As a result,nitrogen can form ________ covalent bonds.
A) Zero
B) One
C) Three
D) Eight
Answer: C
Q4) Oil and water do not mix together well because
A) water is polar and oil is nonpolar.
B) only identical molecules of the same chemical can mix together easily.
C) water has hydrogen bonds and oil is polar.
D) water and oil are covalently bonded together.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) A three-parent biological baby involves two fertilized eggs,one that contains healthy mitochondria and one that contains faulty mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A screen door allows breezes to enter and aromas to exit,but keeps out insects.Its function most resembles
A) the cytosol.
B) the plasma membrane.
C) the ER lumen.
D) a ribosome.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Actin filaments can change rapidly in length.
B) Actin filaments define the paths for vesicle movement within the cell.
C) Actin filaments allow cells to change shape.
D) Actin filaments allow cells to move.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) All movement,including that of diffusing molecules,requires a small expenditure of energy; which of the following small sources of energy is most likely to make diffusion possible across the cell membrane from the cell exterior into the cell interior?
A) Cells hydrolyze ATP to provide the energy for diffusion.
B) A small percentage of the diffusing molecules react chemically with the membrane.
C) Thermal energy is present in the extracellular environment.
D) Gravity forces the molecules to move downhill.
Q2) Hydrophilic signaling molecules
A) move into cells by active transport through carrier protein channels.
B) bind to cell surface receptors and do not enter cells.
C) can passively cross the plasma membrane and bind to intracellular receptor proteins.
D) move directly into the nucleus through carrier proteins that span the distance from the plasma membrane to the nuclear envelope.
Q3) Steroids are unable to cross the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Water moves across a membrane from a hypotonic solution to a ________ solution.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) Which of the following compounds is the LEAST oxidized?
A) C6H12O6
B) CO
C) CH4
D) HCOOH
Q2) The tiny dwarf lemur balances its energy budget by ________ and ________ by burrowing underground.
Q3) During photosynthesis,light energy is converted into chemical energy,which is a type of
A) potential energy.
B) kinetic energy.
C) heat.
D) activation energy.
Q4) According to the ________ model,an enzyme's active site will adjust its shape to mold around a substrate after binding to that substrate.
Q5) The first law of thermodynamics states that the total energy of a living system and its surroundings remains constant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Photo Synthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) The type of reaction that breaks down food molecules and gradually oxidizes them to produce energy is a(n)________ reaction.
Q2) All of the following elements can be found in the photosynthetic intermediary molecules that lead to the production of sugar; which element does NOT remain in the final product?
A) carbon
B) phosphorous
C) hydrogen
D) oxygen
Q3) The mitochondria of plant cells contain thylakoids.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The series of chemical reactions that begins with rubisco adding oxygen to ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP)and ends with the release of CO is called ________.
Q5) The muscle cells of a very active organism would contain fewer mitochondria than those of a less active organism.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Cell Division
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Q1) Lily plants sometimes have twice as many chromosomes per cell as their parent plants.Which of the following statements explains how this phenomenon might have happened?
A) The lily's sister chromatids failed to separate during meiosis.
B) The lily's chromosome number went from 2n to 1n.
C) The lily's gametes fused during mitosis.
D) The parent plant lost half of its chromosomes during mitosis.
Q2) Which of the following processes must occur before cell division begins?
A) shrinkage of the nucleus
B) DNA synthesis
C) cytokinesis
D) DNA segregation
Q3) During anaphase I of meiosis,which of the following things happens?
A) Sister chromatids are pulled apart toward opposite poles.
B) Each member of a bivalent moves toward a different pole.
C) All bivalents are pulled to the same pole.
D) Paired homologues become attached to each other by microtubules.
Q4) DNA molecules are exceptionally long (about 6 feet in humans)and exceptionally thin.To minimize breakage and yet facilitate transcription,DNA forms into a complex known as chromatin by wrapping around ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Cancer and Human Health
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Q1) Normal cell division requires ________ proto-oncogenes and ________ tumor suppressor genes.
A) inactivated; activated
B) inactivated; inactivated
C) activated; activated
D) activated; inactivated
Q2) A benign growth is noncancerous.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A mutation that changes a gene,but not the protein product of that gene,will NOT cause cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A protein is identified that starts a signal cascade leading to the activation of a gene that promotes cell division.This protein is coded for by a
A) tumor suppressor gene.
B) oncogene.
C) proto-oncogene.
D) carcinogen.
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) The first reaction in the chain of enzyme-catalyzed chemical reactions that convert the amino acid tyrosine into eumelanin or pheomelanin is orchestrated by an enzyme encoded by the C gene.Homozygotes for the recessive allele of this gene (cc)exhibit the ________ phenotype.
Q2) One of the first medical tests a newborn receives determines if the child has phenylketonuria (PKU).PKU is the result of a mutation in a single gene that causes mental retardation and a host of other phenotypes (light hair and skin color,eczema,and a "mousy" smell).By detecting PKU early,doctors are able to reduce the effect of this condition with a modified diet.PKU is an example of A) epistasis.
B) a polygenic trait.
C) pleiotropy.
D) codominance.
Q3) The best way to get accurate results from a probability exercise is to A) choose an example with incomplete dominance.
B) know the answer in advance.
C) choose an example that will come out fifty-fifty.
D) make a large number of observations.
Q4) The expressed characteristics of an organism are known as its ________.
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Chapter 10: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) Genes that are located on opposite ends of the same chromosome are
A) not affected by crossing-over.
B) affected by crossing-over at the same frequency as genes that are located next to each other on the same chromosome.
C) only affected by crossover events that occur between two nonhomologous chromosomes.
D) affected by crossing-over so frequently that they may appear to undergo independent assortment.
Q2) Spontaneous abortions are often due to the addition or deletion of whole ________ in the gametes that fused to form the zygote.
Q3) Most inherited human disorders are the result of
A) recessive mutations of genes located on autosomes.
B) recessive mutations of genes located on the X chromosome.
C) recessive mutations of genes located on the Y chromosome.
D) simultaneous mutations of the same gene on homologous chromosomes.
Q4) A chart that shows genetic relationships within a family over several generations is called a ________.
Q5) All sex-linked genes are either X-linked or ________-linked.
Q6) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype ________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
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Q1) The order of the base pairs in a DNA molecule
A) differs from species to species.
B) is identical in all organisms.
C) is identical in organisms of the same species.
D) differs from cell to cell in a given organism.
Q2) A gene sequence is disrupted by a mobile segment of DNA such that the gene is no longer functional.The mobile segment of DNA is a ________.
Q3) Which of the following does NOT correctly state a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA organization?
A) Prokaryotic DNA groups genes with related functions together, whereas eukaryotic DNA does not.
B) Prokaryotic DNA has few noncoding regions, unlike eukaryotic DNA.
C) Eukaryotic DNA is usually arranged more simply than prokaryotic DNA.
D) Eukaryotic genomes contain more genes than prokaryotic genomes.
Q4) During DNA replication,the template strands of the original DNA molecule are complementary both to each other and to one of the new strands.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Each tRNA molecule can bind with up to three codons,but carries only one specific
Q2) The specific type of nucleic acid found in ribosomes,which are important in protein synthesis,is ________.
Q3) The order of the bases in DNA determines the order of the
A) amino acids in DNA.
B) bases in a protein.
C) amino acids in mRNA.
D) bases in mRNA.
Q4) Consider a build-at-home bookshelf that comes with instructions and various pieces of wood as an analogy for translation.In this analogy,what would best match the job of the ribosome?
A) the instructions
B) the person building the bookshelf
C) the pieces of wood
D) the bookshelf
Q5) DNA replication involves the copying of the entire chromosome; in contrast,just a small portion of a chromosome is copied in the process of ________.
Q6) Translation,a process carried out by the ribosomes,occurs in the cell ________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: DNA Technology
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Q1) The induction of pluripotent stem cells requires that specific gene or proteins be added to a differentiated cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) DNA ________ occurs when complementary single-stranded DNA molecules from two different sources undergo base pairing.
Q3) A restriction enzyme from a bacterium is able to cut a human's DNA because
A) bacteria and humans are both prokaryotes.
B) all organisms use the same DNA nucleotides.
C) bacteria and humans have identical genomes.
D) a given restriction enzyme can cut DNA at several different sequences.
Q4) Stem cells that can generate all body cell types,including those in the birth sac,are described as ________.
Q5) Genetic engineering works only on animals and has not yet been successfully used on plants.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Genetically modified organisms are also called________ organisms.
Q7) Hind III and AluI are examples of ________ used to cut DNA at specific sites.
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Chapter 14: How Evolution Works
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Q1) Genetic variation is based on
A) the inheritance of alleles that are accumulated during an individual's lifetime.
B) differences in DNA sequences between the individuals in a population.
C) the accumulation of mutations in somatic cells (as opposed to gametes).
D) the formation of new combinations of alleles during asexual reproduction.
Q2) A hurricane could cause genetic drift by
A) increasing the mutation rate of a population.
B) randomly killing more males than females in a population.
C) randomly killing more individuals of one genotype than another in a population.
D) relocating a population to a different habitat.
Q3) Pangaea is
A) the component of plate tectonics that was formerly called continental drift.
B) the combined fossil record of ancient species.
C) an ancient supercontinent formed from the major landmasses that exist today as separate continents.
D) the result of natural selection.
Q4) In ________ selection,success is related more to attracting a mate than to possessing adaptations that are beneficial for survival.
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Chapter 15: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Two populations that are geographically isolated will always diverge into two species.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a murky lake is stocked with a number of species of cichlid fish from Lake Victoria,what is most likely to happen?
A) The cichlid species will be very visible to the many predators in this area.
B) The colorful male cichlids will be very attractive to females in the lake.
C) The cichlid species will interbreed because the lake is so cloudy.
D) The cichlid species will have many offspring because they are so colorful.
Q3) In general,geographical isolation occurs when
A) populations migrate to new environments.
B) gene flow is reduced by more than 75 percent due to climate change.
C) mutations overcome genetic drift across physical barriers.
D) populations are separated by a distance that is great enough to limit gene flow.
Q4) When speciation is caused by a rapid change in chromosomal number such as ________,new species form in a single generation.
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Biodiversity
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Q1) The coelacanth and the lungfish are the two main candidates reputed to be a close relative of the ancestral fish that first used fins to walk on land and give rise to the ____________.
Q2) Large timescales have played a role in creating the diversity of life that has existed over billions of years on the planet Earth in combination with ______________.
Q3) Following each of Earth's five mass extinctions,the diversity of life on Earth,over time,has ____________________ [increased or decreased].
Q4) Which of the following groups of animals evolved the most recently?
A) invertebrates
B) amphibians
C) reptiles
D) mammals
Q5) The similarities retained by two lineages because of their common ancestry are known as ________.
A) heterologous traits
B) homologous traits
C) homozygous traits
D) detritivorous characteristics
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Chapter 17: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) The concept that includes all living things as well as the nonliving things they interact with is ________.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of bioremediation?
A) fertilizers to stimulate the growth of naturally occurring microbes that will consume a pollutant such as oil
B) dispersal of nonnative microbes that will consume a pollutant such as oil
C) dispersing of seeds to reestablish vegetative growth that will remove pollutants from the environment
D) dispersal of a nontoxic inorganic compound that will soak up the pollutants
Q3) Microscopic examination can often resolve questions in taxonomy; for example,cells that possess a nucleus are never classified as A) eukaryote.
B) fungi.
C) archaean.
D) protist.
Q4) Using the simplest methods to study the composition of intestinal microbial flora,it is necessary to collect a ________ sample from the subject.
Q5) Bacteria trade small sections of plasmid DNA with one another during ________.
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Chapter 18: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) In addition to a process similar to binary fission in prokaryotes (as seen in Amoeba)and fragmentation (as seen in large multicellular algae),some eukaryotes can also reproduce asexually by A) hermaphroditism.
B) releasing gametes that then develop into male or female individuals.
C) the formation of zoospores.
D) creating dormant reproductive structures such as seeds that grow only when environmental conditions are favorable.
Q2) In nature,fungi function primarily as ________,getting their nutrition from dead and dying organisms.
Q3) Mixotrophs show some unusual nutritional strategies; for example,when resources such as nitrogen become limited,they often switch from
A) photoautotrophy to chemoheterotrophy.
B) photoautotrophy to chemoautotrophy.
C) chemoheterotrophy to photoheterotrophy.
D) photoheterotrophy to photoautotrophy.
Q4) Most plants produce flowers,which greatly improve the probability of ________.
Q5) Sexual reproduction requires the fusion of special cells called ________.
Q6) The first plant group to evolve a vascular system was the ________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Animalia
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Q1) Sharks and the ray-finned fishes differ in several ways; the most significant difference is the composition of the skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Relative brain size (brain weight/total body weight)tends to be larger in the monotremes than in either the marsupials or the eutherians.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following investigations would be the LEAST likely to provide useful information about the relationships within the kingdom Animalia?
A) which developmental sequences occur during embryonic growth
B) an examination of the construction of the cell membrane
C) a comparative examination of the proteins used in photosynthesis
D) in what way various organs and organ systems have become modified over time
Q4) The myriapods are a relatively small group of arthropods; its most common members are the ________ and ________.
Q5) An animal having radial symmetry,a complete gut,and mesoglea would be a(n)________.
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Chapter 20: The Biosphere
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Q1) Atmospheric circulation occurs primarily within one of the ________ major convection cells.
Q2) Boreal forests receive relatively little rainfall but moisture is adequate during the growing season because
A) these plants do not require much water.
B) evaporation rates are low due to the low temperatures.
C) the deep, nutrient-rich soils retain a great deal of water.
D) permafrost melts and provides water in the summer.
Q3) Collectively,the biosphere's major terrestrial and aquatic life zones are called A) biomes.
B) ecosystems.
C) habitats.
D) populations.
Q4) Climate is defined as the prevailing weather conditions in an area over a time period of decades.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Workers in Kenya use marine pollution from the Indian Ocean to make key rings. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Growth of Populations
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Q1) A population is counted at 100 individuals in 1998.In 2006,a new count found 1,600 individuals.What is the doubling time for the population?
A) 0.5 years
B) 1 year
C) 1.5 years
D) 2 years
Q2) In computing an individual's ecological footprint,which of the following would NOT be included?
A) energy demand
B) food use
C) goods and services use
D) education level
Q3) A population of 100 individuals has a doubling time of 25 years.What size will this population be in 100 years?
A) 100
B) 400
C) 800
D) 1,600
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Chapter 22: Animal Behavior
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Q1) An advertisement that uses images of pizza takes advantage of ________ that plays a large role in purchasing decisions.
A) a fixed behavior
B) a learned response
C) the imprinting
D) the sensation of hunger, rather than a learned behavior
Q2) Nuptial gifts are
A) forms of communication used to end a sexual relationship.
B) forms of communication used to interest a potential sexual partner.
C) are seldom used because they are not usually effective.
D) are examples of altruistic behaviors.
Q3) A disadvantage of living in groups would be
A) care of offspring.
B) spread of disease.
C) safety from predators.
D) finding a mate.
Q4) In a polygamous relationship,the greatest parental investments are made by the male.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) During the past 35 million years,the climate of North America has experienced significant change.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Clownfish have evolved to live safely between the stinging tentacles of certain sea anemones.The fish receives protection from predators,whereas the anemone receives some food from the fish.This relationship is an example of
A) nutritional mutualism.
B) consumer interaction.
C) competitive limitation.
D) behavioral mutualism.
Q3) In which of the following situations would secondary rather than primary succession be most likely to occur?
A) on an island that has just risen out of the ocean
B) on bare ground exposed by the retreat of a glacier
C) on the surface of recently cooled lava
D) in a forest that had burned to bare ground
Q4) A community whose species are not replaced by other species is classified as a ________ community.
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) A community of organisms,together with the chemical and physical environment in which the organisms live,is known as a(n)________.
Q2) Rainfall in some areas of Canada has a high acidity level and a correspondingly high pH.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Rainfall with a low pH is called ________.
Q4) Over time,the total amount of nutrients such as carbon and iron present on the Earth increases slightly by their addition from A) meteoric matter from space.
B) volcanic activity.
C) nutrient recycling.
D) electromagnetic radiation.
Q5) Sedimentary nutrients
A) cycle very slowly and can often become limiting.
B) are easily replaced if lost from an ecosystem by erosion of the local rock.
C) are distributed from locally abundant reservoirs through atmospheric circulation. D) include carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur.
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Humans are changing the way many chemicals ________ through ecosystems.
Q2) Because wetlands have relatively little economic value,the percentage of the United States that is covered by wetlands has been relatively stable during the past 200 years.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Increased agricultural productivity in the northern latitudes is expected to be a consequence of global warming because
A) the increased temperatures will lead to a longer growing season.
B) cold-tolerant plants will adapt to become hardier.
C) soil acidification will occur in those areas.
D) agricultural productivity increases are predicted for all latitudes.
Q4) Compared with past estimates,extinction rates are currently high.What is the most plausible explanation for this increase?
A) Natural fluctuations in climate are causing extinctions.
B) Continental drift is causing rapid changes in climate; these changes, in turn, cause extinctions.
C) Previous extinctions make survival of contemporary species more difficult.
D) Humans are affecting many aspects of the global environment.
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