
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Principles of Biology provides an introduction to the fundamental concepts and processes that underlie all living organisms. Topics include the structure and function of cells, genetics, mechanisms of evolution, diversity of life, and basic principles of ecology. Emphasis is placed on understanding how living systems interact at molecular, cellular, organismal, and ecosystem levels. The course also explores the scientific method, experimental design, and the application of biological principles to real-world issues such as health, biotechnology, and environmental sustainability.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Essentials 3rd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels Dr
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Q1) The four kingdoms included in the domain Eukarya are
A) Bacteria, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia.
B) Bacteria, Protista, Plantae, and Animalia.
C) Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia.
D) Archaea, Bacteria, Plantae, and Animalia.
E) Archaea, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia.
Answer: C
Q2) What statement deals with an aspect of experimentation but with the incorrect explanation?
A) The larger the sample size, the more meaningful the results.
B) The smaller the sample size, the more meaningful the results.
C) A control group is an untreated group and provides a basis for comparison.
D) It is important to standardize aspects of an experiment that might affect the outcome, other than the independent variable.
E) All answers are correct.
Answer: B
Q3) The "kingdom" is the most all-inclusive taxonomic category.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Within a single molecule of water,________ bonds form between oxygen and hydrogen.
A) ionic
B) covalent
C) hydrogen
D) hydrophobic
E) nuclear
Answer: B
Q2) You can painlessly wade into a pool,but doing a belly flop off of the high diving board hurts because of
A) water's higher density compared to the air.
B) adhesion of your molecules with the water molecules.
C) water's high boiling point.
D) a neutral pH.
E) cohesion of the water molecules.
Answer: E
Q3) Water is a compound.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) What is the advantage of a mature red blood cell having a flattened shape rather than a spherical shape?
A) It is easier for them to fit through arteries and veins.
B) It provides more membrane for the electron transport chains where oxygen is consumed.
C) It provides more receptor sites for the membrane-bound hemoglobin molecules which transport oxygen.
D) It saves energy by making more membrane relative to the volume of the cell.
E) It maximizes the relative surface area for gas exchange.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following roles is not performed by the rough endoplasmic reticulum nor the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
A) protein production
B) lipid production
C) detoxification of poisons
D) DNA production
E) vesicle formation for transport to the Golgi apparatus
Answer: D
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Q1) If a lion eats a gazelle,before the molecules have been broken down by its cells,the lion has gained
A) potential energy.
B) kinetic energy.
C) entropy.
D) respiratory capacity.
E) enzymes for digesting grass.
Q2) Phagocytosis is the process used by cells to bring in small amounts of fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Noncompetitive inhibition of enzymes occurs
A) when a substance other than the correct substrate binds at the active site of an enzyme.
B) when a substance binds to an enzyme at a site away from the active site.
C) by denaturation of an enzyme.
D) by blocking the production of an enzyme.
E) when two enzymes bind together.
Q4) Energy sometimes appears spontaneously in living systems.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Herbicides may kill plants by
A) blocking carotenoid synthesis.
B) blocking electron flow in photosystem II.
C) diverting electrons away from photosystem I.
D) interfering with amino acid synthesis.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q2) Without photosynthesis,autotrophs would be more abundant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the gelatinous matrix inside chloroplasts that contains ribosomes,DNA,and enzymes?
A) granum
B) chlorophyll
C) thylakoid
D) stroma
E) mitochondria
Q4) Biologists consider photosynthesis to be the most important metabolic process because without it,there would be no CO in the atmosphere.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The chemical formula for glucose is
A) C H O .
B) C H O .
C) C H O .
D) C H O .
E) C H O .
Q2) The compound that enters the Krebs cycle is
A) ATP.
B) pyruvate.
C) PGAL.
D) ATP synthase.
E) acetyl CoA.
Q3) Alcoholic fermentation
A) is carried out by yeasts.
B) produces far less ATP than aerobic respiration.
C) produces ethanol.
D) produces carbon dioxide.
E) All answers are correct.
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Q1) The step of translation in which an mRNA,a small ribosomal subunit,and the initiator tRNA are aligned together is
A) initiation.
B) mitosis.
C) elongation.
D) termination.
E) transcription.
Q2) One key reason why viruses are not considered living organisms is A) viruses do not contain genetic information.
B) viruses do not reproduce on their own.
C) viruses are all smaller than the smallest known cells.
D) viruses do not contain a nucleus.
E) viruses can be frozen and still survive.
Q3) The "central dogma" of molecular biology described by Watson and Crick describes A) the passing of genetic information from DNA to RNA by translation.
B) the passing of genetic information from RNA to protein by transcription.
C) the inheritance of traits between generations.
D) the production of energy in a cell.
E) the directional flow of genetic information in cells.
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Q1) The enzyme that unwinds DNA is
A) helicase.
B) transcriptase.
C) DNA polymerase.
D) amylase.
E) ligase.
Q2) The phase of mitosis in which the centromeres split and sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of the cell is
A) prophase.
B) anaphase.
C) interphase.
D) metaphase.
E) telophase.
Q3) The plant cell in the image labeled "D" is in the cell cycle stage A) metaphase.
B) anaphase.
C) prophase.
D) telophase.
E) interphase.
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Q1) Haploid germ cells undergo meiosis,including crossing over,to produce sex cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Genes A and B are on the same chromosome.What gametes could an individual with the allele combination AABB produce?
A) AABB
B) A
C) AB
D) B
E) AAB
Q3) If a diploid sperm fertilizes a diploid egg it will produce a ________ zygote.
A) triploid
B) tetraploid
C) diploid
D) haploid
E) hexaploid
Q4) Mitosis occurs in somatic cells throughout life.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Mendel's law of segregation states that the two alleles of each gene are packaged into separate gametes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hemophilia A is caused by
A) an X-linked recessive disorder.
B) a Y-linked recessive disorder.
C) a defective neuron response.
D) an X-linked dominant disorder.
E) a Y-linked dominant disorder.
Q3) When Mendel crossed short (tt)pea plants with short (tt)pea plants the offspring
A) were all tall.
B) were a mix of tall and short.
C) were nonexistent.
D) were all short.
E) No answer is correct.
Q4) The environment only rarely affects gene expression.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) DNA probes can be used to detect the alleles for A) cystic fibrosis.
B) hemophilia.
C) sickle cell disease.
D) Tay-Sachs syndrome.
E) All answers are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is not an application of DNA technology?
A) selection of desired traits in breeding
B) detection of genetic illnesses
C) replacement of faulty copies of genes
D) production of genetically modified crops with greater nutritional value
E) determination of identity of criminals through DNA profiling
Q3) DNA probes are typically labeled with a radioactive isotope or fluorescent tag to locate within the genome after binding.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Transfer of transgenes from crop plants to wild relatives can render chemicals like glyphospate ineffective.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Babies that are at a low birth weight are more likely to have health problems,while women will have difficulty delivering babies with high birth weight.Together this leads to ________ for babies of average birth weight.
A) stabilizing selection
B) disruptive selection
C) directional selection
D) artificial selection
E) sexual selection
Q2) Individuals,who have one normal allele and one sickle cell allele,are able to resist malaria.This gives them a better chance of reaching reproductive age.This is known as A) heterozygote advantage.
B) homozygote advantage.
C) artificial selection.
D) heterozygote disadvantage.
E) dominant advantage.
Q3) Artificial selection is responsible for many vegetable varieties.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If many human genes differ in about 10% of their bases from another species' same genes and substitutions occur at an estimated rate of 2% per one million years,approximately how many years have passed since the two species diverged?
A) 5 million
B) 3 million
C) 10 million
D) 20 million
E) 200 million
Q2) If many genes from two species differ in about 5% of their bases and substitutions occur at an estimated rate of 5% per one million years,approximately how many years have passed since the two species diverged?
A) 1 million
B) 5 million
C) 10 million
D) 20 million
E) 50 million
Q3) Dinosaurs lived during the Paleozoic era.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Scientists have a complete fossil record showing the evolution of horses over millions of years.The fossil record indicates the legs becomes longer and the teeth larger,as ancestors of the modern horse adapted from living in forest to grasslands.This is an example of
A) punctuated equilibrium.
B) extinction.
C) a postzygotic barrier to evolution.
D) gradualism.
E) a prezygotic barrier to evolution.
Q2) Biologists divide mechanisms of reproductive isolation into A) sexual and geographic.
B) prezygotic and sexual.
C) postzygotic and geographic.
D) sexual and postzygotic.
E) prezygotic and postzygotic.
Q3) An evolutionary tree depicts species' relationships based on descent from shared ancestors.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The endosymbiont theory states that eukaryotic cells work together to form a multicellular organism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You are examining samples from a site in a dry pond that alternates between freezing cold winters and hot dry summers.When you find dormant thick-walled structures,you suspect that these are from bacteria and are
A) plasmids.
B) pili.
C) ribosomes.
D) flagella.
E) endospores.
Q3) <i>Escherichia coli</i> and <i>Salmonella</i> can live in our intestines in the presence or absence of oxygen.They are considered A) obligate anaerobes.
B) phototrophs.
C) facultative anaerobes.
D) autotrophs.
E) aerobic.
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Q1) What is the purpose of flowers?
A) to attract pollinators
B) to support gamete production
C) to capture windblown pollen
D) to protect reproductive structures
E) All answers are correct.
Q2) You are reading about a garden designer who has invented something called the "megagarden space" in which a few specimens are planted in a disturbed area and allowed to make a garden by self-propagation.Why might this designer choose to work with angiosperms rather than gymnosperms?
A) Angiosperms can produce flowers and fruits to aid in seed dispersal.
B) Angiosperms produce pollen and do not require water to reproduce.
C) Angiosperms have alternation of generations.
D) Angiosperms have a vascular system, which allows them to grow taller.
E) Angiosperms can produce spores, which are more stable than seeds from gymnosperms.
Q3) Gymnosperms are less successful than ferns because ferns make seeds.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Arthropoda means "jointed foot."
A)True
B)False
Q2) Platyhelminthes include which of the following organisms?
A) flukes
B) jellyfish
C) sponges
D) insects
E) mollusks
Q3) How do scientists believe that an asteroid impact in the Yucatán peninsula of Central America caused a worldwide mass extinction?
A) by blocking the sun and inhibiting photosynthesis
B) by using up all of the oxygen in the atmosphere
C) most of the animals in the world were in the tropics of Central America
D) by causing massive floods
E) by heating up the planet
Q4) Segmentation is easy to observe in the cuticle of a nematode.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A human population with a large percentage of post-reproductive individuals is common in
A) less-developed countries and will most likely increase in size.
B) more-developed countries and will most likely increase in size.
C) more-developed countries and will most likely decrease in size.
D) less-developed countries and will most likely decrease in size.
E) No answer is correct.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an aquatic community?
A) fishes, snails, crabs, water, and salinity
B) fishes, snails, and crabs only
C) both water and salinity
D) water only
E) salinity only
Q3) A human population with a large percentage of pre-reproductive individuals is common in
A) less-developed countries and will most likely increase in size.
B) more-developed countries and will most likely increase in size.
C) less-developed countries and will most likely decrease in size.
D) more-developed countries and will most likely decrease in size.
E) more-developed countries and will not effect the population size.
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Q1) If you were to shine a lightbulb on a puddle,and the water in the puddle disappeared,you would say that you had added energy to the puddle and had seen
A) sublimation.
B) condensation.
C) convection.
D) evaporation.
E) All answers are correct.
Q2) Which two parameters most influence the location of biomes?
A) altitude and latitude
B) latitude and temperature
C) temperature and precipitation
D) precipitation and altitude
E) precipitation and latitude
Q3) All the organisms plus the nonliving components of a defined area is a(n)
A) population.
B) community.
C) ecosystem.
D) habitat.
E) niche.
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Q1) Of every 100 species introduced,only one persists to take over a niche.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Purple loosestrife are a(n)
A) exotic species.
B) native species.
C) consumer.
D) parasite.
E) beneficial species.
Q3) Extinctions affect biodiversity.The more extinctions,
A) the lower the species biodiversity.
B) the lower the habitat biodiversity.
C) the higher the genetic biodiversity.
D) the higher the species biodiversity.
E) the higher the habitat diversity.
Q4) Humans can survive on Earth without biodiversity.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Most carnivorous plants use their prey as a primary source of A) nitrogen.
B) energy.
C) carbon.
D) magnesium.
E) potassium.
Q2) The evaporation of water from the leaf of a plant is
A) totally prevented by the leaf's cuticle.
B) not affected by temperature.
C) condensation.
D) transpiration.
E) precipitation.
Q3) If a plant exhibits a pattern of indeterminate growth,it stops growing when it reaches mature size.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Eudicot stems have vascular bundles scattered throughout the ground tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A sweet,juicy red berry is probably dispersed by attaching to an animal's fur.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If whorl four of a plant was damaged,this would interfere with
A) supporting the flower.
B) the male reproductive parts.
C) the female reproductive part.
D) attracting pollinators.
E) pollen availability.
Q3) Clover will flower if exposed to 8 hours of dark and 16 hours of light.It will not flower if exposed to 16 hours of dark and 8 hours of light.However,if the 16 hours of dark is interrupted with a brief period of light the clover will flower.Which triggers clover to flower?
A) short dark periods
B) long dark periods
C) short light periods
D) long light periods
E) both long and short dark periods
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Q1) Which animal tissue has control over the other tissues and is found in all organ systems?
A) epithelial
B) connective
C) muscular
D) nervous
E) No answer is correct.
Q2) Patients with muscular dystrophy have decreased voluntary motion,while involuntary motions remain normal.Which tissues are affected by muscular dystrophy?
A) both skeletal and cardiac muscle
B) cardiac muscle only
C) skeletal muscle only
D) both cardiac and smooth muscle
E) smooth muscle only
Q3) Muscle cells insulate neuroglia as the latter carry electrical signals to muscles.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A chemical that travels from a sending neuron to a receiving neuron is called a(n)
A) synaptic cleft.
B) action potential.
C) hormone.
D) neurotransmitter.
E) neurotoxin.
Q2) Why would this lead to paralysis and death?
A) Neurons run out of energy.
B) Neurons swell because of increased osmosis.
C) Neurons can't recharge.
D) Neurons can't fire without a voltage change.
E) Neurons cannot release neurotransmitters.
Q3) The nervous system controls
A) conscious decisions, like what shirt to wear.
B) subconscious reactions, like burping.
C) emotional reactions, like crying.
D) the reception of environmental stimuli, like hearing a loud sound.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
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Q1) Prednisone would be made from which starting material?
A) amino acids
B) cholesterol
C) nucleotides
D) proteins
E) sucrose
Q2) The antibody produced in Graves disease would
A) inhibit the thyroid from releasing thyroid hormone.
B) stimulate the thyroid to release thyroid hormone.
C) bind to the thyroid hormone in the blood.
D) destroy thyroid cells.
E) enter the thyroid cell and move to the nucleus.
Q3) Steroid hormones
A) are typically lipid-soluble.
B) typically do not bind to a surface receptor on a target cell.
C) pass through cell membranes.
D) typically alter gene expression.
E) All answers are correct.
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Q1) Which is not a bone of the lower limbs?
A) patella
B) femur
C) tibia
D) fibula
E) ulna
Q2) Which is not an important function of calcium in vertebrates?
A) blood clotting
B) muscle contraction
C) transport of oxygen to the body's cells
D) homeostasis
E) strengthening of bone
Q3) The type of skeleton that consists of fluid constrained within a layer of flexible tissue is a(n)
A) vascular canal.
B) endoskeleton.
C) gastrovascular cavity.
D) exoskeleton.
E) hydrostatic skeleton.
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Q1) The liquid matrix of blood is
A) interstitial fluid.
B) water.
C) cytosol.
D) plasma.
E) lymph.
Q2) Which of the following is not a main function of the upper respiratory system?
A) sense of smell
B) gas exchange between the lungs and the atmosphere
C) production of sounds
D) transport of oxygen to the cells of the body
E) maintaining blood pH homeostasis
Q3) Capillary beds are networks of capillaries that connect arterioles and venules.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A decrease in the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is called anemia.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If an individual has their gallbladder removed,they are typically put on a low-fat diet.Which of the following would explain this recommendation?
A) Bile cannot be produced.
B) Bile cannot be removed from the intestines.
C) Bile cannot be released following a meal.
D) Lipase cannot be released following a meal.
E) Lipase cannot be produced.
Q2) If a patient could not pass food from pharynx to stomach,there would probably be a blockage in the
A) larynx.
B) trachea.
C) esophagus.
D) glottis.
E) bronchus.
Q3) Since small amounts of ammonia are very toxic,mammals convert ammonia to urea for concentration before excretion occurs.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is not part of the innate defense response?
A) cilia that sweep bacteria out of the respiratory tract
B) the process of inflammation
C) antibody production
D) fever production
E) the complement protein system
Q2) A phagocyte is a cell that
A) engulfs other cells and debris.
B) primarily is used to produce antibodies.
C) produces white blood cells.
D) produces platelets.
E) transports oxygen to tissues.
Q3) White blood cells are produced
A) by mitotic division of other white blood cells.
B) from platelets.
C) from chondrocytes.
D) from bone marrow stem cells.
E) from plasma proteins.
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Q1) Birth control pills contain a combination of estrogen and progesterone and prevent pregnancy by
A) preventing sperm from reaching the egg.
B) leading to a non-viable embryo.
C) preventing implantation in the uterine wall.
D) acting as a spermicide, killing sperm.
E) preventing ovulation.
Q2) In organisms that reproduce sexually,________ are the sex cells that carry the genetic information from each parent.
A) diploid zygotes
B) haploid zygotes
C) haploid gametes
D) diploid gametes
E) diploid hormones
Q3) Fruit fly development clearly exemplifies direct development,since the worm-like larva is so unlike the adult fly.
A)True
B)False
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