Principles of Biology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts and processes of living organisms. Topics covered include cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Emphasizing scientific reasoning, experimental design, and critical thinking, this course explores the molecular and cellular basis of life, mechanisms of heredity and variation, interactions within ecosystems, and the adaptation of organisms over time. It serves as a foundation for advanced studies in the biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology 2nd Canadian Edition by Jane B. Reece
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Evolution and Themes of Biology
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Q1) All the organisms on your campus make up which of the following?
A)an ecosystem
B)a community
C)a population
D)an experimental group
E)a taxonomic domain
Answer: B
Q2) Why is Darwin considered original in his thinking?
A)He provided examples of organisms that had evolved over time.
B)He demonstrated that evolution is continuing to occur now.
C)He described the relationship between genes and evolution.
D)He proposed the mechanism that explained how evolution takes place.
E)He observed that organisms produce large numbers of offspring.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following do humans and roses have in common?
A)Both are multicellular.
B)Both lack a membrane-bound nucleus inside their cells.
C)Both are prokaryotic.
D)Humans and roses have nothing in common.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) This solution has
A)used up all the reactants, so no more product can be made.
B)used up all the product, so no more reaction is occurring.
C)reached equilibrium, where there is no more formation of the product.
D)reached equilibrium, where the net formation of both product and reactants is neutral.
E)become saturated.
Answer: D
Q2) Knowing just the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about which of the following?
A)the chemical properties of the element
B)the number of protons in the element
C)the number of neutrons in the element
D)the number of protons plus neutrons in the element
E)both the number of protons and the chemical properties of the element
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Q1) Hydrogen bonding in water is a result of
A)the electronegativity of hydrogen atoms.
B)the electronegativity of oxygen creating partially positive hydrogen atoms.
C)the single electron in hydrogen, allowing for covalent bonds with other molecules.
D)the linear shape of the water molecule.
E)the ionic charge of water.
Answer: B
Q2) Rank,from low to high,the pH of blood,stomach acid,and urine.
A)blood, urine, and stomach acid
B)stomach acid, blood, and urine
C)urine, blood, stomach acid
D)stomach acid, urine, blood
E)stomach acid, urine and blood have a similar neutral pH
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is a false statement concerning amino groups?
A)They are basic in pH.
B)They are found in amino acids.
C)They contain nitrogen.
D)They are nonpolar.
E)They are components of urea.
Q2) Which functional groups can act as acids?
A)amino and sulfhydryl
B)carbonyl and carboxyl
C)carboxyl and phosphate
D)hydroxyl and aldehyde
E)ketone and amino
Q3) Which molecule shown above can form a dimer linked by a covalent bond?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
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6
Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) If ¹ C-labelled uridine triphosphate is added to the growth medium of cells,what macromolecules will be labelled?
A)phospholipids
B)DNA
C)RNA
D)both DNA and RNA
E)proteins
Q2) Which of the following molecules contains a glycosidic linkage type of covalent bond?
A)4
B)6
C)12
D)13
E)15
Q3) Which of the following molecules is the pentose sugar found in RNA?
A)1
B)4
C)6
D)12
E)13
Page 7
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) The clear area in the middle is most likely the A)result of poor use of the microscope.
B)result of incomplete staining.
C)central vacuole.
D)nucleus.
E)plastid.
Q2) Motor proteins provide for molecular motion in cells by interacting with what types of cellular structures?
A)sites of energy production in cellular respiration
B)membrane proteins
C)ribosomes
D)cytoskeletal structures
E)cellulose fibres in the cell wall
Q3) Where would you expect to find tight junctions?
A)in the epithelium of an animal's stomach
B)between the smooth endoplasmic reticulum and the rough endoplasmic reticulum
C)between plant cells in a woody plant
D)in the plasma membrane of prokaryotes
E)on the surface of Archaea that adhere to rocks
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) When a cell is in equilibrium with its environment,which of the following occurs for substances that can diffuse through the cell?
A)There is random movement of substances into and out of the cell.
B)There is directed movement of substances into and out of the cell.
C)There is no movement of substances into and out of the cell.
D)All movement of molecules is directed by active transport.
E)Molecules move up their concentration gradient.
Q2) An animal cell lacking oligosaccharides on the external surface of its plasma membrane would likely be impaired in which function?
A)transporting ions against an electrochemical gradient
B)cell-cell recognition
C)maintaining fluidity of the phospholipid bilayer
D)attaching to the cytoskeleton
E)establishing the diffusion barrier to charged molecules
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9
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) When chemical,transport,or mechanical work is done by an organism,what happens to the heat generated?
A)It is used to power yet more cellular work.
B)It is used to store energy as more ATP.
C)It is used to generate ADP from nucleotide precursors.
D)It is lost to the environment.
E)It is transported to specific organs such as the brain.
Q2) Which of the following represents the activation energy needed for the enzyme-catalyzed reverse reaction,C + D A + B,in the figure above?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)e
Q3) The active site of an enzyme is the region that
A)binds allosteric regulators of the enzyme.
B)is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme.
C)binds noncompetitive inhibitors of the enzyme.
D)is inhibited by the presence of a coenzyme or a cofactor.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) What is proton-motive force?
A)the force required to remove an electron from hydrogen
B)the force exerted on a proton by a transmembrane proton concentration gradient
C)the force that moves hydrogen into the intermembrane space
D)the force that moves hydrogen into the mitochondrion
E)the force that moves hydrogen to NAD
Q2) These three steps result in the formation of
A)acetyl CoA, O , and ATP.
B)acetyl CoA, FADH , and CO .
C)acetyl CoA, FAD, H , and CO .
D)acetyl CoA, NADH, H , and CO .
E)acetyl CoA, NAD , ATP, and CO .
Q3) The synthesis of ATP by oxidative phosphorylation,using the energy released by movement of protons across the membrane down their electrochemical gradient,is an example of
A)active transport.
B)an endergonic reaction coupled to an exergonic reaction.
C)a reaction with a positive G.
D)osmosis.
E)allosteric regulation.
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following correctly describes biofuels?
A)Biofuels must be mixed with traditional fossil fuels, and then may be used to power vehicles.
B)It is preferable to create biofuels from crops.
C)Biofuels may be created from for example algae or corn.
D)If consumers were willing, there is sufficient biodiesel to replace conventional fossil fuel.
E)Biodiesel is created from starch through the use of microorganisms.
Q2) According to the endosymbiotic theory,the original chloroplast was a
A)chemisynthetic archaea.
B)green algae.
C)purple sulphur bacteria.
D)mitochondria.
E)photosynthetic prokaryote.
Q3) What does the chemiosmotic process in chloroplasts involve?
A)establishment of a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane
B)diffusion of electrons through the thylakoid membrane
C)reduction of water to produce ATP energy
D)movement of water by osmosis into the thylakoid space from the stroma
E)formation of glucose, using carbon dioxide, NADPH, and ATP
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Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) GTPase activity is involved in the regulation of signal transduction because it
A)increases the available concentration of phosphate.
B)decreases the amount of G protein in the membrane.
C)hydrolyzes GTP binding to G protein.
D)converts cGMP to GTP.
E)phosphorylates protein kinases.
Q2) When yeast cells release mating factors,what happens?
A)The mating factors induce changes in the cells that lead to cell fusion.
B)The affected cells produce more of the a factor as a positive feedback.
C)One cell nucleus binds the mating factors and produces a new nucleus in the opposite cell.
D)The mating factors stimulate cell membrane disintegration, releasing the mating factors and leading to new yeast cells.
E)The cells in turn release a growth factor that stimulates mitosis in both cells.
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13
Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine,a drug that interferes with the formation of the spindle apparatus,at which stage will mitosis be arrested?
A)anaphase
B)prophase
C)telophase
D)metaphase
E)interphase
Q2) These protists are intermediate in what sense?
A)They reproduce by binary fission in their early stages of development and by mitosis when they are mature.
B)They never coil up their chromosomes when they are dividing.
C)They use mitotic division but only have circular chromosomes.
D)They maintain a nuclear envelope during division.
E)None of them form spindles.
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) A karyotype results from which of the following?
A)a natural cellular arrangement of chromosomes in the nucleus
B)an inherited ability of chromosomes to arrange themselves
C)the ordering of human chromosome images
D)the cutting and pasting of parts of chromosomes to form the standard array
E)the separation of homologous chromosomes at metaphase I of meiosis
Q2) A tetrad includes which of the following sets of DNA strands?
A)two single-stranded chromosomes that have synapsed
B)two sets of sister chromatids that have synapsed
C)four sets of sister chromatids
D)four sets of unique chromosomes
E)eight sets of sister chromatids
Q3) Which of the following best describes the frequency of crossing over in mammals?
A)~50 per chromosome pair
B)~2 per meiotic cell
C)at least 1-2 per chromosome pair
D)~1 per pair of sister chromatids
E)a very rare event among hundreds of cells
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Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) Mendel was able to draw his ideas of segregation and independent assortment because of the influence of which of the following?
A)his reading and discussion of Darwin's Origin of Species
B)the understanding of particulate inheritance he learned from renowned scientists of his time
C)his discussions of heredity with his colleagues at major universities
D)his experiments with the breeding of plants such as peas and fuchsia
E)his reading of the scientific literature current in the field
Q2) Which of the boxes correspond to plants with a heterozygous genotype?
A)1
B)1 and 2
C)1, 2, and 3
D)2 and 3
E)2, 3, and 4
Q3) Which of the following is a possible genotype for the mother?
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) What is the definition of one map unit?
A)the physical distance between two linked genes
B)a 1% frequency of recombination between two genes
C)1 nanometer of distance between two genes
D)the recombination frequency between two genes assorting independently
E)1 picometer of distance between two genes
Q2) How would one explain a testcross involving F dihybrid flies in which more parental-type offspring than recombinant-type offspring are produced?
A)The two genes are closely linked on the same chromosome.
B)The two genes are linked but on different chromosomes.
C)Recombination did not occur in the cell during meiosis.
D)The testcross was improperly performed.
E)Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.
Q3) The greatest distance among the three genes is between a and c.What does this mean?
A)Gene a is closest to b.
B)Genes are in the order: a-b-c.
C)Gene a is not recombining with c.
D)Gene a is between b and c.
E)Distance a-b is equal to distance a-c.
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) In a nucleosome,the DNA is wrapped around
A)polymerase molecules.
B)ribosomes.
C)histones.
D)a thymine dimer.
E)satellite DNA.
Q2) Until the mid-1940s,which molecule was favoured as the molecule of inheritance?
A)lipid
B)carbohydrate
C)protein
D)DNA
E)RNA
Q3) Why do histones bind tightly to DNA?
A)Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged.
B)Histones are negatively charged, and DNA is positively charged.
C)Both histones and DNA are strongly hydrophobic.
D)Histones are covalently linked to the DNA.
E)Histones are highly hydrophobic, and DNA is hydrophilic.
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18
Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) What amino acid sequence will be generated,based on the following mRNA codon sequence?
5' AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG 3'
A)met-arg-glu-arg-glu-arg
B)met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu
C)met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
D)met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
E)met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu
Q2) A transcription unit that is 8000 nucleotides long may use 1200 nucleotides to make a protein consisting of approximately 400 amino acids.This is best explained by the fact that
A)many noncoding stretches of nucleotides are present in mRNA.
B)there is redundancy and ambiguity in the genetic code.
C)many nucleotides are needed to code for each amino acid.
D)nucleotides break off and are lost during the transcription process.
E)there are termination exons near the beginning of mRNA.
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following describes the function of an enzyme known as Dicer?
A)It degrades single-stranded DNA.
B)It degrades single-stranded mRNA.
C)It degrades mRNA with no poly-A tail.
D)It trims small double-stranded RNAs into molecules that can block translation or help degrade mRNA.
E)It chops up single-stranded DNAs from infecting viruses.
Q2) In response to chemical signals,prokaryotes can do which of the following?
A)turn off translation of their mRNA
B)alter the level of production of various enzymes
C)increase the number and responsiveness of their ribosomes
D)inactivate their mRNA molecules
E)alter the sequence of amino acids in certain proteins
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of the product of the p53 gene?
A)It is an activator for other genes.
B)It speeds up the cell cycle.
C)It causes cell death via apoptosis.
D)It allows cells to pass on mutations due to DNA damage.
E)It slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA polymerase.
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Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) A bacterium is infected with an experimentally constructed bacteriophage composed of the T2 phage protein coat and T4 phage DNA.The new phages produced would have
A)T2 protein and T4 DNA.
B)T2 protein and T2 DNA.
C)a mixture of the DNA and proteins of both phages.
D)T4 protein and T4 DNA.
E)T4 protein and T2 DNA.
Q2) What are prions?
A)mobile segments of DNA
B)tiny molecules of RNA that infect plants
C)viral DNA that has had to attach itself to the host genome
D)misfolded versions of normal brain protein
E)viruses that invade bacteria
Q3) In the figure,at the arrow marked II,what enzyme(s)are being utilized?
A)reverse transcriptase
B)viral DNA polymerase
C)host cell DNA polymerase
D)host cell RNA polymerase
E)host cell DNA and RNA polymerases
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Chapter 20: DNA Tools and Biotechnology
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Q1) Which of the following is used to make complementary DNA (cDNA)from RNA?
A)restriction enzymes
B)gene cloning
C)DNA ligase
D)gel electrophoresis
E)reverse transcriptase
Q2) For which of the following might RNAi more possibly be useful?
A)to raise the rate of production of a needed digestive enzyme
B)to decrease the production from a harmful gain-of-function mutated gene
C)to destroy an unwanted allele in a homozygous individual
D)to form a knockout organism that will not pass the deleted sequence to its progeny
E)to raise the concentration of a desired protein
Q3) Bacteria containing a plasmid into which the eukaryotic gene has integrated would grow in
A)the nutrient broth only.
B)the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth only.
C)the nutrient broth, the ampicillin broth, and the tetracycline broth.
D)all four types of broth.
E)the ampicillin broth and the nutrient broth.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) What characteristic of short tandem repeat DNA makes it useful for studying evolution?
A)The number of repeats varies widely from person to person or animal to animal.
B)The sequence of DNA that is repeated varies significantly from individual to individual.
C)The sequence variation is acted upon differently by natural selection in different environments.
D)Every racial and ethnic group has inherited different short tandem repeats.
E)Each short tandem repeat can be correlated with a specific disease.
Q2) A multigene family is composed of
A)multiple genes whose products must be coordinately expressed.
B)genes whose sequences are very similar and that probably arose by duplication.
C)the many tandem repeats such as those found in centromeres and telomeres.
D)a gene whose exons can be spliced in a number of different ways.
E)a highly conserved gene found in a number of different species.
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Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) Members of two different species possess a similar-looking structure that they use in a similar fashion to perform the same function.Which information would best help distinguish between an explanation based on homology versus one based on convergent evolution?
A)The two species live at great distance from each other.
B)The two species share many proteins in common, and the nucleotide sequences that code for these proteins are almost identical.
C)The sizes of the structures in adult members of both species are similar in size.
D)Both species are well adapted to their particular environments.
Q2) How many separate species,both extant and extinct,are depicted in this tree?
A)two
B)three
C)four
D)five
E)six
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium theorem
A)applies to extremely small populations that are subject to genetic drift.
B)describes two or more populations that interbreed with one another.
C)applies to populations that exhibit low rates of mutation.
D)describes a hypothetical population that is not evolving.
E)applies to populations that show differential survival and reproductive success.
Q2) In the formula for determining a population's genotype frequencies,the pq in the term 2pq is necessary because
A)the population is diploid.
B)heterozygotes can come about in two ways.
C)the population is doubling in number.
D)heterozygotes have two alleles.
Q3) Over time,the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased.This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing
A)nonrandom mating.
B)geographic isolation.
C)genetic drift.
D)gene flow.
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25
Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) There is still some controversy among biologists about whether Neanderthals should be placed within the same species as modern humans or into a separate species of their own.Most DNA sequence data analyzed so far indicate that there was probably little or no gene flow between Neanderthals and Homo sapiens.Which species concept is most applicable in this example?
A)phylogenetic
B)ecological
C)morphological
D)biological
Q2) Prezygotic barriers include all of the following,except for A)habitat isolation.
B)temporal isolation.
C)mechanical isolation.
D)hybrid breakdown.
E)gametic isolation.
Q3) Which species is most closely related to species W?
A)V is most closely related to species W.
B)X is most closely related to species W.
C)Y and Z are equally closely related to W.
D)It is not possible to say from this tree.
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) The hypothesis for the origin of eukaryotes through serial endosymbiosis proposes that
A)the ancestors of mitochondria were aerobic heterotrophic prokaryotes, while the ancestors of plastids were photosynthetic prokaryotes.
B)mitochondria and plastids replicate in a manner similar to eukaryotes.
C)genes in mitochondria and plastids are similar to genes of ancient eukaryotes.
D)eukaryotes likely evolved from the fusion of small prokaryotic and small eukaryotic cells.
Q2) An organism has a relatively large number of Hox genes in its genome.Which of the following is true of this organism?
A)These genes are fundamental, and are expressed in all cells of the organism.
B)The organism must have multiple paired appendages along the length of its body.
C)The organism has the genetic potential to have a relatively complex anatomy.
D)Most of its Hox genes owe their existence to gene fusion events.
E)Its Hox genes cooperate to bring about sexual maturity at the proper stage of development.
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) A researcher wants to determine the genetic relatedness of several breeds of dog (Canis lupus familiaris).The researcher should compare homologous sequences of this type of biochemical-________-which can be described as ________.
A)fatty acids; highly conserved
B)lipids; poorly conserved
C)proteins; highly conserved
D)amino acids; highly conserved
E)nucleic acids, poorly conserved
Q2) In a comparison of birds and mammals,having four limbs is
A)a shared ancestral character.
B)a shared derived character.
C)a character useful for distinguishing birds from mammals.
D)an example of analogy rather than homology.
Q3) Species that are not closely related and that do not share many anatomical similarities can still be placed together on the same phylogenetic tree by comparing their
A)plasmids.
B)mitochondrial genomes.
C)homologous genes that are poorly conserved.
D)homologous genes that are highly conserved.
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Foods can be preserved in many ways by slowing or preventing bacterial growth.Which of these methods should be least effective at inhibiting bacterial growth?
A)Refrigeration: slows bacterial metabolism and growth.
B)Closing previously opened containers: prevents more bacteria from entering, and excludes O .
C)Pickling: creates a pH at which most bacterial enzymes cannot function.
D)Canning in heavy sugar syrup: creates osmotic conditions that remove water from most bacterial cells.
E)Irradiation: kills bacteria by mutating their DNA to such an extent that their DNA-repair enzymes are overwhelmed.
Q2) If archaeans are more closely related to eukaryotes than to bacteria,then which of the following is a reasonable prediction?
A)Archaean DNA should have no introns.
B)Archaean chromosomes should have no protein bonded to them.
C)Archaean DNA should be single-stranded.
D)Archaean ribosomes should be larger than typical prokaryotic ribosomes.
E)Archaeans should lack cell walls.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) A crucial photosynthetic gene of the cyanobacterium that gave rise to the cyanelle is called psaE.This gene is present in the nuclear genome of the cercozoan,but is not in the genome of the cyanelle.This is evidence of A)reciprocal mutations in the cyanelle and nuclear genomes.
B)horizontal gene transfer from bacterium to eukaryotes.
C)genetic recombination involving a protist and an archaean.
D)the origin of photosynthesis in protists.
E)transduction by a phage that infects both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Q2) You are given the task of designing an aquatic protist that is a primary producer.It cannot swim on its own,yet must stay in well-lit surface waters.It must be resistant to physical damage from wave action.It should be most similar to a(n) A)diatom.
B)dinoflagellate.
C)apicomplexan.
D)red alga.
E)radiolarian.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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93 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increasing the number of stomata per unit surface area of a leaf when atmospheric CO levels decline is most analogous to a human
A)breathing faster as atmospheric CO levels increase.
B)putting more red blood corpuscles (RBCs)into circulation when atmospheric O levels decline.
C)removing RBCs from circulation when atmospheric O levels increase.
D)breathing more slowly as atmospheric O levels increase.
Q2) Most moss gametophytes do not have a cuticle and are 1-2 cells thick.What does this imply about moss gametophytes and their structure?
A)They use stomata for gas exchange regulation.
B)They can easily lose water to, and absorb water from, the atmosphere.
C)Photosynthesis occurs throughout the entire gametophyte surface.
D)They have branching veins in their leaves.
Q3) The most direct ancestors of land plants were probably ________.
A)kelp (brown alga)that formed large beds near the shorelines
B)green algae
C)photosynthesizing prokaryotes (cyanobacteria)
D)liverworts and mosses
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fruit of the mistletoe,a parasitic angiosperm,is a one-seeded berry.In members of the genus Viscum,the outside of the seed is viscous (sticky),which permits the seed to adhere to surfaces,such as the branches of host plants or the beaks of birds.What should be expected of the fruit if the viscosity of Viscum seeds is primarily an adaptation for dispersal rather than an adaptation for infecting host plant tissues?
A)It should be drab in colour.
B)It should be coloured so as to provide it with camouflage.
C)It should be nutritious.
D)It should secrete enzymes that can digest bark.
E)It should contain chemicals that cause birds to fly to the ground and vomit.
Q2) Refer to the paragraph on scarlet gilia.What is the significance of measuring fruit production?
A)It is a measure of pollination success.
B)It is a measure of seed dispersal success.
C)It is easier than counting flowers.
D)It is an indication of predation on the seeds of the plants.
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32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which process occurs in fungi and has the opposite effect on a cell's chromosome number than does meiosis I?
A)mitosis
B)plasmogamy
C)crossing over
D)binary fission
E)karyogamy
Q2) Arrange the following from largest to smallest,assuming that they all come from the same fungus.
1)basidiocarp
2)basidium
3)basidiospore
4)mycelium
5)gill
A)4 5 1 2 3
B)5 1 4 2 3
C)5 1 4 3 2
D)5 1 3 2 4
E)4 1 5 2 3
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group contains diploblastic organisms? A)I B)II C)III D)IV
E)V
Q2) Suppose a researcher for a pest-control company developed a chemical that inhibited the development of an embryonic mosquito's endodermal cells.Which of the following would be a likely mechanism by which this pesticide works?
A)The mosquito would develop a weakened exoskeleton that would make it vulnerable to trauma.
B)The mosquito would have trouble digesting food, due to impaired gut function.
C)The mosquito would have trouble with respiration and circulation, due to impaired muscle function.
D)The mosquito wouldn't be affected at all.
Q3) Which phylogeny has been created by emphasizing a protein found in placozoans?
C)III
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Page 34
Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms would you expect to have the largest surface-area-to-volume ratio? Assume that all of the following are the same total length.
A)a mollusk
B)an annelid
C)an arthropod
D)a platyhelminth
Q2) The small,thin extensions of the skin on the aboral surfaces of sea stars have a function most similar to that of A)rhinophores.
B)dorsal plummules.
C)cerata.
D)more than one of these.
Q3) Which mollusc clade includes members that undergo embryonic torsion?
A)chitons
B)bivalves
C)gastropods
D)cephalopods
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Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do skates and rays have flattened bodies,while sharks are torpedo shaped?
A)Sharks are more closely related to the tubelike lampreys than skates and rays are.
B)Skates and rays need enlarged pectoral fins to help them stay level in turbulent water, while sharks do not.
C)Skates and rays exchange gases across their skin and thus require a high surface-area-to-volume ratio, while sharks use gills to respire.
D)Sharks are streamlined for active swimming off the bottom, while skates move about mostly on the ocean bed.
Q2) Why is the discovery of the fossil Archaeopteryx significant? It supports the
A)phylogenetic relatedness of birds and reptiles.
B)contention that birds are much older than we originally thought.
C)claim that some dinosaurs had feathers well before birds had evolved.
D)idea that the first birds were ratites.
E)hypothesis that the earliest birds were ectothermic.
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36
Chapter 35: Plant Structure,Growth,and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Land plants are composed of all of the following tissue types except A)mesodermal.
B)epidermal.
C)meristematic.
D)vascular.
E)ground tissue.
Q2) A plant that is at least three years old is represented by
A)I only.
B)II only.
C)III only.
D)IV only.
E)both I and III.
Q3) Which structure is incorrectly paired with its tissue system?
A)root hair-dermal tissue
B)palisade parenchyma-ground tissue
C)guard cell-dermal tissue
D)companion cell-ground tissue
E)tracheid-vascular tissue
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Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane proton pump?
A)hydrolyzes ATP
B)produces a proton gradient
C)generates a membrane potential
D)equalizes the charge on each side of a membrane
E)stores potential energy on one side of a membrane
Q2) Which of the following would tend to increase transpiration?
A)a rainstorm
B)sunken stomata
C)a thicker cuticle
D)higher stomatal density
E)spiny leaves
Q3) The symplast transports all of the following except A)sugars.
B)mRNA.
C)DNA.
D)proteins.
E)viruses.
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycorrhizae enhance plant nutrition mainly by
A)absorbing water and minerals through the fungal hyphae.
B)providing sugar to root cells, which have no chloroplasts.
C)converting atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia.
D)enabling the roots to parasitize neighbouring plants.
E)stimulating the development of root hairs.
Q2) What soil(s)is (are)the most fertile?
A)humus only
B)loam only
C)silt only
D)clay only
E)both humus and loam
Q3) The enzyme complex nitrogenase catalyzes the reaction that reduces atmospheric nitrogen to
A)N .
B)NH .
C)NO .
D)NO .
E)NO .
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first step in the germination of a seed?
A)pollination
B)fertilization
C)imbibition
D)hydrolysis of starch and other food reserves
E)emergence of the radicle
Q2) Regardless of where in the world a vineyard is located,in order for the winery to produce a Burgundy,it must use varietal grapes that originated in Burgundy,France.The most effective way for a new California grower to plant a vineyard to produce Burgundy is to
A)plant seeds obtained from French varietal Burgundy grapes.
B)transplant varietal Burgundy plants from France.
C)acquire a tissue culture of varietal Burgundy grapes from France.
D)cross French Burgundy grapes with native American grapes.
E)graft varietal Burgundy grape scions onto native (Californian)root stocks.
Q3) Which of the following types of plants are incapable of self-pollination?
A)dioecious
B)monoecious
C)wind-pollinated
D)insect-pollinated
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External Signals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hormones would never be found in high concentrations in a dormant overwintering flower bud?
A)auxin
B)cytokinins
C)abscisic acid
D)ethylene
E)gibberellins
Q2) Jasmonates are important in which of the following processes?
I.play a key role in the time-keeping processes of plants
II.control plant defenses against herbivores and pathogens
III.regulate physiological processes such as nectar secretion and fruit ripening
IV.suppress adventitious root formation
V.induce the opening of stomata
A)only I and II
B)only I, II and III
C)only II and III
D)only II, III and V
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of an ectothermic organism that has few or no behavioural options when it comes to its ability to adjust its body temperature is a
A)terrestrial lizard.
B)sea star, a marine invertebrate.
C)bluefin tuna, a predatory fish.
D)hummingbird.
E)honeybee in a hive.
Q2) The body's automatic tendency to maintain a constant and optimal internal environment is termed
A)balanced equilibrium.
B)physiological chance.
C)homeostasis.
D)static equilibrium.
E)estivation.
Q3) The type of muscle tissue surrounding internal organs,other than the heart,is
A)skeletal muscle.
B)cardiac muscle.
C)striated muscle.
D)intercalated cells.
E)smooth muscle.
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excessive iron absorption and accumulation to toxic levels is associated with A)excessive blood volume.
B)a liver abnormality that results in a decreased number of red blood cells.
C)various forms of inherited or acquired anemia.
D)the genetic disorder known as hemochromatosis.
E)menstruation and menopause.
Q2) Helicobacter pylori is a bacterial organism that causes ulcers and digestive disturbances.How might they survive the acid pH of the stomach?
A)They secrete buffers to neutralize acid.
B)They burrow under the mucus layer that covers the stomach epithelium.
C)They take over the parietal cells.
D)They release chemicals that decrease acid production in the stomach.
E)The produce a cell wall.
Q3) Hypoglycemia,or low levels of glucose in the blood of a healthy human,is "corrected" by a(n)
A)increase in the secretion of insulin.
B)increase in the secretion of glucagon.
C)increase in the secretion of both insulin and glucagon.
D)decrease in the secretion of both insulin and glucagon.
E)increase in the secretion of thyroid hormones.
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Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fluid is filtered out of the bloodstream into the surrounding interstitial fluid at the arteriole end of systemic capillaries because
A)the osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is greater than that of the blood.
B)the hydrostatic pressure of the blood is less than that of the interstitial fluid.
C)the hydrostatic pressure of the blood is greater than the osmotic pressure of the blood.
D)the osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is greater than the hydrostatic pressure of the blood.
E)the osmotic pressure of the blood is greater than the hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid.
Q2) When do atria contract?
A)just prior to the beginning of diastole
B)during diastole
C)immediately after systole
D)during systole
E)just prior to the beginning of systole
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Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arrange these components of the mammalian immune system as it first responds to a pathogen in the correct sequence.
I.Pathogen is destroyed.
II.Lymphocytes secrete antibodies.
III.Antigenic determinants from pathogen bind to antigen receptors on lymphocytes.
IV.Lymphocytes specific to antigenic determinants from pathogen become numerous.
V.Only memory cells remain.
A)I III II IV V
B)III II I V IV
C)II I IV III V
D)IV II III I V
E)III IV II I V
Q2) The purpose of an MHC molecule is to
A)display an antigen fragment on the cell surface.
B)engulf the presented pathogen.
C)release enzymes to catalyze apoptosis.
D)trigger lymphocyte proliferation.
E)secrete cytokines.
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45
Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Materials are returned to the blood from the filtrate by which of the following processes?
A)filtration
B)ultrafiltration
C)selective reabsorption
D)secretion
E)active transport
Q2) Compared to wetland mammals,water conservation in mammals of arid regions is enhanced by having more
A)juxtamedullary nephrons.
B)Bowman's capsules.
C)ureters.
D)podocytes.
E)urinary bladders.
Q3) Compared to the sea water around them,most marine invertebrates are
A)hyperosmotic.
B)hypoosmotic.
C)isoosmotic.
D)hyperosmotic and isoosmotic.
E)hypoosmotic and isoosmotic.
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Different body cells can respond differently to the same peptide hormones because
A)different target cells have different sets of genes.
B)each cell converts that hormone to a different metabolite.
C)a target cell's response is determined by the components of its signal transduction pathways.
D)the circulatory system regulates responses to hormones by routing the hormones to specific targets.
E)the hormone is chemically altered in different ways as it travels through the circulatory system.
Q2) The hypothalamus
A)functions only as an endocrine target, by having lots of receptors on its cells.
B)functions only in neuronal transmission.
C)does not have any hormone receptors on its cells.
D)secretes tropic hormones that act directly on the gonads.
E)includes neurosecretory cells that terminate in the posterior pituitary.
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physician finds that a nine-year-old male patient is entering puberty much earlier than is usual.If caused by a tumor,what would be the most likely location?
A)hypothalamus, producing elevated levels of testosterone
B)anterior pituitary, producing elevated levels of testosterone
C)testes, producing elevated levels of estrogen
D)anterior pituitary, producing elevated levels of gonadotropin-stimulating hormone
E)testes, producing elevated levels of testosterone
Q2) The "immunotolerance" of a pregnant woman toward her unborn child is the result of
A)the tenacity with which the unborn child's immune system counteracts the woman's immune system.
B)the relative quiescence of a pregnant woman's immune system compared to when she was not pregnant.
C)the complete physical separation of her cells from those of the unborn child.
D)the unborn child having enough of the woman's identity so as to escape detection as foreign.
E)modern medical intervention during every pregnancy.
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) In frog embryos,the blastopore becomes the A)anus.
B)ears.
C)eyes.
D)nose.
E)mouth.
Q2) Which of the following is a correct description of an anatomical relationship?
A)The mesoderm gives rise to the notochord.
B)The endoderm gives rise to the hair follicles.
C)The ectoderm gives rise to the liver.
D)The mesoderm gives rise to the lungs.
Q3) In mammals,the nuclei resulting from the union of the sperm and the egg are first truly diploid at the end of the A)acrosomal reaction.
B)completion of spermatogenesis.
C)initial cleavage.
D)activation of the egg.
E)completion of gastrulation.
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Chapter 48: Neurons,Synapses,and Signalling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ions is most likely to cross the plasma membrane of a resting neuron?
A)K
B)Na
C)Ca²
D)Cl
E)H O
Q2) How could you increase the magnitude of the inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)generated at a synapse?
A)increase sodium-potassium pump activity
B)increase K permeability
C)increase the influx of calcium
D)add glutamate
E)add norepinephrine
Q3) The major inhibitory neurotransmitter of the human brain is
A)acetylcholine.
B)epinephrine.
C)glutamate.
D)nitric oxide.
E)GABA.
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which processes in animals are regulated by circadian rhythms?
A)sleep cycles
B)hormone release
C)sex drive
D)sleep cycles and hormone release only
E)sleep cycles, hormone release, and sex drive
Q2) The coordination of groups of skeletal muscles is driven by activity in the A)cerebrum.
B)cerebellum.
C)thalamus.
D)hypothalamus.
E)medulla oblongata.
Q3) Choose the correct match of glial cell type and function.
A)astrocytes metabolize neurotransmitters and modulate synaptic effectiveness
B)oligodendrocytes produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the peripheral nervous system
C)microglia produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the central nervous system
D)radial glia the source of immunoprotection against pathogens
E)Schwann cells provide nutritional support to non-myelinated neurons
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The generation of action potentials in olfactory neurons initiated by odours drawn in the nasal cavity is an example of A)perception.
B)sensory transduction.
C)sensory adaptation.
D)habituation.
E)lateral inhibition.
Q2) Myosin filaments without actin overlap are in which section of the figure?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) The sense of head motion begins with sensory transduction by the structures at which numbers?
A)2, 3, and 4
B)2, 5, and 7
C)4
D)5
E)7 and 8
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Chapter 51: Animal Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has a coefficient of relatedness of 0.25?
A)a father to his daughter
B)an uncle to his nephew
C)a brother to his brother
D)a sister to her brother
E)two cousins
Q2) Parental protective behaviour in turkeys is triggered by the cheeping sound of young chicks.What term best applies to this behaviour?
A)sign stimulus
B)cognition
C)imprinting
D)classical conditioning
E)operant conditioning
Q3) Circannual rhythms in birds are influenced by A)periods of food availability.
B)reproductive readiness.
C)periods of daylight and darkness.
D)magnetic fields.
E)lunar cycles.
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Page 53
Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement describes how climate might change if Earth was 75% land and 25% water?
A)Terrestrial ecosystems would likely experience more precipitation.
B)Earth's daytime temperatures would be higher and nighttime temperatures lower.
C)Summers would be longer and winters shorter at midlatitude locations.
D)Earth would experience an unprecedented global warming.
E)More terrestrial microclimates would be created because of daily fluctuations in climate.
Q2) Which of the following best substantiates why location 3 is an equatorial (tropical)climate?
A)It has a monsoon season during the winter months.
B)It has consistent monthly averages for rainfall.
C)The temperature is high for each monthly average.
D)The temperatures reach 38°C during some months.
E)The temperatures are lower in June, July, and August.
Q3) In deep water,which of the following abiotic factors would most limit productivity?
A)temperature
B)light availability
C)solute concentration
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.02.Calculate an estimate of the number of individuals added to (or lost from)a population of 1000 individuals in one year.
A)120 individuals added
B)40 individuals added
C)20 individuals added
D)400 individuals added
E)20 individuals lost
Q2) Which of the following is most key to understanding the demographic transition in human population growth?
A)education of global famine
B)improved worldwide health care
C)voluntary reduction of family size
D)improved sanitary conditions in the world's hospitals
E)reduction of casualties of war
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55
Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main advantage of controlled burnings of forested areas? Controlled burnings ________.
A)eliminate the possibility of forest fires
B)clear forested areas for farmland
C)prevent the overgrowth of the underbrush
D)allow new species to form
Q2) Scientists interested in how populations interact within communities are attempting to determine the species diversity of an island under study.What kind of data would be most helpful to the scientists in determining diversity?
A)the number of different species on the island and the size of the population of each species
B)the number of species on the island that are consumers, producers, and decomposers
C)the relative biomass of each species on the island separated by trophic level
D)the number of trophic levels on the island and the niche of each species
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Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cow's herbivorous diet indicates that it is a(n)
A)primary consumer.
B)secondary consumer.
C)decomposer.
D)autotroph.
E)producer.
Q2) Nitrogen is available to plants only in the form of
A)N in the atmosphere.
B)nitrite ions in the soil.
C)uric acid from animal excretions.
D)amino acids from decomposing plant and animal proteins.
E)nitrate ions in the soil.
Q3) Which data is most useful to measure primary productivity in a terrestrial ecosystem?
A)temperature readings
B)potential evapotranspiration
C)intensity of solar radiation
D)annual precipitation
E)amount of carbon fixed
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a consequence of biological magnification?
A)Toxic chemicals in the environment pose greater risk to top-level predators than to primary consumers.
B)Populations of top-level predators are generally smaller than populations of primary consumers.
C)The biomass of producers in an ecosystem is generally higher than the biomass of primary consumers.
D)Only a small portion of the energy captured by producers is transferred to consumers.
E)The amount of biomass in the producer level of an ecosystem decreases if the producer turnover time increases.
Q2) Which of the following is the most direct threat to biodiversity?
A)increased levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide
B)the depletion of the ozone layer
C)overexploitation of selected species
D)habitat destruction
E)zoned reserves
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