Principles of Biology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts of biological science. This course explores the molecular and cellular basis of life, genetics, evolution, and the diversity of living organisms. Students examine the structure and function of cells, the principles of inheritance, the mechanisms of evolution, and classification systems. Emphasis is placed on how biological systems operate and interact, as well as the scientific methods used for discovery in the life sciences. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, students develop critical thinking skills and gain a foundational understanding necessary for advanced studies in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Unity and Diversity of Life 14th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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Q1) The most inclusive level of organization listed here is a(n)
A) heart.
B) carbon atom.
C) DNA.
D) zebra.
E) red blood cell.
Answer: D
Q2) the transmission of DNA from parent to offspring
A)inheritance
B)reproduction
C)photosynthesis
D)growth
E)homeostasis
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Lifes Chemical Basis
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Q1) Set of chemicals that stabilizes pH
A)pH
B)acid
C)base
D)buffer
Answer: D
Q2) A solution with a pH of 9 has ____ times fewer hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6.
A) two
B) four
C) 10
D) 100
E) 1,000
Answer: E
Q3) The ability of a solution to resist changes in pH depends on its ____________________ capacity.
Answer: buffering
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Q1) Fats are major constituents of ____.
A) proteins
B) genes
C) photosynthesis
D) cell membranes
E) nucleic acids
Answer: D
Q2) Fructose and glucose are both ____.
A) six-carbon sugars
B) disaccharides
C) monosaccharides
D) disaccharides and six-carbon sugars
E) monosaccharides and six-carbon sugars
Answer: E
Q3) A lipid _____________________ is the most common conformation of the membrane of living systems.
Answer: bilayer
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Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) intermediate filaments
Q2) What is the structure labeled F in the accompanying figure?
A) cytoplasm
B) nucleoid
C) plasma membrane
D) capsule
E) pilus
Q3) Groups of bacteria living together in a close knit group are also known as ____.
A) eukaryotes
B) pathogenic bacteria
C) monophylogenic cultures
D) biofilms
E) archaea
Q4) Lysosomes are specialized ____.
A) ribosomes
B) vacuoles
C) Golgi bodies
D) vesicles
E) plastids
Q5) Golgi body
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Chapter 5: Ground Rules of Metabolism
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Q1) The rate of diffusion through a selectively permeable membrane will be lowest when
I.concentration gradients are steep
II.temperatures are low
III.solutes are small molecules
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and III
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q2) ____________________ enzymes are controlled by having regulatory molecules bind outside the active site and result in a change in their overall structure.
Q3) In oxidation-reduction reactions, ____.
A) both molecules give up electrons
B) both molecules gain electrons
C) cells harvest energy
D) the molecule that accepts electrons is reduced
E) hydrogen ions are usually absorbed
Q4) The loss of an electron by a molecule is called ____________________.
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Chapter 6: Where It Starts - Photosynthesis
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Q1) Ethanol can be easily produced from ____.
A) photosynthetic pigments
B) crystalline cellulose
C) root systems of plants
D) plant sugars
E) stems of plants
Q2) Which chemical has five carbon atoms?
A) phosphoglycerate (PGA)
B) ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)
C) phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL)
D) glucose
E) starch
Q3) The best light to grow the alga in is ____, according to the figure.
A) blue-violet
B) blue-green
C) green-yellow
D) yellow-orange
E) orange-red
Q4) The splitting of water produces three products. Name and discuss the role of each.
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Chapter 7: How Cells Release Chemical Energy
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Q1) What molecule corresponds to the item labeled as "56" in the accompanying figure?
A)CO
B)NADH
C)ADP + Pi
D)FADH
E)ATP
Q2) What molecule corresponds to the item labeled as "53" in the accompanying figure?
A)CO
B)NADH
C)ADP + Pi
D)FADH
E)ATP
Q3) Write the equation that summarizes the aerobic respiration pathway.
Q4) Discuss how photosynthesis is a natural partner for aerobic respiration.
Q5) During alcoholic fermentation, ____________________ is converted into ethanol.
Q6) Acetyl-CoA is produced when ____________________ is broken down.
Q7) Glycolysis requires ATP input in order to produce ____________________ and
Chapter 8: Dna Structure and Function
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Q1) A free nucleotide has a five carbon sugar (deoxyribose), ____________________ phosphate group(s), and one of four nitrogen-containing bases.
Q2) Three hydrogen bonds connect guanine to __________ in the DNA molecule.
A)guanine
B)cytosine
C)pyrimidine
D)thymine
E)uracil
Q3) Hydrogen bonding is strongest between ____.
A) adenine and guanine
B) uracil and thymine
C) guanine and uracil
D) adenine and thymine
E) cytosine and guanine
Q4) One current goal of cloning is to ____.
A) duplicate certain humans
B) create new species
C) promote evolution
D) experiment with alien DNA
E) increase the numbers of endangered animals
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Chapter 9: From Dna to Protein
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Q1) The process of gene expression includes two steps: ____________________ and ____________________.
Q2) If the DNA nucleotides read ATG-CGT-GAC, the amino acid sequence of the resulting polypeptide would be
A) tyrosine - alanine - leucine.
B) methionine - arginine - asparagine.
C) histidine - glycine - proline.
D) serine - lysine - glycine.
E) serine - lysine - isoleucine.
Q3) The process of going from transcription to translation
A) explains the structural complexity of genes.
B) describes the flow of genetic information.
C) is based upon the role of proteins in controlling life.
D) does not explain how genes function.
E) explains evolution in terms of molecular biology.
Q4) Gene _____________________ requires the participation of RNA, tRNA, and _____________________.
Q5) Genetic information carried by a(n) _____________________ directs the synthesis of a(n) _____________________ chain during translation.
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Chapter 10: Gene Control
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Q1) The promotion of the lactose operon in bacteria is
A) activated by a repressor protein.
B) independent of glucose concentration.
C) activated by lactose binding.
D) regulated by RNA polymerase.
E) regulated by mRNA.
Q2) repressors, activators, and transcription factors
A)operon
B)operator
C)promoter
D)riboswitch
E)regulator protein
Q3) Knockout experiments involving __________ genes in fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster) revealed local controls over gene expression.
Q4) Why is SRY considered to be a master gene?
Q5) As cell lineages use varying subsets of genes during development, they become specialized through a process called __________.
Q6) In female mammals, most genes on one of the two X chromosomes are permanently inaccessible, a phenomenon is called __________.
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Chapter 11: How Cells Reproduce
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Q1) After plant mitosis, the vesicles fuse into a disk-shaped __________.
Q2) DNA replication occurs
A) before mitosis.
B) immediately before prophase of mitosis.
C) during prophase of mitosis.
D) during metaphase of mitosis.
E) at any time during cell division.
Q3) Genes replicate.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase
Q4) Which of the following is true of telomeres?
A) They have the sequence ATAGGG.
B) They are at in the middle of chromosomes.
C) Their sequence can change.
D) They shorten with each round of cell replication.
E) They have the sequence ATAGTG.
Q5) The most common type of skin cancer is __________.
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Chapter 12: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Q1) Crossing over occurs during
A) anaphase I.
B) metaphase II.
C) prophase I.
D) prophase II.
E) telophase II.
Q2) At __________, the fusion of two gametes produces a(n) __________.
Q3) A diploid organism has ten homologous chromosome pairs. Disregarding crossing over, how many genetically different gametes are possible?
Q4) In comparing mitosis and meiosis, which statement is true?
A) Meiosis I is more like mitosis than is meiosis II.
B) Both processes result in four cells.
C) Pairing of homologues occurs in both.
D) Chromatids are present only in mitosis.
E) Meiosis II resembles mitosis.
Q5) What would happen if sister chromatids did not break apart during anaphase of mitosis?
Q6) With __________, offspring inherit the same number and kinds of genes from one parent.
Q7) Discuss the unique reproductive capacity of the bdelloid rotifer.
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Chapter 13: Observing Patterns in Inherited Traits
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Q1) Different molecular forms of the same gene are __________.
Q2) The ABO blood types are an example of ____.
A) pleiotropy and polygenic inheritance
B) multiple alleles and continuous variation
C) incomplete dominance
D) codominance and epistasis
E) multiple alleles and codominance
Q3) A(n) __________ is a hybrid, with two nonidentical alleles (Aa).
Q4) The allele for albinism (c) is recessive to the allele for normal pigmentation (C). A normally pigmented woman whose father is an albino marries an albino man whose parents are normal. They have three children, two normal and one albino. Give the genotypes for each person listed.
Q5) In a certain breed of chicken, an incomplete dominant gene controls color. The homozygous black (BB), when crossed with the homozygous splashed-white (bb), produces an intermediate gray color pattern referred to as blue. A second gene controls the shape of the comb. The dominant allele (R) produces rose, whereas the recessive allele (r) produces single. Give the F1 and F2 genotypic and phenotypic ratios of a cross between a true-breeding black with a single comb and a true-breeding splashed-white with a rose comb.
Q6) Mendel's monohybrid experiment results led to his law of __________.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Chromosomes and Human Inheritance
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Q1) The probability of producing a normal child by two parents who are carriers for an autosomal recessive disorder is ____.
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
Q2) Which syndrome is characterized by a karyotype with 45 chromosomes?
A) Turner
B) Down
C) androgen insensitivity
D) Klinefelter
E) cri-du-chat
Q3) The accompanying figure represents which chromosomal change?
A) inversion
B) deletion
C) duplication
D) translocation
E) aneuploidy
Q4) The human has __________ sets of autosomal chromosomes.
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Chapter 15: Studying and Manipulating Genomes
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Q1) Approximately how many single nucleotide polymorphisms have been identified in humans?
A) 10s
B) 100s
C) 1000s
D) 100,000s
E) 1,000,000s
Q2) RNA can be used as a template for the production of DNA through the action of
A) DNA polymerase
B) RNA polymerase
C) reverse transcriptase
D) ligase
E) restriction endonuclease
Q3) This is any DNA made from mRNA transcripts.
A)cDNA
B)restriction enzymes
C)reverse transcriptase
D)DNA library
Q4) __________ can reveal the order of nucleotide bases in a fragment of DNA.
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Chapter 16: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) The study of the distribution of animals and plants around the world is ____.
A) diversity
B) biogeography
C) ecology
D) natural history
E) environmentalism
Q2) Which period is the most recent?
A) Triassic
B) Silurian
C) Devonian
D) Permian
E) Cambrian
Q3) ____________________ that impart greater ____________________ to an individual become more common in a population over generations, compared with less competitive forms.
Q4) Why are fossils older than 60 000 years hard to date using C14?
Q5) The characteristic ____________________ of a radioisotope allows us to determine the age of rocks and fossils using a technique called
Page 18
Q6) ____________________ are evidence of life in the distant past.
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Chapter 17: Processes of Evolution
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Q1) __________ selection favors intermediate forms of a trait where __________ selection favors extreme forms.
Q2) Do human beings meet the five conditions necessary for the Hardy-Weinberg law? Explain.
Q3) __________ can lead to the loss of genetic diversity.
Q4) Mutations are the original source of new alleles, but may be adaptive, __________ or __________.
Q5) Stabilizing selection occurs when
A) the environment controls which organisms will survive.
B) humans determine which organisms will survive.
C) the extremes of the population have a lesser chance to survive.
D) the extremes of the population have a better chance to survive.
E) the organisms on one extreme of the population have a better chance to survive than those on the other extreme.
Q6) Consider the sources of variation in traits among individuals of a species. Which of these can be controlled and which cannot be controlled?
Q7) __________ occurs when two species act as agents of selection upon one another.
Page 19
Q8) Reproductive isolation is marked by the __________of gene flow between populations.
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Chapter 18: Organizating Information About Species
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Q1) __________ is the science of making hypotheses about evolutionary relationships among clades.
Q2) Genomics studies have shown that humans and rice share about ____ percent of their genomes.
A) 1
B) 4
C) 8
D) 15
E) 25
Q3) The comparison of embryos across species reveals the conservative nature of the genes responsible for ____.
A) food procurement
B) reproductive behavior
C) embryonic development
D) embryonic size
E) embryonic intelligence
Q4) __________ is a set of methods that allow us to reconstruct phylogeny.
Q5) Mutations in genes that affect __________ may cause morphological shifts in a lineage.
Q6) Similar body parts that reflect shared ancestry are called __________.
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Chapter 19: Lifes Origin and Early Evolution
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Q1) Life probably would never have emerged on Earth if the ancient atmosphere had been the same as the present one in regard to the content of ____.
A) carbon dioxide
B) hydrogen
C) oxygen
D) nitrogen
E) carbon monoxide
Q2) The endosymbiont hypothesis is supported by the work of ____ on bacteria-infected Amoeba proteus.
A) Stanley Miller
B) Kwang Jeon
C) Leslie Orgel
D) Harold Urey
E) Australian researchers
Q3) What can RNA do that DNA cannot that makes RNA a good starting point for life?
Q4) Provide evidence to both support and refute the current existence of life on Mars.
Q5) Membrane-like structures form when proteins or lipids are mixed with water. They serve as a model for __________, which may have preceded cells.
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Chapter 20: Viruses - Bacteria - and Archaea
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Q1) Four of the following are characteristics of viruses. Which one is the exception?
A) The outer coats of all viruses are alike.
B) The virus contains either DNA or RNA at its core, but not both.
C) Viruses infect organisms in all three domains of life.
D) Most viruses have a protein coat or covering.
E) Some viruses benefit us indirectly.
Q2) Viroids are constructed primarily of ____.
A) lipids
B) DNA
C) protein coats
D) RNA
E) bacteriophages
Q3) A(n) __________ is a noncellular infectious particle with a protein coat enclosing DNA or RNA.
Q4) A virus infects a host cell and takes over the host's mechanisms of replication and __________ synthesis.
Q5) The three types of horizontal gene flow that occur in bacteria are __________, __________, and __________.
Q6) Some viruses cause disease; they act as __________ in humans.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Protists - the Simplest Eukaryotes
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Q1) The slime molds are members of this group.
A)apicomplexans
B)amoebozoans
C)euglenoids
D)dinoflagellates
E)trypanosomes
Q2) Paramecium belongs to this group.
A)apicomplexans
B)amoebozoans
C)euglenoids
D)dinoflagellates
E)trypanosomes
Q3) Four of the following statements are true about stramenopiles. Which statement is FALSE?
A) They are filamentous heterotrophs.
B) Some species are unicellular.
C) They include diatoms and red algae.
D) Most are photosynthetic.
E) Their chloroplast structure suggests evolution by secondary endosymbiosis.
Q4) Are humans responsible for neurotoxic shellfish poisoning? Why or why not?
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Chapter 22: The Land Plants
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Q1) Features that contributed to success on land include a(n) __________ that protects spores.
Q2) Ferns, roots, and fronds grow from __________.
Q3) Four of these statements are true about the structure in the image above. Which statement is FALSE?
A) It is used for reproduction.
B) It is used for gas exchange.
C) It is used for water conservation.
D) It extends across the cuticle.
E) It is a stoma.
Q4) In the life cycle of a fern, what is the name of the structure that produces the haploid spores?
A) sori
B) rhizome
C) gametophyte
D) gametangium
E) strobilus
Q5) Describe the challenges that plants faced when they entered the land, and how they overcame them.
Q6) Why do ferns only thrive in moist environments?
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Fungi
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Q1) Yeasts are members of which of the following?
A) ascomycetes
B) basidiomycetes
C) glomeromycetes
D) chytrids
E) zygomycetes
Q2) Why is it very dangerous to eat wild mushrooms without proper training?
Q3) The life cycle of a zygomycete differs markedly from that of animals because in this fungus, ____.
A) a sexual stage is absent
B) mitosis occurs in the haploid growth stage
C) there is no fusion of nuclei
D) mitosis occurs to produce the haploid reproductive cells
E) a diploid stage is absent
Q4) The only group of fungi to have a flagellated stage is the ____.
A) Chytrids
B) Ascomycetes
C) Basidiomycetes
D) Glomeromycetes
E) Zygomycetes
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Chapter 24: Animal Evolution - the Invertibrates
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Q1) "Wheel animals" are in this phylum.
A)Porifera
B)Cnidaria
C)Platyhelminthes
D)Nematoda
E)Annelida
Q2) Four of the following are chelicerates. Which one is the exception?
A) Tick
B) mosquito
C) spider
D) horseshoe crab
E) scorpion
Q3) This phylum contains the most primitive species of the animal kingdom in the list.
A)Porifera
B)Cnidaria
C)Platyhelminthes
D)Nematoda
E)Annelida
Q4) In annelids, ____ regulate the composition of body fluid.
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Chapter 25: Animal Evolution - the Chordates
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Q1) The letter "A" in the accompanying figure represents the ____.
A) humerus
B) pectoral girdle
C) skull
D) sternum
E) pelvic girdle
Q2) Most amphibians are completely dependent on an aquatic environment for ____.
A) respiration
B) feeding
C) reproduction
D) movement
E) thermoregulation
Q3) Four of the following statements about snakes are true. Which statement is false?
A) All snakes are carnivores.
B) All snakes use internal fertilization.
C) All snakes are venomous.
D) All snakes have flexible skull bones and hinged jaws.
E) Some snakes retain skeletal remnants of hind limbs.
Q4) __________, or four-legged walkers, evolved from lobe-finned bony fishes.
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Chapter 26: Human Evolution
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Q1) Four of the following statements about fossils found on the island of Flores are true. Which one is the exception?
A) They are shorter than modern humans.
B) They have very small brains.
C) They are 200,000 years old.
D) They have a heavy brow ridge.
E) They are small.
Q2) Why might Neanderthals have been more affected by changes in food sources that H. Sapiens?
A) Neanderthals were primarily meat eaters.
B) Neanderthals had no ability to store food.
C) Neanderthals had no tools with which to process food.
D) Neanderthals could digest a limited number of proteins.
E) Neanderthals required a greater number of essential amino acids.
Q3) Four of the following are gorilla features. Which one is the exception?
A) spinal cord attached at rear of skull
B) C-shaped spine
C) legs longer than arms
D) flat foot
E) opposable big toe
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Chapter 27: Plant Tissues
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Q1) This tissue gives rise to primary tissue forming xylem and phloem.
A)protoderm
B)ground meristem
C)procambium
D)vascular cambium
E)cork cambium
Q2) sclereids
A)gives rise to periderm
B)transfer sugars into sieve elements
C)vascular tissue in the root
D)living cells that conduct sugars and other organic solutes
E)a layer of specialized parenchyma one or two cells thick, just inside the endodermis
F)clusters of strands containing xylem, phloem, and vascular cambium
G)the principle xylem cells of pines, cypress, and other conifers
H)cells with thick secondary walls impregnated with lignin that are especially abundant in some fruits and seeds
I)the principal photosynthetic region of a leaf
J)regions of undifferentiated cells that can divide rapidly
K)bottom layer of parenchyma in a leaf with large air spaces between the cells
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Chapter 28: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) mycorrhiza
A)responsible for opening and closing of stomata
B)region of a plant where sugars are being used
C)pipelines of the xylem
D)a mutually beneficial association between a fungus and a root
E)structures on roots that house nitrogen-fixing bacteria
F)pipelines of the phloem
G)evaporation of water from stems and leaves
H)provide metabolic functions necessary to sustain its paired sieve element
I)control the uptake of mineral ions into the vascular cylinder
J)transport of organic molecules from source region to sink
K)a waxy band that prevents water from diffusing through endodermal cell walls
Q2) Root nodules are swellings on some plants that contain mutualistic __________ bacteria.
Q3) By the __________ theory, transpiration pulls water upward by creating a continuous negative pressure (or tension) inside xylem.
Q4) __________ are soils that have roughly equal proportions of sand, silt, and clay.
Q5) Explain the pressure flow theory.
Q6) Explain the cohesion-tension theory.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Life Cycles of Flowering Plants
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Q1) carpel
A)haploid cell that gives rise to pollen grain
B)releases two sperm cells when it reaches and penetrates female gametophyte
C)develops into a fruit at maturity
D)created from a triploid cell that is produced when one sperm cell fuses with the endosperm mother cell
E)reproductive organs that produce the plant's male gametophytes
F)modified leaf with pigments and fragrance-producing cells
G)immature male gametophyte
H)female reproductive organ
I)landing platform for pollen
J)contains pollen sacs
K)forms in an ovule and gives rise to a female gametophyte
L)outermost whorl of leaf parts on a receptacle; generally green, but sometimes pigmented
M)region of carpel that receives pollen grains
N)arrival of pollen on a receptive stigma
O)forms a seed at maturity
Q2) receptacle
Q3) Many species of flowering plants reproduce asexually by __________.
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Chapter 30: Communication Strategies in Plants
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Q1) The plant movement in the accompanying figure is caused by ____.
A) auxin differences in two sides of the stems
B) gibberellin released in one side of the leaf
C) abscisic acid in two sides of the stems
D) salicylic acid in two sides of the roots
E) cytokinin differences in two sides of the stem
Q2) Plants make ____, which are similar to female sex hormones in mammals but have nothing to do with sexual reproduction in plants.
A) estrogens
B) phytoestrogens
C) auxins
D) cytokinins
E) gibberellins
Q3) This hormone causes a stem to lengthen between the nodes by inducing cell division and elongation.
A)auxins
B)gibberellins
C)cytokinins
D)abscisic acid
E)ethylene
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Chapter 31: Animal Tissues
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Q1) The gut is lined with epithelial cells with ____________________ that connect the plasma membranes of adjacent cells.
Q2) How does bipedalism relate to sweat glands, skin color and hair density?
Q3) What is one function of the muscular system?
A) transmission of electrical signals
B) connection of ligaments to bones
C) heat production
D) exchange of gases with the atmosphere
E) prevention of desiccation
Q4) initially encounters airborne pathogens
A)circulatory
B)lymphatic
C)digestive
D)endocrine
E)respiratory
Q5) ____________________ are open channels that connect the cytoplasm of abutting cells and permit rapid transfer of ions and small molecules between them.
Q6) ____________________ tissues cover the body's surfaces, and line its internal spaces.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Neural Control
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Q1) Which pairing of nerves and functions is part of the peripheral nervous system?
A) somatic nerves; flight-fight response
B) autonomic nerves; control skeletal muscle
C) autonomic nerves; control internal organs
D) parasympathetic neurons; prepare body for danger
E) sympathetic neurons; housekeeping tasks in the body
Q2) A neuron's __________ receive signals, and its __________ transmits signals.
Q3) This region is used for spatial orientation.
A)cerebrum
B)hypothalamus
C)pons
D)cerebellum
E)medulla oblongata
Q4) An excitatory postsynaptic potential ____.
A) is cancelled out by an inhibitory postsynaptic potential
B) has a hyperpolarizing effect
C) will drive the membrane away from its potential
D) is summed with an inhibitory postsynaptic potential at the input zone of a neuron
E) works so that only one impulse can be received at a time
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Chapter 33: Sensory Perception
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Q1) The __________ sensations arise from sensory receptors located in skin, or near muscles or joints.
Q2) When the brain assigns meaning to a sensory signal, we say that _____ has taken place.
A) sensory adaptation
B) sensory perception
C) semantic perception
D) sensory action
E) sensory activation
Q3) Which statement accurately describes the properties of sound?
A) The frequency of a sound determines the loudness.
B) The amplitude of a sound determines its pitch.
C) The amplitude of a sound is the number of waves per second.
D) A soft sound has a greater amplitude than a loud sound.
E) A high note and a low note with the same amplitude are equally loud.
Q4) The __________ is a system of fluid-filled sacs and canals in the inner ear.
Q5) What would be the danger in lacking nociceptors?
Q6) Light enters the eye's interior through the __________, an adjustable opening in the center of the muscular, doughnut-shaped iris.
Q7) __________ line human nasal passages.
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Chapter 34: Endocrine Control
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Q1) parathyroid gland
A)secretes one hormone that increases the metabolic rate and another that inhibits calcium release from bone storage sites
B)secrete insulin and glucagon
C)secretes hormones that prepare accessory reproductive structures for reproduction
D)involved in lymphocyte maturation
E)secretes tropic hormones, growth hormone, and prolactin
F)secretes mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids
G)secretes melatonin
H)two-lobed structure adjacent to the hypothalamus
I)releases oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone into bloodstream
J)secretes a hormone that promotes calcium release from bone storage sites
K)produces oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
L)secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine
M)secrete pheromones, milk, tears, sweat, and mucus
Q2) hypothalamus
Q3) pituitary gland
Q4) All vertebrates have a(n) __________ system of secretory glands and cells.
Q5) Darkness increases secretion of __________ by the pineal gland in the brain.
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Chapter 35: Structural Support and Movement
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Q1) Muscle fibers contain _____ for making ATP.
A) myosin
B) indentations
C) myofibrils
D) sarcomeres
E) many mitochondria
Q2) Some bones have __________ that makes blood cells.
Q3) this protein repeatedly binds, moves, and releases an adjacent thin filament causing a muscle to contract
A)Z line
B)ATP
C)mitochondria
D)actin
E)sarcomeres
F)phosphate group
G)myofibrils
H)smooth muscle
I)thick filaments
J)myosin
K)skeletal muscle
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Chapter 36: Circulation
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Q1) Which statement is true about sudden cardiac arrest?
A) It happens about 20,000 times annually in the United States.
B) It is usually caused by a birth defect when it happens in people aged 36 or younger.
C) Its survival rate can be increased by performing a tracheotomy
D) It occurs only in the elderly.
E) Its survival rate increases about 10% through the use of CPR.
Q2) The anatomical structure identified with the letter "C" in the accompanying figure illustrates ____.
A) sickle-cell anemia
B) leukemia
C) atherosclerotic plaque
D) bone cancer
E) polycythemia
Q3) Blood velocity is fastest in the ____.
A) arteries
B) arterioles
C) capillaries
D) venules
E) veins
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Chapter 37: Immunity
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Q1) Research on HIV vaccines is progressing, but success to date has been limited to vaccines that are of limited effectiveness against a few strains of the HIV virus. However, flu vaccines are similar in their limitations. Why are 'limited effectiveness flu vaccines released, but not HIV vaccines?
Q2) Air is continuously forced through tubes that thread through vascularized tissue in a pair of inelastic lungs in _____.
A) some fish
B) amphibians
C) birds
D) reptiles
E) some small mammals
Q3) __________ fights infection by increasing the metabolic rate.
Q4) Proteins produced by these attack bacteria and viruses in the blood.
A)antigens
B)antibodies
C)helper T cells
D)cytotoxic T cells
E)effector B cells
Q5) __________ immunity specifically targets billions of different antigens.
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Chapter 38: Respiration
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Q1) The most oxygenated blood is indicated by the letter ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) Another name for "Adam's apple".
A)pharynx
B)larynx
C)trachea
D)bronchiole
E)alveolus
Q3) pleural sac
A)pharynx
B)larynx
C)trachea
D)bronchiole
E)alveolus
Q4) Respiration is a physiological process by which O enters the internal environment and CO leaves by diffusing across a(n) __________.
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Chapter 39: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) Most digestion occurs and most nutrients and water are absorbed in the
Q2) What is a source of omega-3-fatty acids?
A) nuts
B) olive oil
C) meat
D) fish
E) butter
Q3) The storage organ indicated by the letter "C" is called the ____.
A) mouth
B) crop
C) gizzard
D) rumen
E) cloaca
Q4) gallbladder
Q5) __________, which assists in fat digestion, is made in the liver and stored in the
Q6) __________ in the stomach contains protein-digesting enzymes and acid.
Q7) Saliva contains the enzyme __________, which begins the process of starch digestion.
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Chapter 40: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) In the above illustration of fluid regulation in a planarian, the letter "A" represents which of the following?
A) nucleus of the flame cell
B) small capillaries that allow water to freely diffuse into the planarian
C) sexual reproductive organ
D) cilia to draw fluid into the planarian
E) funnel to collect fluid
Q2) Marine bony fish __________ water by osmosis, while freshwater bony fish __________ water by osmosis.
Q3) The region where the renal cortex is located is indicated by the letter(s) _____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) E
E) both A and B
Q4) Provide some of the adaptations that allowed animals to adapt to life on dry land.
Q5) Why is high blood pressure damaging to the kidneys?
Q6) Chart the path of urine from the blood to the outside of the body.
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Chapter 41: Animal Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Ovulation is indicated by the letter ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) vas deferens
Q3) The letter "B" above represents the ____.
A) uterus
B) ovary
C) vagina
D) urinary bladder
E) pelvic girdle
Q4) labium minus
Q5) When taking oral contraceptives, what is least likely to occur?
A) weight gain
B) headaches
C) nausea
D) risk of breast cancer
E) muscle soreness
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Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Q1) During pregnancy, a maternal antibody transported across the placenta to the fetal bloodstream can cause a problem if the mother ____.
A) has passed on any teratogens
B) and baby have different Rh factors
C) is producing HCG
D) smokes during pregnancy
E) uses alcohol during pregnancy
Q2) In the placenta, nutrients move from mother to baby by ____.
A) activated transport
B) the Rh factor
C) transport proteins
D) simple diffusion
E) HCG
Q3) __________ regulates the maturation of the mammary glands, and then oxytocin causes __________.
Q4) During implantation, the __________ buries itself in the uterine wall.
Q5) During gastrulation, three tissue layers form: the outer __________, the inner __________, and the __________ in between the first two layers.
Q6) __________ results in an early embryo that has three primary tissue layers.
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Chapter 43: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Bees use which type of communication method to transmit location of a food source?
A) vocal
B) odors
C) visual
D) tactile
E) pheromones
Q2) With __________, an animal stops responding to an ongoing stimulus.
Q3) imprinting
A)studied nest decorating behavior in birds
B)imprinting in goslings
C)capacity of an animal to complete complex, stereotyped responses to first-time encounters with key stimuli
D)problem solving without trial-and-error
E)behavior is modified by experience
F)voluntary behavior is modified in response to consequences of that behavior
G)communal display ground
H)occurs during a sensitive period in which a following response or social attachment becomes fixed on a particular moving object
I)self-sacrificing behavior
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