Principles of Biology II Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology II is a continuation of introductory biology, focusing on the diversity, structure, function, and evolution of living organisms beyond the cellular level. Topics explored include plant and animal physiology, development, ecology, and the mechanisms of evolution and speciation. Emphasis is placed on the interrelationships among organisms and their environments, as well as the biological processes that sustain life. Laboratory components typically complement lecture topics, offering hands-on experience with experimental techniques and scientific inquiry in biological research.
Recommended Textbook
Evolution 1st Edition by Carl T. Bergstrom
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Overview of Evolutionary Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If chimpanzee and human genomes differ only about 1.3% at the level of DNA base pairs,how can we explain the dramatic differences in appearance,behavior,cultures,etc.,between humans and chimps?
A)There is a correlation between increased rates of divergence with known functions of alleles in humans and chimps.
B)Natural selection has been acting on clusters of genes associated with both survival and reproduction in humans and chimps.
C)Important differences exist in the expression of genes in humans and chimps.
D)Two of the above can explain the differences.
Answer: C
Q2) Fisher's sex ratio model was put to test in a species of blue moon butterflies on the Samoan islands of Upolu and Savaii,where which of the following conditions existed?
A)The male:female sex ratio was the expected 1:1.
B)99% of the butterflies were female and only 1% were male.
C)Only the males were infected with the Wolbachia bacterium.
D)A and C
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Early Evolutionary Ideas and Darwins Insight
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Q1) Why was it such a brilliant strategy for Darwin to open On the Origin of Species with a discussion of artificial selection?
Answer: It was a brilliant strategy for Darwin to open On the Origin of Species with a discussion of artificial selection because it provided a familiar and relatable example for his readers to understand the concept of natural selection. By starting with a topic that people were already familiar with, such as how humans have selectively bred plants and animals for desirable traits, Darwin was able to ease his audience into the idea that similar processes could occur in nature without human intervention. This helped to make his theory more accessible and understandable to a wider audience, and laid the groundwork for his later discussions on the mechanisms of natural selection and the evidence for evolution. Additionally, by drawing parallels between artificial and natural selection, Darwin was able to demonstrate the power and effectiveness of selection processes in shaping the diversity of life on Earth, further strengthening his argument for the theory of evolution. Overall, by beginning with a discussion of artificial selection, Darwin was able to effectively engage his readers and lay a solid foundation for the revolutionary ideas he would present in the rest of his book.
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Chapter 3: Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) A species' life history strategy refers to
A)the traits of an individual organism over its lifetime.
B)a schedule and manner of investment in survivorship over the lifetime of an individual.
C)a schedule and manner of investment in reproduction over the lifetime of an individual.
D)A and B
E)B and C
Answer: E
Q2) How can we explain the exquisite complexity of some complex traits,such as the vertebrate eye?
A)Each intermediate step toward the evolution of complex traits was itself adaptive.
B)Intermediate stages of complex traits were functional and selected for in the past but were selected for a function other than that observed today.
C)A and B
D)None of the above
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Phylogeny and Evolutionary History
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Q1) By placing a given trait on a phylogenetic tree that we have already constructed using other data,we can
A)generate a hypothesis about when and how this trait evolved.
B)generate a hypothesis about the evolutionary history of the species in which those traits appear.
C)Both of the above
D)None of the above
Q2) Assume you are an evolutionary biologist who is using coat coloration in several closely related species to reconstruct their evolutionary history.If you find that the coat color trait is symplesiomorphic,what can you do to resolve the species' evolutionary relationships?
Q3) Which of the following terms is used for a situation in which the derived trait has arisen recently and appears in only one of the two most related species or populations,while the two most distantly related groups share the same trait?
A)Homology
B)Homoplasy
C)Synapomorphy
D)Symplesiomorphy
Q4) What are the differences between rooted and unrooted phylogenetic trees?
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Chapter 5: Inferring Phylogeny
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Q1) Parsimony has the disadvantage of
A)being an inconsistent estimator.
B)conceptual complexity.
C)long-branch attraction.
D)A and B
E)A and C
Q2) Computer programs for reconstructing large phylogenies
A)check all possible trees.
B)only check a very small fraction of possible trees.
C)make phylogenetic inference easy and certain.
D)None of the above
Q3) While both parsimony methods and distance methods can be quite effective in inferring evolutionary history,both use tricks of sorts.Compare the assumptions,shortcomings,and methods of each.
Q4) How many different unrooted tree arrangements are possible for a phylogenetic tree relating four species?
A)Three
B)Four
C)Two
D)Seven
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Chapter 6: Transmission Genetics and the Sources of
Genetic Variation
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Q1) Because RNA is a _________,it is more likely than DNA to get damaged during chemical reactions.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding the difference between RNA and DNA is true?
A)Only RNA uses guanine.
B)Only RNA uses cytosine.
C)Only RNA uses adenine.
D)Only RNA uses uracil.
E)Only RNA uses thymine.
Q3) The double strands of DNA separate from each other at high temperatures.Why do G-C rich strands of DNA require a relatively higher temperature to separate?
Q4) DNA
A)is a polymer composed primarily of repeating five carbon sugars.
B)contains four types of nitrogenous bases.
C)consists of two strands connected by hydrogen bonds.
D)A and C
E)All of the above
Q5) Before pre-mRNA is converted to mRNA,a process known as _________ occurs.
Q6) _________ are DNA triplets that specify a protein's amino acid sequence.
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Chapter 7: The Genetics of Populations
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Q1) What is the frequency of homozygous individuals in a Hardy-Weinberg population that experiences inbreeding expressed in terms of the frequencies of alleles (p,q)and the value of F.
Q2) Consider a diploid population in which a single locus has only two alleles,A and A ,whose respective allele frequencies equal p and q.The summation of p+q would equal
A)0.25
B)0.5
C)1
D)1.5
E)2
Q3) When a population is in a neutral equilibrium,a small change causes the population to
A)return to its starting position.
B)move farther away from its starting point.
C)remain at its displaced position.
D)A and B
E)A and C
Q4) Name three predictions generated from the Hardy-Weinberg model.
Q5) List five assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
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Chapter 8: Evolution in Finite Populations
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Q1) If it takes many generations for a collection of gene copies to coalesce to a single gene copy,we can infer that
A)Ne is small.
B)Ne is large.
C)there are few alleles in the population.
D)Ho will be small.
E)None of the above
Q2) The nearly neutral theory
A)relaxes assumptions concerning the selective neutrality of alleles.
B)can be used to explain the fact that substitution rate is approximately independent of generation time.
C)suggests that mildly deleterious mutations can become fixed more readily in smaller populations due to drift.
D)A and C
E)All of the above
Q3) Please describe the allele substitution rate in terms of the effective population size (N ),the number of neutral loci in the population (k)and mutation rate (n).Please show all of your work.
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10
Chapter 9: Evolution at Multiple Loci
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Q1) A study of susceptibility to major depressive disorder in monozygotic twins separated at birth revealed that the broad-sense heritability of this trait is 0.10,and its total phenotypic variance is 0.25.What is the variance of the genotypic value of this disorder? Show your work.
Q2) A haplotype is
A)all of the alleles at a single locus.
B)a product of epistasis.
C)a set of alleles at different loci along a chromosome.
D)all of the alleles in a population.
E)None of the above
Q3) Consider two loci on a single chromosome.These loci
A)have alleles that will always segregate together.
B)are physically linked.
C)are in linkage disequilibrium.
D)interact with each other.
E)will be broken up during recombination.
Q4) A species of lotus produces a nearly continuous spectrum of flower colors,ranging from white to deep red.The color of the flower is determined by 10 loci,each with two codominant alleles.What concept does this example illustrate?
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Chapter 10: Genome Evolution
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Q1) Consider two species,one of which has an effective population size that is five orders of magnitude greater than the other.In which species would you expect to see a smaller genome size? Explain your reasoning.
Q2) The exon theory of genes states that A)genes consist solely of exons.
B)introns are deleterious and are purged from the genome. C)introns lead to recombination errors.
D)many current genes arose through the rearrangement of exons. E)introns disrupt protein structure.
Q3) A researcher collects a soil sample and sequences the entire genomes of two prokaryotes found in the sample.In these genomes,he finds identical prophage DNA located in different areas of the two genomes.Based on the similarity of the sequences of the prophages and their placement in the prokaryotes' genomes,what could he conclude about the relatedness of the two prokaryotes?
Q4) In a 100 bp stretch of a gene,a researcher counts 25 nonsynonymous substitutions,30 synonymous substitutions,and 65 nonsynonymous sites.What type of selection is operating on this gene sequence? Show your work.
Q5) Why are transposons considered selfish genetic elements?
Q6) Describe a haplotype block.
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Chapter 11: The Origin and Evolution of Early Life
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Q1) If horizontal gene transfer was predominant in early evolution,how would this affect our ability to reconstruct the tree of life?
A)Horizontal gene transfer places viruses firmly at the beginning of the tree of life.
B)Horizontal gene transfer blurs the concept of species, making it difficult to delineate ancestral species.
C)Horizontal gene transfer resulted in chloroplasts that confuse the plant lineage.
D)Horizontal gene transfer means that life-forms do not share a history of common descent.
Q2) What is the evolutionary relationship between mutation rates and DNA proofreading and repair?
Q3) In early cell evolution,why would natural selection favor division into equal-sized daughter cells?
A)Splitting into two equal parts is the most energetically efficient method.
B)Two daughter cells is the most efficient way to reproduce sexually.
C)Splitting into two daughter cells is more efficient for horizontal gene transfer.
D)Hypercycles can be maintained by splitting into two.
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Chapter 12: Major Transitions
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Q1) Which of the following is not a reason that volvocine algae are ideal for studying the evolution of individuality?
A)They transitioned to multicellularity relatively recently.
B)Within the group, there are multiple, separate transitions to germ and soma lines.
C)The group exhibits extensive variation in their degree of multicellularity.
D)They readily form aggregate slugs.
Q2) Why does genetic imprinting inhibit parthenogenesis?
Q3) In what way are single-celled slime mold amoebas and individual honeybees (social insects that live in colonies)alike?
A)Signals cause them to aggregate, though they usually live alone.
B)They are both examples of loss of complexity.
C)Individuals always live in groups.
D)Some individuals give up independent replication in the larger group.
Q4) Consider a slime mold slug and a colony of Volvox carteri,both of which contain both soma and germ cells.Is a slug or a volvox colony an individual? Explain.
Q5) Why must cheaters be identifiable in group living at any level (e.g.,multicellularity or social groups)?
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Evolution and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) With recapitulation,a somatic trait can appear
A)earlier in development or a reproductive trait later in development.
B)earlier in development or a reproductive trait earlier in development.
C)later in development or a reproductive trait later in development.
D)later in development or a reproductive trait earlier in development.
Q2) How does facultative neoteny in other species support the paedomorph advantage hypothesis for axolotls?
Q3) If paedomorphosis via neoteny involves the retention of juvenile traits in adults,what is responsible for paedomorphosis via progenesis?
Q4) What is meant by the colinearity of Hox genes?
Q5) When a gene is duplicated,it may
A)be lost through mutation.
B)become nonfunctional through mutation.
C)gain a new activity.
D)All of the above
E)None of the above
Q6) How can changes in genetic enhancers affect morphology?
Q7) How can natural selection lead to the loss of a gene duplication?
Page 15
Q8) Does all life evolve from simple to complex? Explain.
Q9) What evidence suggests that MADS-box genes are older than flowers?
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Species and Speciation
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Q1) Which of the following does not contribute to the evidence for the out-of-Africa hypothesis?
A)The gradual divergence of Homo sapiens in different locations
B)The rapid replacement of other hominins by Homo sapiens approximately 100,000 years ago
C)Coalescence
D)The existence of greater mitochondrial diversity in Africa
E)The interbreeding of humans and Neanderthals
Q2) When are hybrid zones expected to disappear and complete the speciation process?
A)When hybrids are at a selective disadvantage
B)When hybrids have a selective advantage and will replace parents
C)When hybrids are found in ring species
D)When hybrids mate assortatively
Q3) Host specificity of Rhagoletis pomonella reduces gene flow between the apple and hawthorn races by 4% to 6% in each generation.This is an example of
A)allopatric speciation.
B)assortative mating.
C)secondary contact.
D)resource competition.
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Chapter 15: Extinction and Evolutionary Trends
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Q1) Data on extinction rates pre- and post-mass extinction rates suggest that the extinction rate remains elevated for some time after the mass extinction event.Which of the following statements is a plausible explanation for this observation?
A)The negative effects of the original cause for the mass extinction persist after the original event.
B)Although not completely extinct, many surviving species are confined to small geographic ranges that make them vulnerable to local extinction events.
C)High mortality led to the loss of genetic diversity in survivors.
D)Adaptive radiations after mass extinctions produce new predators and competitors that led to the extinction of mass extinction survivors.
E)All of the above
Q2) The probability of extinction via predation is particularly high when
A)predator and prey have coevolved over long periods of time.
B)prey populations are stressed by additional environmental factors.
C)predators are a new arrival to the prey's habitat.
D)the prey species is long lived and has a low birthrate.
E)B, C, and D
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Page 18
Chapter 16: The Evolution of Sex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Does Muller's ratchet apply to both apomictic and automictic asexual populations?
Q2) What are coadapted gene complexes?
A)Genes that are located on the same chromosome
B)Codominant alleles
C)Favorable combinations of alleles at different loci
D)Any epistatic interaction between different loci
E)A and C
Q3) What are the two immediate benefits to sexual reproduction in unpredictable environments,according to Kondrashov?
Q4) Counter the following argument: "Sexual reproduction is just an accident of evolution,once established it is irreversible.One does not need to postulate specific benefits to explain its maintenance."
Q5) What are two examples of asexual-like reproduction in the genomes of obligate sexually reproducing organisms?
Q6) Could HIV infection be considered a cost of sexual reproduction? Keep your answer to one sentence.
Q7) Why do pathogens tend to evolve faster than their hosts?
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Chapter 17: Sexual Selection
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Q1) Why is there a correlation between testis size and sperm competition in beetles?
Q2) Name one direct benefit that females may receive from a particular mate choice.
Q3) Consider a group of closely related species that vary in the average number of males a single female will mate with.Given the results of studies from the literature,which of the following patterns of sperm competition would you expect to see in each of the species?
A)Sperm competition will show a positive relationship to the number of males per female.
B)Sperm competition will show a negative relationship to the number of males per female.
C)Sperm competition will show no relationship to the number of males per female.
D)Cannot predict based on the information provided
Q4) What prediction of the runaway model that is never predicted for the good genes model may help to distinguish between the models in natural populations?
Q5) Part of the courting behavior of male jumping spiders consists of drumming the ground with their legs.Studies have shown that leg drumming decreases the longevity of the spiders.Why might male leg drumming have evolved in jumping spiders?
Q6) What are the four major models of the evolution of female mate preferences?
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Chapter 18: The Evolution of Sociality
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Q1) Why was Charles Darwin initially puzzled by the observation that worker honey bees die when they sting an intruder to their hive? (The bee's stinger is ripped from the bee's abdomen,causing a fatal injury.)
A)All defensive behaviors result in the guaranteed destruction of the defender.
B)Such self-sacrifice is widespread in many different groups of animals.
C)He found it hard to imagine how such behavior could evolve, since a defending worker's chance of survival is zero.
D)The stinging apparatus appeared to be too complex to have evolved.
Q2) Which of the following represents a Nash equilibrium in the hawk-dove game? Assume that the cost of a fight is greater than the benefit of the resource that is being fought over.
A)Both players always play dove.
B)Both players always play hawk.
C)Player 1 always plays hawk, player 2 always plays dove; both players know each other's role (player 1 or player 2) before the encounter.
D)Player 1 always plays hawk, while player 2 plays hawk some of the time and dove some of the time.
Q3) Name the three familial conflicts.
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Chapter 19: Coevolution
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Q1) Name two forms of antagonistic coevolution.
Q2) Why do we distinguish between inter- and intraspecific mutualism?
A)This distinction is for historical reasons only.
B)Mutualistic partners in the same species are part of the same gene pool, but this is not the case for intraspecific mutualisms.
C)The mutualistic partners do not benefit equally in interspecific mutualism.
D)Only intraspecific mutualism gives the opportunity for cheating.
Q3) Is any form of adaptation coevolution?
A)Yes, evolution always happens in response to environmental change.
B)Yes, other species are always part of an organism's environment.
C)No, only evolution as an action-reaction response to a selection pressure imposed by interacting organisms on each other qualifies as coevolution.
D)No, coevolution is by definition limited to mutualistic interactions.
Q4) Define "cultural transmission" in one sentence.
Q5) Briefly define the three modes of cultural transmission: vertical cultural transmission,horizontal cultural transmission,and oblique cultural transmission.
Q6) How can cultural transmission of male songs facilitate the early stages of species formation in Darwin's finches?
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Chapter 20: Evolution and Medicine
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a trade-off imposed on an organism that results in a medical problem?
A)Patients who became infected by a novel flu strain had had no previous exposure to that particular strain.
B)Sturdier bones would prevent fractures but would also slow down organisms mobility.
C)The crossing of air and food pathways in humans increases the risk of choking.
D)Recent changes in human diet contribute to metabolic diseases.
Q2) Many wild mushrooms make delicious food,but some are highly toxic and can result in a fatal meal.Apply the principle of asymmetric harm to mushroom identification,and recommend a strategy for mushroom identifiers.
Q3) Under which hypothesis may pathogens ultimately be responsible for the evolution of sexual reproduction in multicellular organisms?
A)Good genes hypothesis
B)Red Queen hypothesis
C)Mutation accumulation hypothesis
D)Rate-of-living hypothesis
Q4) Name three methods that pathogens use to subvert their host's immune system.
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