Principles of Biology Final Exam
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts of biology, exploring the essential characteristics of life, cellular structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of organisms. The course emphasizes the scientific method, critical thinking, and the application of biological knowledge to real-world issues, laying the foundation for further studies in the life sciences. Students engage in both theoretical content and practical laboratory experiences to deepen their understanding of the principles governing living systems.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology Concepts and Connections 9th Edition by Jane B. Reece
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Chapter 1: Introduction: Themes in the Study of Life
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Q1) A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is called a A) biosystem.
B) community.
C) population.
D) ecosystem.
E) family.
Answer: C
Q2) Once labor begins in childbirth, contractions increase in intensity and frequency until delivery. The increasing labor contractions of childbirth are an example of which type of regulation?
A) a bioinformatic system
B) positive feedback
C) negative feedback
D) feedback inhibition
E) enzymatic catalysis
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) Based on electron configuration, which of these elements in the figure above would exhibit a chemical behavior most like that of oxygen?
A) carbon
B) hydrogen
C) nitrogen
D) sulfur
E) phosphorus
Answer: D
Q2) Which bond or interaction would be difficult to disrupt when compounds are put into water?
A) covalent bond
B) hydrogen bond
C) van der Waals interaction
D) ionic bond
E) either covalent bonds or ionic bonds
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Q1) One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid (H CO ). Carbonic acid is a weak acid that dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO )and a hydrogen ion (H ). Thus, H CO HCO + H
If the pH of the blood drops, one would expect
A) a decrease in the concentration of H CO and an increase in the concentration of HCO .
B) the concentration of hydroxide ion (OH ) to increase.
C) the concentration of bicarbonate ion (HCO ) to increase.
D) the HCO to act as a base and remove excess H with the formation of H CO .
E) the HCO to act as an acid and remove excess H with the formation of H CO .
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) What determines whether a carbon atom's covalent bonds to other atoms are in a tetrahedral configuration or a planar configuration?
A) the presence or absence of bonds with oxygen atoms
B) the presence or absence of double bonds between the carbon atom and other atoms
C) the polarity of the covalent bonds between carbon and other atoms
D) the presence or absence of bonds with nitrogen atoms
E) the solvent that the organic molecule is dissolved in
Q2) Which molecule shown above has a carbonyl functional group in the form of a ketone?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
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Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) If ¹ C-labeled uridine triphosphate is added to the growth medium of cells, what macromolecules will be labeled?
A) phospholipids
B) DNA
C) RNA
D) both DNA and RNA
E) proteins
Q2) What maintains the secondary structure of a protein?
A) peptide bonds
B) hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group of another peptide bond
C) disulfide bonds
D) hydrophobic interactions
E) hydrogen bonds between the R groups
Q3) What is the structure shown in Figure 5.4?
A) pentose molecule
B) fatty acid molecule
C) steroid molecule
D) oligosaccharide molecule
E) phospholipid molecule
Page 7
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following contain the 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules, consisting of nine doublets of microtubules surrounding a pair of single microtubules?
A) both motile cilia and primary (nonmotile) cilia
B) centrioles only
C) both flagella and motile cilia
D) both basal bodies and primary (nonmotile) cilia
E) both centrioles and basal bodies
Q2) In a liver cell detoxifying alcohol and some other poisons, the enzymes of the peroxisome remove hydrogen from these molecules and
A) combine the hydrogen with water molecules to generate hydrogen peroxide.
B) use the hydrogen to break down hydrogen peroxide.
C) transfer the hydrogen to the mitochondria.
D) transfer the hydrogen to oxygen molecules to generate hydrogen peroxide.
Q3) Which structure is not part of the endomembrane system?
A) nuclear envelope
B) chloroplast
C) Golgi apparatus
D) plasma membrane
E) ER
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Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) The sodium-potassium pump is called an electrogenic pump because it
A) pumps equal quantities of Na and K across the membrane.
B) pumps hydrogen ions out of the cell.
C) contributes to the membrane potential.
D) ionizes sodium and potassium atoms.
E) is used to drive the transport of other molecules against a concentration gradient.
Q2) Which of the following is true of the evolution of cell membranes?
A) Cell membranes have stopped evolving now that they are fluid mosaics.
B) Cell membranes cannot evolve if the membrane proteins do not.
C) The evolution of cell membranes is driven by the evolution of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
D) All components of membranes evolve in response to natural selection.
E) An individual organism selects its preferred type of cell membrane for particular functions.
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) If an enzyme in solution is saturated with substrate, the most effective way to obtain a faster yield of products is to
A) add more of the enzyme.
B) heat the solution to 90°C.
C) add more substrate.
D) add an allosteric inhibitor.
E) add a noncompetitive inhibitor.
Q2) The mechanism in which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an earlier step in the pathway is most precisely described as A) metabolic inhibition.
B) feedback inhibition.
C) allosteric inhibition.
D) noncooperative inhibition.
E) reversible inhibition.
Q3) The active site of an enzyme is the region that A) binds allosteric regulators of the enzyme.
B) is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme.
C) binds noncompetitive inhibitors of the enzyme.
D) is inhibited by the presence of a coenzyme or a cofactor.
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Phosphofructokinase is an allosteric enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate, an early step of glycolysis. In the presence of oxygen, an increase in the amount of ATP in a cell would be expected to A) inhibit the enzyme and thus slow the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle. B) activate the enzyme and thus slow the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle. C) inhibit the enzyme and thus increase the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.
D) activate the enzyme and increase the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.
E) inhibit the enzyme and thus increase the rate of glycolysis and the concentration of citrate.
Q2) In cellular respiration, the energy for most ATP synthesis is supplied by
A) high energy phosphate bonds in organic molecules.
B) a proton gradient across a membrane.
C) converting oxygen to ATP.
D) transferring electrons from organic molecules to pyruvate.
E) generating carbon dioxide and oxygen in the electron transport chain.
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11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Where do the enzymatic reactions of the Calvin cycle take place?
A) stroma of the chloroplast
B) thylakoid membranes
C) matrix of the mitochondria
D) cytosol around the chloroplast
E) thylakoid space
Q2) The phylogenetic distribution of the enzyme rubisco is limited to
A) C plants only.
B) C and C plants.
C) all photosynthetic eukaryotes.
D) all known photoautotrophs, both bacterial and eukaryotic.
E) all living cells.
Q3) Since the spaceship will be too far from the sun for photosynthesis, an artificial light source will be needed. What wavelengths of light should be used to maximize plant growth with a minimum of energy expenditure?
A) full-spectrum white light
B) green light
C) a mixture of blue and red light
D) yellow light
E) UV light
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Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) Receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs)are found at high levels on various cancer cells. A protein, Herceptin, has been found to bind to an RTK known as HER2. This information can now be utilized in breast cancer treatment if which of the following is true?
A) If Herceptin is found in the breast lymph nodes of the patient.
B) If HER2, administered by injection, is in sufficient concentration.
C) If the patient's cancer cells have detectable HER2.
D) If the patient's genome codes for the HER2 receptor.
E) If the patient's genome codes for the manufacture of Herceptin.
Q2) Testosterone functions inside a cell by
A) acting as a signal receptor that activates tyrosine kinases.
B) binding with a receptor protein that enters the nucleus and activates specific genes.
C) acting as a steroid signal receptor that activates ion channel proteins.
D) becoming a second messenger that inhibits adenylyl cyclase.
E) coordinating a phosphorylation cascade that increases spermatogenesis.
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Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) If the cell whose nuclear material is shown in Figure 12.2 continues toward completion of mitosis, which of the following events would occur next?
A) cell membrane synthesis
B) spindle fiber formation
C) nuclear envelope breakdown
D) formation of telophase nuclei
E) synthesis of chromatids
Q2) A research team began a study of a cultured cell line. Their preliminary observations showed them that the cell line did not exhibit either density-dependent inhibition or anchorage dependence. What could they conclude right away?
A) The cells originated in the nervous system.
B) The cells are unable to form spindle microtubules.
C) They have altered series of cell cycle phases.
D) The cells show characteristics of tumors.
E) They were originally derived from an elderly organism.
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) Which of these statements is false?
A) In humans, each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal chromosome.
B) In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is female (XX) or male (XY).
C) Single, haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilization, forming a diploid (2n), single-celled zygote.
D) At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis.
E) Sexual life cycles differ with respect to the relative timing of meiosis and fertilization.
Q2) For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes?
A) 23
B) 46
C) 460
D) 920
E) about 8 million
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Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) These results indicate which of the following?
A) Brown is dominant to black.
B) Black is dominant to brown and to yellow.
C) Yellow is dominant to black.
D) There is incomplete dominance.
E) Epistasis is involved.
Q2) Mendel's observation of the segregation of alleles in gamete formation has its basis in which of the following phases of cell division?
A) prophase I of meiosis
B) anaphase II of meiosis
C) metaphase I of meiosis
D) anaphase I of meiosis
E) anaphase of mitosis
Q3) In the cross AaBbCc × AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype AABBCC?
A) 1/4
B) 1/8
C) 1/16
D) 1/32
E) 1/64
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) The centimorgan (cM)is a unit named in honor of Thomas Hunt Morgan. To what is it equal?
A) the physical distance between two linked genes
B) 1% frequency of recombination between two genes
C) 1 nanometer of distance between two genes
D) the distance between a pair of homologous chromosomes
E) the recombination frequency between two genes assorting independently
Q2) Correns described that the inheritance of variegated color on the leaves of certain plants was determined by the maternal parent only. What phenomenon does this describe?
A) mitochondrial inheritance
B) chloroplast inheritance
C) genomic imprinting
D) infectious inheritance
E) sex-linkage
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Studies of nucleosomes have shown that histones (except H1)exist in each nucleosome as two kinds of tetramers: one of 2 H2A molecules and 2 H2B molecules, and the other as 2 H3 and 2 H4 molecules. Which of the following is supported by this data?
A) DNA can wind itself around either of the two kinds of tetramers.
B) The two types of tetramers associate to form an octamer.
C) DNA has to associate with individual histones before they form tetramers.
D) Only H2A can form associations with DNA molecules.
E) The structure of H3 and H4 molecules is not basic like that of the other histones.
Q2) Eukaryotic telomeres replicate differently than the rest of the chromosome. This is a consequence of which of the following?
A) the evolution of telomerase enzyme
B) DNA polymerase that cannot replicate the leading strand template to its 5' end
C) gaps left at the 5' end of the lagging strand
D) gaps left at the 3' end of the lagging strand because of the need for a primer
E) the "no ends" of a circular chromosome
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Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) The TATA sequence is found only several nucleotides away from the start site of transcription. This most probably relates to which of the following?
A) the number of hydrogen bonds between A and T in DNA
B) the triplet nature of the codon
C) the ability of this sequence to bind to the start site
D) the supercoiling of the DNA near the start site
E) the 3-D shape of a DNA molecule
Q2) Which of the following is not true of a codon?
A) It consists of three nucleotides.
B) It may code for the same amino acid as another codon.
C) It never codes for more than one amino acid.
D) It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule.
E) It is the basic unit of the genetic code.
Q3) Alternative RNA splicing
A) is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription.
B) can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA.
C) can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs.
D) increases the rate of transcription.
E) is due to the presence or absence of particular snRNPs.
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) The next step after the embryo is formed would be
A) division of the embryo into five broad regions.
B) use of pair-rule genes to divide the embryo into stripes, each of which will become two segments.
C) use of zygotic segment polarity genes to divide each segment into anterior and posterior halves.
D) enclosure of the nuclei in membranes, forming a single layer over the surface.
E) separation of head, thoracic, and abdominal segments of the embryo.
Q2) In eukaryotes, general transcription factors
A) are required for the expression of specific protein-encoding genes.
B) bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box.
C) inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter and begin transcribing.
D) usually lead to a high level of transcription even without additional specific transcription factors.
E) bind to sequences just after the start site of transcription.
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Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) If this virus has a positive RNA strand as its genome, it begins the infection by using this strand as mRNA. Therefore, which of the following do you expect to be able to measure?
A) replication rate
B) transcription rate
C) translation rate
D) accumulation of new ribosomes
E) formation of new transcription factors
Q2) Antiviral drugs that have become useful are usually associated with which of the following properties?
A) ability to remove all viruses from the infected host
B) interference with viral replication
C) prevention of the host from becoming infected
D) removal of viral proteins
E) removal of viral mRNAs
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Chapter 20: Biotechnology
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Q1) Which of the following is one of the technical reasons why gene therapy is problematic?
A) Most cells with an engineered gene do not produce gene product.
B) Most cells with engineered genes overwhelm other cells in a tissue.
C) Cells with transferred genes are unlikely to replicate.
D) Transferred genes may not have appropriately controlled activity.
E) mRNA from transferred genes cannot be translated.
Q2) Genetically engineered plants
A) are more difficult to engineer than animals.
B) include a transgenic rice plant that can help prevent vitamin A deficiency.
C) are being rapidly developed, but traditional plant breeding programs are still the only method used to develop new plants.
D) are able to fix nitrogen themselves.
E) are banned throughout the world.
Q3) Which of the following are probably siblings?
A) A and B
B) A and C
C) A and D
D) C and D
E) B and D
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Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) The movement of these blocks suggests that
A) during evolutionary time, these sequences have separated and have returned to their original positions.
B) DNA sequences within these blocks have become increasingly divergent.
C) sequences represented have duplicated at least three times.
D) chromosomal translocations have moved blocks of sequences to other chromosomes.
E) higher mammals have more convergence of gene sequences related in function.
Q2) Which of the following represents another example of the same phenomenon as that shown in Figure 21.2?
A) the apparent centric fusion between two chromosome pairs of primates such as chimps to form the ancestor of human chromosome 2
B) the difference in the numbers of chromosomes in five species of one genus of birds
C) the formation of several pseudogenes in the globin gene family subsequent to human divergence from other primates
D) the high frequency of polyploidy in many species of angiosperms
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Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) If the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus experiences a cost for maintaining one or more antibiotic-resistance genes, then what should happen in environments from which antibiotics are missing?
A) These genes should continue to be maintained in case the antibiotics ever appear.
B) These bacteria should be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes.
C) The bacteria should try to make the cost worthwhile by locating, and migrating to, microenvironments where traces of antibiotics are present.
D) The bacteria should start making and secreting their own antibiotics.
Q2) Which of the following statements most detracts from the claim that the human appendix is a completely vestigial organ?
A) The appendix can be surgically removed with no immediate ill effects.
B) The appendix might have been larger in fossil hominids.
C) The appendix has a substantial amount of defensive lymphatic tissue.
D) Individuals with a larger-than-average appendix leave fewer offspring than those with a below-average-sized appendix.
E) In a million years, the human species might completely lack an appendix.
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) The restriction enzymes of bacteria protect the bacteria from successful attack by bacteriophages, whose genomes can be degraded by the restriction enzymes. The bacterial genomes are not vulnerable to these restriction enzymes because bacterial DNA is methylated. This situation selects for bacteriophages whose genomes are also methylated. As new strains of resistant bacteriophages become more prevalent, this in turn selects for bacteria whose genomes are not methylated and whose restriction enzymes instead degrade methylated DNA. The outcome of the conflict between bacteria and bacteriophage at any point in time results from
A) frequency-dependent selection.
B) evolutionary imbalance.
C) heterozygote advantage.
D) neutral variation.
E) genetic variation being preserved by diploidy.
Q2) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium must occur in populations wherein
A) an allele remains fixed.
B) no genetic variation exists.
C) natural selection is not operating.
D) All three of the responses above are correct.
E) Only two of the responses above are correct.
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Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Theoretically, the production of sterile mules by interbreeding between female horses (mares)and male donkeys (jacks)should
A) result in the extinction of one of the two parental species. B) cause convergent evolution.
C) strengthen postzygotic barriers between horses and donkeys. D) weaken the intrinsic reproductive barriers between horses and donkeys.
E) eventually result in the formation of a single species from the two parental species.
Q2) Rocky Mountain juniper (Juniperus scopulorum)and one-seeded juniper (J. monosperma)have overlapping ranges. If pollen grains (which contain sperm cells)from one species are unable to germinate and make pollen tubes on female ovules (which contain egg cells)of the other species, then which of these terms is applicable?
A) behavioral isolation
B) mechanical isolation
C) hybrid breakdown
D) reduced hybrid viability
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Adaptive radiations can be a direct consequence of four of the following five factors. Select the exception.
A) vacant ecological niches
B) genetic drift
C) colonization of an isolated region that contains suitable habitat and few competitor species
D) evolutionary innovation
E) an adaptive radiation in a group of organisms (such as plants) that another group uses as food
Q2) Larval flies (maggots)express the Ubx gene in all of their segments, and thereby lack appendages. If this same gene continued to be expressed throughout subsequent developmental stages, except in the head region, and if the result was a fit, sexually mature organism that still strongly resembled a maggot, this would be an example of A) paedomorphosis.
B) homochrony.
C) heterochrony.
D) Two of the responses above are correct.
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) When it acts upon a gene, which of the following processes consequently makes that gene an accurate molecular clock?
A) transcription
B) directional natural selection
C) mutation
D) proofreading
E) reverse transcription
Q2) The term homoplasy is most applicable to which of the following features?
A) the legless condition found in various lineages of extant lizards
B) the five-digit condition of human hands and bat wings
C) the hemoglobin genes of mice and of humans
D) the fur that covers Australian moles and North American moles
E) the bones of bat forelimbs and the bones of bird forelimbs
Q3) Placing whales and hippos in the same clade means
A) that these organisms are phenotypically more similar to each other than to any others shown on the trees in Figure 26.2.
B) that their morphological similarities are probably homoplasies.
C) that they had a common ancestor.
D) that all three of the responses are correct.
E) that two of the responses are correct.
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) E. coli cells typically make most of their ATP by metabolizing glucose. Under the conditions of this experiment, what should be true of E. coli's generation time (especially early in the course of the experiment, but less so later on)?
A) Generation time should be the same as in the typical environment.
B) Generation time should be faster than in the typical environment.
C) Generation time should be slower than in the typical environment.
D) It is theoretically impossible to make any predictions about generation time under these conditions.
Q2) Which species might be able to include Hfr cells?
A) species A
B) species B
C) species C
D) species D
E) species E
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) If true, which of the following would be most important in determining whether P. chromatophora's cyanelle is still an endosymbiont, or is an organelle, as the term cyanelle implies?
A) If P. chromatophora is less fit without its cyanelle than with it.
B) If the cyanelle is less fit without the host cercozoan than with it.
C) If there is ongoing metabolic cooperation between the cyanelle and the host cercozoan.
D) If the magnesium-containing porphyrin ring in the cyanelle's chlorophyll molecules is built by the cyanelle, whereas the organic portion of the chlorophyll molecules is built by the host cercozoan.
E) If there has been movement of genes from the cyanelle genome to the nuclear genome, such that these genes are no longer present in the cyanelle genome.
Q2) The cysts of Giardia are most analogous to the
A) mitochondria of ancestral diplomonads.
B) nuclei of archaeans.
C) endospores of bacteria.
D) capsids of viruses.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Q1) You are hiking in a forest and come upon a mysterious plant, which you determine is either a lycophyte sporophyte or a pterophyte sporophyte. Which of the following would be most helpful in determining the correct classification of the plant?
A) whether or not it has true leaves
B) whether it has microphylls or megaphylls
C) whether or not it has seeds
D) its height
E) whether or not it has chlorophyll a
Q2) Two small, poorly drained lakes lie close to each other in a northern forest. The basins of both lakes are composed of the same geologic substratum. One lake is surrounded by a dense Sphagnum mat; the other is not. Compared to the pond with Sphagnum, the pond lacking the moss mat should have
A) lower numbers of bacteria.
B) reduced rates of decomposition.
C) reduced oxygen content.
D) less-acidic water.
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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Q1) People who attempted to plant Brazil nuts in hopes of establishing plantations of Brazil nut trees played roles most similar to those of A) agoutis.
B) orchid bees.
C) pollen tubes.
D) harpy eagles.
Q2) Which adaptation(s)of land plants is (are)likely to provide Harold with future patients?
A) sporophyte dominance
B) defenses against herbivory
C) those for using wind to disperse male gametophytes
D) All three of the responses above are potentially medically significant.
E) Two of the responses above are potentially medically significant.
Q3) Which of the following are structures of angiosperm gametophytes?
A) immature ovules
B) pollen tubes
C) ovaries
D) stamens
E) sepals
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Fossil fungi date back to the origin and early evolution of plants. What combination of environmental and morphological change is similar in the evolution of both fungi and plants?
A) presence of "coal forests" and change in mode of nutrition
B) periods of drought and presence of filamentous body shape
C) predominance in swamps and presence of cellulose in cell walls
D) colonization of land and loss of flagellated cells
E) continental drift and mode of spore dispersal
Q2) The functional significance of porous septa in certain fungal hyphae is most similar to that represented by which pair of structures in animal cells and plant cells, respectively?
A) desmosomes-tonoplasts
B) gap junctions-plasmodesmata
C) tight junctions-plastids
D) centrioles-plastids
E) flagella-central vacuoles
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Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Q1) Which distinction is given more emphasis by the morphological phylogeny than by the molecular phylogeny?
A) metazoan and eumetazoan
B) radial and bilateral
C) true coelom and pseudocoelom
D) protostome and deuterostome
E) molting and lack of molting
Q2) What is true of the deuterostomes in the molecular phylogeny (B)that is not true in the traditional phylogeny (A)?
A) Deuterostomia is a clade.
B) To maintain Deuterostomia as a clade, some phyla had to be removed from it.
C) Deuterostomia now includes the Acoela.
D) It is actually a grade, rather than a clade.
E) It diverged from the rest of the Bilateria earlier than did the Acoela.
Q3) The blastopore is a structure that first becomes evident during A) fertilization.
B) gastrulation.
C) the eight-cell stage of the embryo.
D) coelom formation.
E) cleavage.
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Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Q1) The heartworms that can accumulate within the hearts of dogs and other mammals have a pseudocoelom, an alimentary canal, and an outer covering that is occasionally shed. To which phylum does the heartworm belong?
A) Platyhelminthes
B) Arthropoda
C) Nematoda
D) Acoela
E) Annelida
Q2) What would be the most effective method of reducing the incidence of blood flukes in a human population?
A) reduce the mosquito population
B) reduce the freshwater snail population
C) purify all drinking water
D) avoid contact with rodent droppings
E) carefully wash all raw fruits and vegetables
Q3) The stingers of honeybees have a function most similar to that of A) rhinophores.
B) dorsal plummules.
C) cerata.
D) more than one of these.
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Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new species of aquatic chordate is discovered that closely resembles an ancient form. It has the following characteristics: external armor of bony plates, no paired lateral fins, and a suspension-feeding mode of nutrition. In addition to these, it will probably have which of the following characteristics?
A) legs
B) no jaws
C) an amniotic egg
D) endothermy
Q2) Why is the discovery of the fossil Archaeopteryx significant? It supports the A) phylogenetic relatedness of birds and reptiles.
B) contention that birds are much older than we originally thought.
C) claim that some dinosaurs had feathers well before birds had evolved.
D) idea that the first birds were ratites.
E) hypothesis that the earliest birds were ectothermic.
Q3) Unlike eutherians, both monotremes and marsupials
A) lack nipples.
B) have some embryonic development outside the uterus.
C) lay eggs.
D) are found in Australia and Africa.
E) include only insectivores and herbivores.
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Based on the ABC hypothesis, what would be the structure of a flower from the outermost whorl that had normal expression of genes A and C and expression of gene B in all four whorls?
A) carpel-petal-petal-carpel
B) petal-petal-stamen-stamen
C) sepal-carpel-carpel-sepal
D) sepal-sepal-carpel-carpel
E) carpel-carpel-carpel-carpel
Q2) Heartwood and sapwood consist of
A) bark.
B) periderm.
C) secondary xylem.
D) secondary phloem.
E) cork.
Q3) Plants contain meristems whose major function is to
A) attract pollinators.
B) absorb ions.
C) photosynthesize.
D) produce more cells.
E) produce flowers.
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Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following normally enter the plant through the roots except A) carbon dioxide.
B) nitrogen.
C) potassium.
D) water.
E) calcium.
Q2) A plant cell with a S of -0.65 MPa maintains a constant volume when bathed in a solution that has a S of -0.30 MPa and is in an open container. The cell has a
A) P of +0.65 MPa.
B) of -0.65 MPa.
C) P of +0.35 MPa.
D) P of +0.30 MPa.
E) of 0 MPa.
Q3) Transpiration in plants requires all of the following except
A) adhesion of water molecules to cellulose.
B) cohesion between water molecules.
C) evaporation of water molecules.
D) active transport through xylem cells.
E) transport through tracheids.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) In hydroponic culture, what is the purpose of bubbling air into the solute?
A) to keep dissolved nutrients evenly distributed
B) to provide oxygen to the root cells
C) to inhibit the growth of aerobic algae
D) to inhibit the growth of anaerobic bacteria
E) to provide CO for photosynthesis
Q2) Which two elements make up more than 90% of the dry weight of plants?
A) carbon and nitrogen
B) oxygen and hydrogen
C) nitrogen and oxygen
D) oxygen and carbon
E) carbon and potassium
Q3) Which of the following would be in the lowest concentration in an actively growing shoot tip?
A) zinc
B) nitrogen
C) phosphorus
D) potassium
E) calcium
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following could be considered an evolutionary advantage of asexual reproduction in plants?
A) increased success of progeny in a stable environment.
B) increased agricultural productivity in a rapidly changing environment.
C) maintenance and expansion of a large genome.
D) production of numerous progeny.
E) increased ability to adapt to a change in the environment.
Q2) Based on studies of plant evolution and anatomy, which flower part is least likely to have evolved from a leaf?
A) stamen
B) carpel
C) petals
D) sepals
E) receptacle
Q3) Based on Figure 38.1, which cell(s)become(s)the triploid endosperm?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External Signals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hormones would be most useful in promoting the rooting of plant cuttings?
A) oligosaccharins
B) abscisic acid
C) cytokinins
D) gibberellins
E) auxins
Q2) External stimuli would be received most quickly by a plant cell if the receptors for signal transduction were located in the
A) plasma membrane.
B) cytoplasmic matrix.
C) endoplasmic reticulum.
D) nuclear membrane.
E) nucleoplasm.
Q3) A plant seedling bends toward sunlight because
A) auxin migrates to the lower part of the stem due to gravity.
B) there is more auxin on the light side of the stem.
C) auxin is destroyed more quickly on the dark side of the stem.
D) auxin is found in greatest abundance on the dark side of the stem.
Page 41
E) gibberellins produced at the stem tip cause phototropism.
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscles are joined to bones by A) ligaments.
B) tendons.
C) loose connective tissue.
D) Haversian systems.
E) spindle fibers.
Q2) An exchange surface in direct contact with the external environment is found in the A) lungs.
B) skeletal muscles.
C) liver.
D) heart.
E) brain.
Q3) Hibernation and estivation during seasons of environmental stress are both examples of A) acclimatization.
B) torpor.
C) evaporative cooling.
D) nonshivering thermogenesis.
E) shivering thermogenesis.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you were to jog 1 km a few hours after lunch, which stored fuel would you probably tap?
A) muscle proteins
B) muscle and liver glycogen
C) fat stored in the liver
D) fat stored in adipose tissue
E) blood proteins
Q2) The most likely reason that some of the vitamins and minerals in this supplement are found at less than 100% is
A) that it would be chemically impossible to add more.
B) these vitamins and minerals are too large in size to reach 100%.
C) it is too easy to overdose on minerals such as phosphorus and calcium.
D) it is dangerous to overdose on fat-soluble vitamins such as A and K.
E) these supplements are meant for those who have been deprived of healthy foods.
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43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an animal species known for endurance running rather than fast sprinting, you would expect to find
A) a slower rate of oxygen consumption so that its breathing will not have to be accelerated.
B) an increase of storage of oxygen in myoglobin of its muscles.
C) a relatively slow heart rate in order to lower oxygen consumption.
D) a lower pressure of oxygen in the alveoli.
E) a much higher rate of oxygen consumption for its size.
Q2) The only vertebrates in which blood flows directly from respiratory organs to body tissues without first returning to the heart are the A) amphibians.
B) birds.
C) fishes.
D) mammals.
E) reptiles.
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Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Histamines trigger dilation of nearby blood vessels as well as an increase in their permeability, producing
A) redness and heat only.
B) swelling only.
C) pain.
D) redness, heat, and swelling.
E) all of the signs of a major infection.
Q2) According to the graph, naive memory cells will be produced
A) between 0 and 7 days.
B) between 7 and 14 days.
C) between 28 and 35 days.
D) between 35 and 42 days.
E) both between 0 and 7 days and between 28 and 35 days.
Q3) Antihistamine treatment reduces
A) blood vessel dilation.
B) phagocytosis of antigens.
C) MHC presentation by macrophages.
D) the secondary immune response.
E) clonal selection by antigens.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Juxtamedullary nephrons can concentrate salt effectively in the renal medulla because of their long A) loops of Henle.
B) distal convoluted tubules.
C) Bowman's capsules.
D) proximal convoluted tubules.
E) glomeruli.
Q2) Excretory structures known as protonephridia are present in A) flatworms.
B) earthworms.
C) insects.
D) vertebrates.
E) cnidarians.
Q3) Which of the following pairs of organisms excrete nitrogenous wastes in the form of uric acid?
A) mice and birds
B) insects and birds
C) lions and horses
D) humans and frogs
E) fish and turtles
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Q1) The higher level of metabolic activity typical of nonhibernating temperate mammals during the winter months is due to increased secretion of A) ecdysone.
B) glucagon.
C) thyroxine.
D) oxytocin.
E) growth hormone.
Q2) Which hormone is incorrectly paired with its action?
A) oxytocin-stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth
B) thyroxine-stimulates metabolic processes
C) insulin-stimulates glycogen breakdown in the liver
D) ACTH-stimulates the release of glucocorticoids by the adrenal cortex
E) melatonin-affects biological rhythms, seasonal reproduction
Q3) A chemical signal operating in a paracrine manner is one that A) is active at a neuronal synapse.
B) affects only the cells that synthesize the paracrine signal.
C) requires transport in the blood before it can act on its target cells.
D) evokes responses from all parts of the vascular system.
E) must move through the air before it reaches its target cells.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surgical removal of the seminal vesicles would likely
A) cause sterility because sperm would not be produced.
B) cause sterility because sperm would not be able to exit the body.
C) greatly reduce the volume of semen.
D) enhance the fertilization potency of sperm in the uterus.
E) cause the testes to migrate back into the abdominal cavity.
Q2) Sperm cells are stored within human males in the A) urethra.
B) prostate.
C) epididymis.
D) seminal vesicles.
E) bulbourethral gland.
Q3) Menopause is characterized by
A) reduced synthesis of ovarian steroids despite high levels of gonadotropin hormones.
B) a decline in production of the gonadotropin hormones by the anterior pituitary gland.
C) wearing away of the uterine endometrium.
D) an increase in the blood supply to the ovaries.
E) a halt in the synthesis of gonadotropin-releasing hormone by the brain.
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contact of a sea urchin egg with signal molecules on sperm causes the egg to undergo a brief
A) mitosis.
B) membrane depolarization.
C) apoptosis.
D) vitellogenesis.
E) acrosomal reaction.
Q2) The cortical reaction functions directly in the
A) formation of a fertilization envelope.
B) production of a fast block to polyspermy.
C) release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm cell.
D) generation of a nerve-like impulse by the egg cell.
E) fusion of egg and sperm nuclei.
Q3) The structure of the Drosophila gene called Tinman is similar to a gene in humans that also
A) promotes ear development.
B) specifies the location of the heart.
C) determines structures in the eyes.
D) specifies limb elongation points.
E) filters lymphatic fluid.
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Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling
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Q1) Receptors for neurotransmitters are of primary functional importance in assuring one-way synaptic transmission because they are mostly found on the
A) axonal membrane.
B) axon hillock.
C) dendritic membrane.
D) mitochondrial membrane.
E) presynaptic membrane.
Q2) The membrane's permeability to sodium ions is at its maximum at label
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
E) E.
Q3) A graded hyperpolarization of a membrane can be induced by
A) increasing its membrane's permeability to Na .
B) decreasing its membrane's permeability to H .
C) decreasing its membrane's permeability to Cl .
D) increasing its membrane's permeability to Ca .
E) increasing its membrane's permeability to K .
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Short-term memory information processing usually causes changes in the A) brainstem.
B) medulla.
C) hypothalamus.
D) hippocampus.
E) cranial nerves.
Q2) The regulatory centers for the respiratory and circulatory systems are found in the A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla oblongata.
Q3) Although an exact count is not available, it is likely that the human brain has as many as
A) 10,000 neurons.
B) 500,000 neurons.
C) 1 million neurons.
D) 10 million neurons.
E) 100 billion neurons.
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Q1) The olfactory bulbs are located
A) in the nasal cavity.
B) in the anterior pituitary gland.
C) in the posterior pituitary gland.
D) in the brain.
E) in the brainstem.
Q2) The generation of action potentials in olfactory neurons initiated by odors drawn in the nasal cavity is an example of A) perception.
B) sensory transduction.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) habituation.
E) lateral inhibition.
Q3) Stimuli alter the activity of excitable sensory cells via A) integration.
B) transmission.
C) transduction.
D) transcription.
E) amplification.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Animal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Displays of nocturnal mammals are usually
A) visual and auditory.
B) tactile and visual.
C) olfactory and auditory.
D) visual and olfactory.
E) tactile and auditory.
Q2) You discover a rare new bird species, but you are unable to observe its mating behavior. You see that the male is large and ornamental compared with the female. On this basis, you can probably conclude that the species is
A) polygamous.
B) monogamous.
C) polyandrous.
D) promiscuous.
E) agonistic.
Q3) A mother goat can recognize its own kid by smell.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) Trees are not usually found in the tundra biome because of A) insufficient annual precipitation.
B) acidic soils.
C) extreme winter temperatures.
D) overbrowsing by musk ox and caribou.
E) permafrost.
Q2) In temperate lakes, the surface water is replenished with nutrients during turnovers that occur in the
A) autumn and spring.
B) autumn and winter.
C) spring and summer.
D) summer and winter.
E) summer and autumn.
Q3) Which zone has a condition of constant temperature?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ecological footprint is a construct that is useful
A) for a person living in a developed nation to consider to make better choices when using global food and energy resources.
B) for a person living in a developing country to see how much of the world's resources are left for him/her.
C) in converting human foods' meat biomass to plant biomass.
D) in making predictions about the global carrying capacity of humans.
E) in determining which nations produce the least amount of carbon dioxide from the burning of fossil fuels.
Q2) A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.02. Calculate an estimate of the number of individuals added to (or lost from)a population of 1,000 individuals in one year.
A) 120 individuals added
B) 40 individuals added
C) 20 individuals added
D) 400 individuals added
E) 20 individuals lost
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Q1) Prairie dogs once covered the expanses of the Great Plains. Their grazing made the grass more nutritious for the huge herds of bison, and they were preyed upon by a variety of snakes, raptors, and mammals. In fact, the black-footed ferret (now endangered)specialized in prairie dog predation. Today, increases in housing and agricultural developments have eradicated many prairie dog towns. Which of the following statements about prairie dogs is true?
A) Their realized niche has expanded.
B) They have a competitive relationship with bison.
C) They are probably a poor candidate for keystone species.
D) Their fundamental niche has been compromised.
E) Their fundamental niche has expanded.
Q2) According to the nonequilibrium model,
A) communities will remain in a climax state if there are no human disturbances.
B) community structure remains stable in the absence of interspecific competition.
C) communities are assemblages of closely linked species that are irreparably changed by disturbance.
D) interspecific interactions induce changes in community composition over time.
E) communities are constantly changing after being influenced by disturbances.
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Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Q1) The amount of chemical energy in consumers' food that is converted to their own new biomass during a given time period is known as which of the following?
A) biomass
B) standing crop
C) biomagnification
D) primary production
E) secondary production
Q2) How does phosphorus normally enter ecosystems?
A) cellular respiration
B) photosynthesis
C) rock weathering
D) vulcanism
E) atmospheric phosphorous gas
Q3) In a typical grassland community, which of the following is the primary consumer?
A) hawk
B) snake
C) shrew
D) grasshopper
E) grass
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the U.S. Endangered Species Act (ESA), the difference between an endangered species and a threatened one is that
A) an endangered species is closer to extinction.
B) a threatened species is closer to extinction.
C) threatened species are endangered species outside the U.S. borders.
D) endangered species are mainly tropical.
E) only endangered species are vertebrates.
Q2) The most serious consequence of a decrease in global biodiversity would be the A) increase in global warming and thinning of the ozone layer.
B) potential loss of ecosystem services on which people depend.
C) increase in the abundance and diversity of edge-adapted species.
D) loss of source of genetic diversity to preserve endangered species.
E) loss of species for "bioprospecting."
Q3) Which of the following ecological locations has the greatest species diversity?
A) tundra
B) deciduous forests
C) tropics
D) grasslands
E) islands
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Page 58