Principles of Biology Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology is an introductory course that explores the fundamental concepts and processes underlying life on Earth. The course covers topics such as the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, energy flow in biological systems, and the diversity of living organisms. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, critical thinking, and the application of biological principles to real-world situations. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory experiments, and discussions, students gain a solid foundation in the biological sciences, preparing them for more advanced study in related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology Concepts and Connections 8th Edition by Jane B. Reece
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Chapter 1: Biology: Exploring Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) This study was focused on which level of life's hierarchy?
A)organism
B)community
C)population
D)ecosystem
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following best describes the data that the scientists should collect and how they should be compared?
A)comparison of plant species in the recontoured area, the abandoned area, and the never-roaded area
B)comparison of properties of soil and plant species in the contoured area and abandoned area
C)comparison of soil properties and species of plants present in the contoured area with the never-roaded area and of the abandoned area with the never-roaded area.
D)comparison of soil properties only among all three areas since soil properties will determine plant species
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pharmaceutical company hires a chemist to analyze the purity of the water being used in its drug preparations. If the water is pure, the chemist would expect to find
A)only molecules of H O.
B)H O molecules and H ions.
C)H O molecules, H ions, and OH ions.
D)only H ions and OH ions.
Answer: C
Q2) The four most common elements in living organisms are
A)C, H, O, Fe.
B)C, H, O, Na.
C)C, H, O, N.
D)C, N, O, Na.
Answer: C
Q3) In ocean acidification, dissolving CO gas ________ the pH of the ocean. A)lowers
B)does not affect C)raises
D)triples
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Molecules of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding nucleotides is false?
A)Nucleotides contain lipids.
B)Nucleotides contain sugar molecules.
C)Nucleotides can be linked together to form nucleic acids.
D)Nucleotides contain nitrogenous bases.
Answer: A
Q2) How are genes used by cells to build proteins?
A)The genes in DNA direct the synthesis of an RNA molecule, which is used to build a protein.
B)The genes in RNA direct the synthesis of a DNA molecule, which is used to build a protein.
C)DNA is transcribed into an amino acid sequence.
D)The genes in RNA direct the synthesis of proteins directly.
Answer: A
Q3) The storage form of carbohydrates is ________ in animals and ________ in plants.
A)starch; glycogen
B)glycogen; starch
C)cellulose; glycogen
D)glycogen; cellulose
Answer: B
Page 5
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Chapter 4: A Tour of the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) The oil from the sebaceous glands is produced by which of the following cell organelles?
A)ribosomes
B)rough endoplasmic reticulum
C)cell membrane
D)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Q2) Most of the protein measured in the cells was likely synthesized by A)mitochondria.
B)nucleolus.
C)smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
D)ribosomes.
Q3) Which of the following can be concluded from the graph?
A)There are three times as many cells in G as there are in G .
B)Cells in S have 30% more protein than cells in G .
C)Cells in G have three times as much protein as cells in G .
D)The same proteins are present at each stage but are present in different amounts.
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6
Chapter 5: The Working Cell
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Q1) A steer must eat at least 100 pounds of grain to gain less than 10 pounds of muscle tissue. This illustrates
A)the first law of thermodynamics.
B)the second law of thermodynamics.
C)that some energy is destroyed in every energy conversion.
D)that energy transformations are typically 100% efficient.
Q2) If placed in tap water, an animal cell will undergo lysis, whereas a plant cell will not. What accounts for this difference?
A)the expulsion of water by the plant cell's central vacuole
B)the relative impermeability of the plant cell wall to water
C)the fact that plant cells are isotonic to tap water
D)the relative inelasticity and strength of the plant cell wall
Q3) Which of the following is a coenzyme?
A)zinc
B)vitamin B
C)iron
D)iodine
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Chapter 6: How Cells Harvest Chemical Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The overall equation for the cellular respiration of glucose is
A)C H O + 6 O 5 CO + 6 H O + energy.
B)5 CO + 6 H O C H O + 6 O + energy.
C)C H O + 6 O 6 CO + 6 H O + energy.
D)C H O + energy 6 CO + 6 H O + 6 O .
Q2) You predict that a side effect of Fat Away will be
A)increased production of NADH.
B)increased production of pyruvate.
C)increased production of lactate.
D)increased body temperature.
Q3) During redox reactions,
A)the loss of electrons from one substance is called reduction.
B)a substance that gains electrons is said to be oxidized.
C)electrons are lost from one substance and added to another substance.
D)protons from one molecule replace the electrons lost from another molecule.
Q4) By-products of cellular respiration include
A)oxygen and heat.
B)carbon dioxide and water.
C)FADH and NADH.
D)NADH and ATP.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a photoautotroph?
A)algae in freshwater and marine ecosystems
B)grizzly bears in Alaska
C)bacteria in our mouth
D)mushrooms growing on the side of a dead tree
Q2) Which of the following is a normal process of photosynthesis that could not occur if all reaction centers were inactivated by a toxin?
A)donation of excited electrons by chlorophyll a to a primary electron acceptor
B)donation of excited electrons by chlorophyll b to a primary electron acceptor
C)absorption of photons by chlorophyll b
D)absorption of photons by carotenoids
Q3) The energy that excites the photosystems is supplied by
A)electrons passing down the electron transport chain.
B)ATP.
C)photons.
D)NADPH.
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Chapter 8: The Cellular Basis of Reproduction and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelope re-form?
A)anaphase
B)metaphase
C)prophase
D)telophase
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is false?
A)Meiosis only occurs in the ovaries and testes.
B)All sexual life cycles involve an alternation of diploid and haploid stages.
C)Mitosis produces daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
D)A normal human zygote has 46 chromosomes.
Q3) You are asked to culture an unidentified sample of animal tissue. You notice that the cells seem to fail to exhibit density-dependent inhibition. The source of this tissue sample is most likely
A)a cancerous tumor.
B)skin from a human.
C)a liver from a cow.
D)the sperm-producing tissue of the testis.
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The alleles of a gene are found at ________ chromosomes.
A)the same locus on nonhomologous
B)different loci on homologous
C)different loci on nonhomologous
D)the same locus on homologous
Q2) The phenotypic ratio resulting from a dihybrid cross of two heterozygote individuals showing independent assortment is expected to be
A)1:2:1
B)3:1
C)9:1:1:3
D)9:3:3:1
Q3) In regard to the baby's colorblindness, a sex-linked recessive trait, you explain that A)colorblindness often appears randomly, even if neither parent is colorblind.
B)the baby's father must have a recessive allele for colorblindness.
C)since colorblindness is sex-linked, a son can inherit colorblindness if his mother has the recessive colorblindness allele.
D)the eggs must have been accidentally switched, since males inherit sex-linked traits only from their fathers.
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Chapter 10: Molecular Biology of the Gene
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA replication
A)occurs through the addition of nucleotides to the end of the parental DNA molecule.
B)results in the formation of four new DNA strands.
C)uses each strand of a DNA molecule as a template for the creation of a new strand.
D)begins when two DNA molecules join together to exchange segments.
Q2) The envelope of a mumps virus
A)helps the virus enter the cell.
B)is coded by host genes.
C)helps the virus insert its DNA into the host cell genome.
D)accounts for viral resistance to antibiotics.
Q3) Consider the following sentence: "The dog did not eat." Which of the following variations of this sentence is most like a frameshift mutation?
A)The did dog not eat.
B)The dod idn ote at.
C)The did not eat.
D)The dog did dog did not eat.
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12
Chapter 11: How Genes Are Controlled
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Sample Questions
Q1) The development of colon cancer occurs slowly, and colon cancer is more frequently seen in the elderly than the young. This is most likely because
A)cancer cells don't have mitochondria, so they grow slowly.
B)usually six or more somatic mutations must occur to give rise to the cancer, which takes time.
C)cancer cells have to wait until new blood vessels grow into the area, which takes much time.
D)most cancer mutations interfere with mitosis, so cell division occurs more slowly.
Q2) Mutations in the proto-oncogene ras and the tumor suppressor gene p53
A)increase protein synthesis by the cell.
B)can improve the chance of avoiding cancer as one ages.
C)can enhance further mutations, which can develop into cancer.
D)disrupt normal regulation of the cell cycle.
Q3) A gene operon consists of
A)a transcribed gene only.
B)a promoter only.
C)a regulatory gene only.
D)transcribed genes, an operator, and a promoter.
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Chapter 12: DNA Technology and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cDNA library differs from a genomic library in that A)the cDNA was constructed from introns only.
B)genomic libraries are only stored in bacterial cells.
C)cDNA libraries are more stable.
D)cDNA libraries only contain information from genes that have been transcribed.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding DNA is false?
A)Long stretches of repetitive DNA are prominent at centromeres and ends of chromosomes.
B)Human and E. coli genomes contain approximately the same proportions of noncoding DNA.
C)Current estimates are that there about 21,000 genes in the human genome.
D)Telomeres seem to have a structural function.
Q3) Golden Rice is golden in color because it is rich in
A)vitamin A.
B)vitamin C.
C)beta-carotene.
D)chromium picolinate.
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14
Chapter 13: How Populations Evolve
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Sample Questions
Q1) Imagine that you are studying a very large population of moths that is isolated from gene flow. A single gene controls wing color. Half of the moths have white-spotted wings (genotype WW or Ww)and half of the moths have plain brown wings (ww). There are no new mutations, individuals mate randomly, and there is no natural selection on wing color. How will p, the frequency of the dominant allele, change over time?
A)p will increase; the dominant allele will eventually take over and become most common in the population.
B)p will neither increase nor decrease; it will remain more or less constant under the conditions described.
C)p will decrease because of genetic drift.
D)p will fluctuate rapidly and randomly because of genetic drift.
Q2) Which of the following would most quickly be eliminated by natural selection?
A)a harmful allele in an asexual, haploid population
B)a harmful recessive allele in a sexual, diploid population
C)a harmful recessive allele in a sexual, polyploid population
D)any harmful allele, regardless of the system of inheritance in a population
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Chapter 14: The Origin of Species
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the type of speciation event that is occurring in these whales?
A)sympatric speciation
B)allopatric speciation
C)geographic speciation
D)polyploid speciation
Q2) Most polyploid species arise from
A)a single diploid parent plant.
B)a single triploid parent plant.
C)a single tetraploid parent plant.
D)the hybridization of two parent species.
Q3) The Monterey pine and the Bishop's pine inhabit some of the same areas of central California. The Monterey pine releases pollen in February, while the Bishop's pine does so in April. This is an example of ________ isolation.
A)postzygotic
B)temporal
C)habitat
D)mechanical
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Chapter 15: Tracing Evolutionary History
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Sample Questions
Q1) What was the probable role of oxygen gas in the early stages of life's appearance on Earth?
A)Cellular respiration, which depends on oxygen availability, provided abundant energy to the first life-forms.
B)Oxygen promoted the formation of complex organic molecules through physical processes.
C)Oxygen gas tends to disrupt organic molecules, so its absence promoted the formation and stability of complex organic molecules on the early Earth.
D)Abundant atmospheric oxygen would have created an ozone layer, which blocked out ultraviolet light and thereby protected the earliest life-forms.
Q2) The existence of nest-building in crocodiles and birds led to a prediction that this behavior was also present in ________.
A)fossil lizards
B)Komodo dragons
C)fossil dinosaurs
D)invertebrates
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Chapter 16: Microbial Life: Prokaryotes and Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms was the first to introduce oxygen into Earth's atmosphere?
A)cyanobacteria
B)early protozoans
C)plants
D)green algae
Q2) Someone diagnosed with meningitis has inflamed membranes that cover and protect the brain and spinal cord. Meningitis is a result of pathogenic gram-negative bacteria that cause extreme infections when their bacterial cell wall dies and lipopolysaccharide (a lipid and polysaccharide)is released. The lipopolysaccharide is an example of a/an A)endotoxin.
B)exotoxin.
C)stomach microbiota.
D)parasite.
Q3) The term for a close association between organisms of two or more species is A)symbiosis.
B)interdependence.
C)associative living.
D)colonialism.
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Chapter 17: The Evolution of Plant and Fungal Diversity
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Q1) The ________ represents the sporophyte generation of a conifer, and the ________ produces gametophytes.
A)cone; tree
B)tree; cone
C)tree; pollen
D)seed; tree
Q2) Red maples and other wind-pollinated plants invest relatively little in producing ________ but must invest a great deal in producing ________ to achieve good pollination rates.
A)floral scents; showy petals
B)showy or scented flowers; massive amounts of pollen
C)pollen; showy or scented flowers
D)seeds; massive amounts of pollen
Q3) Mosses belong to the group of plants known as the A)angiosperms.
B)gymnosperms.
C)bryophytes.
D)vascular plants.
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Chapter 18: The Evolution of Invertebrate Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding cnidarians is true?
A)Cnidarians have three true tissue layers.
B)The digestive and circulatory compartment of cnidarians is called the gastrovascular cavity.
C)The more stationary cnidarian body form, which is cylindrical with a ring of tentacles, is the medusa.
D)Cnidarians are herbivores and can be destructive grazers on seaweeds.
Q2) A bilaterally symmetrical, wormlike animal that has a complete digestive tract and a cuticle could be a member of which of the following phyla?
A)Cnidaria
B)Annelida
C)Nematoda
D)Chordata
Q3) All animals
A)are prokaryotic.
B)are heterotrophic.
C)have cell walls made of chitin.
D)obtain food by absorption.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: The Evolution of Vertebrate Diversity
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Q1) Natural populations of lemurs are found in A)Borneo.
B)North Africa.
C)New Zealand.
D)Madagascar.
Q2) The earliest hominin to be found outside of Africa belongs to which species?
A)Australopithecus afarensis
B)Homo habilis
C)Homo erectus
D)Homo sapiens
Q3) ________ appears to have been the first hominin to use stone tools.
A)Homo erectus
B)Homo habilis
C)Ardipithecus
D)Australopithecus
Q4) Which of the following organisms is a marsupial?
A)echidna
B)kangaroo
C)whale
D)zebra
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Unifying Concepts of Animal Structure and Function
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Q1) Which type of tissue forms a communication and coordination system within the body?
A)nervous
B)epithelial
C)connective
D)muscle
Q2) Connective tissue is different from the other major tissue types in that
A)it is made of cells.
B)the cells are sparsely scattered through a nonliving matrix.
C)it is not made of cells.
D)it is found only in humans.
Q3) Homeostasis
A)is the maintenance of a relatively constant internal state.
B)results from hormone imbalance.
C)occurs when the external environment changes to match the internal environment
D)is the way the internal environment influences the external environment.
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22
Chapter 21: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) Bile produced in the liver is stored in the ________ before entering the intestine.
A)pancreas
B)blood
C)gallbladder
D)common bile duct
Q2) Lack of exercise and activity can be one of several reasons a person might become constipated, or be unable to have regular bowel movements. Which of the four stages of food processing is directly affected in this situation?
A)ingestion
B)digestion
C)absorption
D)elimination
Q3) Which of the following mechanisms helps keep the stomach lining in place despite the destructive force of gastric juice?
A)digestion of protein by pepsin
B)secretion of acid-neutralizing compounds
C)generation through mitosis of new cells to replace the stomach lining
D)protection of the cells of the stomach-lining by parietal cells
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23
Chapter 22: Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) For this data set, how much air is exhaled during a normal breath?
A)500 mL
B)1,200 mL
C)2,300 mL
D)2,800 mL
Q2) Cigarette smoke can affect the white blood cells that reside in our lungs, whose function is to
A)prevent emphysema.
B)engulf foreign particles.
C)enhance oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange.
D)maintain appropriate pH and moisture levels within the lungs.
Q3) Inhalation in humans is achieved by
A)contraction of muscles in the lungs.
B)relaxation of muscles in the lungs.
C)relaxation of the diaphragm and chest muscles.
D)contraction of the diaphragm and chest muscles.
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24
Chapter 23: Circulation
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Q1) During ventricular systole, the ________ valves ________.
A)AV; open
B)semilunar; close
C)semilunar; open
D)AV and semilunar; close
Q2) At what point on the diagram does the aortic valve (the semilunar valve that separates the left ventricle and the aorta)open?
A)point A
B)point B
C)point C
D)point D
Q3) In mammals, which of the following vessels transports oxygenated blood from the lung back to the heart?
A)pulmonary artery
B)pulmonary vein
C)vena cava
D)coronary artery
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Chapter 24: the Immune System
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Q1) The secondary immune response occurs when memory cells are activated by a second exposure to A)hormones.
B)antibodies.
C)antigens.
D)plasma cells.
Q2) Enzymes are to active sites as
A)antigenic binding sites are to antigenic determinants.
B)viruses are to antigens.
C)antigens are to epitopes.
D)antigenic determinants are to epitopes.
Q3) Which of the following distinguishes the secondary immune response from the primary immune response?
A)The primary response is specific; the secondary one is not.
B)The secondary response is faster and stronger.
C)The primary response involves B cells; the secondary one involves T cells.
D)The secondary response allows additional antigens to be recognized faster.
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Chapter 25: Control of Body Temperature and Water Balance
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Q1) Which of the following options correctly lists the order of the four main processes that occur in the urinary system?
A)filtration, excretion, reabsorption, secretion
B)excretion, filtration, reabsorption, secretion
C)filtration, reabsorption and secretion occurring simultaneously, excretion
D)reabsorption and secretion occurring simultaneously, excretion, filtration
Q2) The common waste product in bears (mammals)is ________, while most saltwater fish get rid of wastes through ________.
A)ammonia; urea
B)uric acid; urea
C)urea; ammonia
D)ammonia; uric acid
Q3) The dialyzing solution used during kidney dialysis functions much like a fluid associated with a nephron. What is the fluid?
A)interstitial fluid
B)the filtrate in the proximal tubule
C)the filtrate in the loop of Henle
D)the filtrate in the distal tubule
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Chapter 26: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Q1) Which of the following is a function of epinephrine?
A)release of glucose from the liver
B)decreased heart rate
C)decreased metabolic rate
D)increased digestive activities
Q2) Which of the following statements about steroid hormones is true?
A)Steroid hormones cause the production of cAMP.
B)Steroid hormones are polar molecules that cannot pass through the cell membrane.
C)Steroid hormones bind to receptors in the plasma membrane.
D)Steroid hormones bind to specific receptor proteins, and the complex acts as a gene activator.
Q3) Neurosecretory cells
A)coordinate the body's responses to stimuli such as dehydration, low blood glucose level, and stress.
B)are restricted to the endocrine system.
C)participate in the nervous and endocrine systems.
D)produce hormones that will regulate nontarget cells.
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Chapter 27: Reproduction and Embryonic Development
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Q1) The function of a sperm cell's acrosome is to
A)carry the sperm's nucleus.
B)fuse with the jelly coat of the egg cell.
C)carry enzymes that help the sperm penetrate the egg.
D)carry the fuel that powers the sperm.
Q2) Which of the following events occurs first during embryonic development?
A)gastrulation
B)neurulation
C)cleavage
D)organ formation
Q3) At which gestational age does a developing human fetus first look obviously human and not like other vertebrate embryos?
A)2 weeks
B)4 weeks
C)9 weeks
D)4 months
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Chapter 28: Nervous Systems
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Q1) Low levels of the neurotransmitter dopamine can lessen the ability to focus effectively on tasks. However, high levels of dopamine can result in feelings of motivation. How would you classify dopamine and why?
A)Dopamine is excitatory because it enhances motivation levels.
B)Dopamine is inhibitory because it diminishes the ability to focus.
C)Dopamine is both inhibitory and excitatory because it can enhance motivation levels but diminish the ability to focus.
D)There is not enough information given to answer the question.
Q2) Our biological clock, which regulates the sleep-wake cycle, is housed within the A)cerebrum.
B)hypothalamus.
C)cerebellum.
D)brainstem.
Q3) One neurotransmitter associated with sleep, mood, attention, and learning is A)acetylcholine.
B)nitric oxide.
C)epinephrine.
D)serotonin.
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Chapter 29: the Senses
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Q1) Which of the following structures is involved in the human sense of balance?
A)the outer ear
B)the oval window
C)the utricle
D)the basilar membrane
Q2) Mechanoreceptors (touch and pressure)are not evenly spaced on your body. What is an advantage of having mechanoreceptors located farther apart?
A)allows often used parts of the human body to feel pressure more severely than areas where mechanoreceptors are closer together
B)allows often used parts of the human body to feel pressure less severely than areas where mechanoreceptors are closer together
C)allows for greater dendrite regeneration after the body has experienced excessive pressure
D)allows for a thicker epidermis than in areas where mechanoreceptors are closer together
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Chapter 30: How Animals Move
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Q1) To repair and heal a broken bone, physicians will
A)graft new bone to the region.
B)exercise the area of the broken bone.
C)prescribe a regime of bed rest and calcium supplements.
D)return the broken bone parts to their natural position and then immobilize them.
Q2) An important function of the bones in the skeleton is to
A)provide a source of ATP.
B)generate hormones.
C)add weight.
D)support the body.
Q3) Which of the following animals has an endoskeleton made entirely of cartilage?
A)bullfrog
B)mackerel
C)nurse shark
D)robin
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Chapter 31: Plant Structure, Growth, and Reproduction
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Q1) The cells that store starch in dicot roots are located between the
A)xylem and the phloem.
B)epidermis and the root hairs.
C)epidermis and the vascular cylinder.
D)epidermis and the cortex.
Q2) While cleaning out the attic, you find a packet of seeds that your grandmother gathered from her garden. You plant them outside, and some of them sprout. What was the condition of these germinating seeds while they were in the attic?
A)The endosperm cells were dead; the embryo cells were alive but inactive.
B)They were dead, but the embryo cells revived in response to water.
C)They were alive and very metabolically active.
D)They were alive but dormant.
Q3) Which of the following plant parts commonly contributes to asexual reproduction?
A)seeds
B)roots
C)flowers
D)fruits
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Chapter 32: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) A hot, dry summer will reduce crop yields in part because
A)the stomata of the plants stay open to help cool the leaves.
B)carbon dioxide uptake is reduced by the stomata closing to prevent excessive water loss.
C)oxygen uptake is reduced by the stomata closing to prevent excessive water loss.
D)carbon dioxide release is reduced by the stomata closing to prevent excessive water loss.
Q2) Nitrogen fixation consists of
A)the conversion of ammonia to nitrate.
B)the production of ammonium from decomposing organic matter.
C)the conversion of N to ammonia.
D)the conversion of N to ammonia or nitrate.
Q3) Which of the following correctly lists the sequence of structures through which water passes into a root?
A)guard cell, endodermis, cortex, xylem
B)root hair, cortex, xylem, endodermis
C)epidermis, cortex, endodermis, xylem
D)root hair, xylem, endodermis, phloem
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Chapter 33: Control Systems in Plants
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Q1) The event that triggers fruit formation is the growth of a pollen tube through the carpel of a flower. Which of the following is a reasonable hypothesis about the basis of this effect?
A)Pollen tubes grow in response to a cytokinin produced by the carpel.
B)Pollen tubes grow in response to abscisic acid.
C)The growing pollen tube produces ethylene.
D)The growing pollen tube produces auxins and/or gibberellins.
Q2) In many grocery stores, fresh fruits are sold in plastic bags dotted with holes so that they will not overripen. The main function of the holes is to
A)permit the fruit to drain after being washed.
B)facilitate diffusion of ethylene away from the fruit.
C)prevent buildup of CO .
D)facilitate diffusion of O to the fruit.
Q3) Synthetic auxins are used commercially
A)to promote seed germination.
B)to promote flowering in ornamental crops.
C)to promote side branching to produce bushier crops.
D)as a broadleaf weed killer.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: the Biosphere: an Introduction to Earths
Diverse Environments
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Q1) Which of the following statements about biomes, the major terrestrial ecosystems covering the Earth, is true?
A)Each of the 10 major biomes is restricted to just one or two continents.
B)The major factors affecting the distribution of biomes are wind and sunlight.
C)Most natural biomes are unaffected by human activity.
D)Fire is very important in some biomes.
Q2) If you travel through Ecuador from west to east, you will pass through tundra, taiga, temperate forest, and tropical forest. Which of the following climatic factors remains constant on such a trip?
A)maximum temperature
B)average rainfall
C)soil type
D)day length
Q3) Species in widely separated but similar biomes often appear to display similar characteristics because of
A)convergent evolution.
B)coevolution.
C)mutations.
D)evolutionary drift.
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Behavioral Adaptations to the Environment
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Q1) Part B indicates that
A)atrazine is an endocrine disrupter.
B)trazine-treated males are more successful in mating than nontreated males.
C)there were fewer atrazine-treated males than nontreated males.
D)atrazine males are unable to mate.
Q2) The certainty of paternity is greatest in organisms that A)are promiscuous.
B)have extensive parental care.
C)use internal fertilization.
D)mate and lay eggs at the same time.
Q3) Organisms that are nocturnal are more likely to communicate using A)sight and sound.
B)sight and smell.
C)smell and sound.
D)touch and taste.
Q4) A grayling butterfly will normally fly toward the sun. This is an example of A)kinesis.
B)migration.
C)phototropism. D)taxis.
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Chapter 36: Population Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following is most clearly a case of density-dependent population regulation?
A)the summer drying of savanna grass for an insect that feeds on grass sap
B)a dangerous new flu strain that is transmitted among humans by sneezing
C)the first hard frost of fall for a population of annual morning glory vines
D)the occurrence of rainstorms for an opportunistic desert annual
Q2) A demographic tool used to predict a population's future growth is
A)a Type III survivorship curve.
B)a demographic transition.
C)age structures.
D)a Type I survivorship curve.
Q3) A test tube is inoculated with 1 × 10³ cells of a bacterial strain that has a generation time of 30 minutes. The carrying capacity of the test tube for this strain is 6 × 10 cells. What will the bacterial population be after 90 minutes of culturing?
A)3 × 10³
B)8 × 10³
C)1 × 10
D)6 × 10
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Chapter 37: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) What are the consequences if decomposers are removed from the carbon cycle?
A)Fewer carbon compounds are broken down; therefore, less CO is released into the atmosphere.
B)Loss of decomposers causes an increase in CO levels in the atmosphere.
C)Primary consumers are not able to consume as many producers.
D)An increase in the burning of wood and fossil fuels will occur.
Q2) In your backyard you overturn a large rock. In the damp soil underneath the rock, you see various insects scurrying for cover: two black beetles, five black ants, two brown beetles, and three pillbugs. In this community of organisms, relative abundance favors A)pillbugs.
B)ants.
C)beetles.
D)pillbugs and beetles equally.
Q3) Organisms that digest molecules in organic material and convert them into inorganic forms are
A)primary consumers.
B)decomposers.
C)primary producers.
D)detritivores.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Conservation Biology
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Q1) You spray your lawn with a pesticide. The concentration of the pesticide in the tissues of the grass on your lawn is 10 parts per million (ppm). Grasshoppers eat the grass and are in turn eaten by rats, which are then eaten by owls. At each successive trophic level, the concentration of pesticides increases. The term for this process is
A)extirpation.
B)biological magnification.
C)habitat loss.
D)climate change.
Q2) Biodiversity considers
A)the genetic diversity within and between populations of a species.
B)the fate of water in the ecosystem.
C)commensal relationships between species.
D)the relationships of individuals to a food chain.
Q3) If wolves were now removed from Yellowstone National Park, A)elk populations would increase.
B)deer populations would decrease.
C)the vegetation would remain unchanged.
D)vegetation would increase, providing shelter for smaller animals.
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