Course Introduction
Principles of Biology Exam Preparation Guide
Principles of Biology offers a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts of biological science, covering topics such as the structure and function of cells, genetic inheritance, evolution, biodiversity, and ecosystems. Students will explore the molecular basis of life, the processes that govern energy flow and metabolism, as well as the mechanisms of reproduction and development. The course emphasizes scientific inquiry, critical thinking, and the connection between biology and real-world issues, providing a solid foundation for advanced study in the life sciences.
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Discover Biology Core Topics 5th Edition by Anu Singh Cundy
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an experiment?
A)reading a blood pressure gauge
B)examining an X-ray
C)taking prescription medicine
D)making a medical diagnosis
Answer: C
Q2) All animals have the capacity to sense and respond to their environment; humans, for example,
A)can see better than any other animal.
B)can hear better than any other animal.
C)have a better sense of smell than any other animal.
D)although not the fastest or strongest animal, have a set of sensory adaptations that are entirely compatible with human biology and environment.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Producers obtain their energy from other organisms.
B)Producers represent the final energy transfer in a food chain or web.
C)Consumers obtain their energy from other organisms.
D)Consumers represent the initial energy transfer in a food chain or web.
Answer: C
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) The broadest classification category currently used by most biologists is the domain. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) When success is defined as the greatest number of living individuals, Earth's most successful inhabitants are the
A)vertebrates and birds.
B)fungi and animals.
C)bacteria and archaea.
D)plants and animals.
Answer: C
Q3) The group with the greatest diversity in the strategies used to obtain carbon and energy is the A)Fungi.
B)Animalia.
C)prokaryotes.
D)Plantae.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) Although exceptions exist, reproduction in most eukaryotes involves
A)two individuals combining DNA during the formation of a new organism.
B)one individual dividing to make two identical organisms.
C)two individuals fusing to form one organism.
D)the cells of an individual dividing.
Answer: A
Q2) Despite their classification as protists the evolutionary tree suggests that choanoflagellates and the algae are more closely related to animals and plants, respectively, than one another.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Xylem is specialized for transporting water and dissolved nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Fungi contribute to several important ecosystem services; among the most important is ____________________ organic matter.
Answer: recycling
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Chapter 4: Animalia
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Q1) The vertebrates are grouped into a lineage because all members possess an internal ____________________.
Q2) Although adult echinoderms display radial symmetry, they are not considered to be closely related to the cnidarians and ctenophores.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sharks and the ray-finned fishes differ in several ways; the most significant difference is the composition of the skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ctenophores can be distinguished from cnidarians by the presence of a complete digestive system.
A)True B)False
Q5) In addition to embryonic similarities the chordates and echinoderms also each possess a hollow nerve cord located on the ____________________ side of the body.
Q6) Endoderm forms the ____________________ layer of an animal embryo.
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Chapter 5: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) An atom that becomes charged due to the gain or loss of an electron is called a(n)____________________.
Q2) Radioisotopes are useful in scientific research and medicine because they A)have a different number of protons than other isotopes of the same element.
B)give off high-energy radiation that can be detected by film and specialized scanning machines.
C)have the same atomic mass as other isotopes of the same element.
D)all of the above
Q3) The predominant atom in living systems is ____________________.
Q4) ____________________ molecules are nonpolar molecules that are repelled by water.
Q5) Chemists often represent the structure of atoms using p, n, and e to indicate the numbers of protons, neutrons, and electrons; which atom would have an atomic weight of 30?
A)10 p, 10 n, 10 e
B)15 p, 15 n, 15 e
C)15 p, 0 n, 15 e
D)0 p, 15 n, 15 e
Q6) Most lipids contain one or more of the long, hydrophobic hydrocarbon chains known as ____________________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) Advancement in biology was hindered by the concept of spontaneous generation, the belief that nonliving objects could spontaneously come to life. What aspect of the cell theory specifically refutes this idea?
A)Every living organism is composed of one or more cells.
B)All living cells come from preexisting cells.
C)Cells are the smallest unit of life possible on Earth.
D)The components of a cell do not individually retain the distinctive characteristics of life.
Q2) Which of the following would you find in the cells that produce the mucus that lines the nasal cavities?
A)vesicles
B)grana
C)flagella
D)thylakoids
Q3) Molecules of _____ are consumed by mitochondria during cellular respiration.
A)O
B)CO
C)H O
D)NO
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) Ingested protein is always degraded to amino acids before absorption in the mature human small intestine, but nursing infants can absorb intact antibodies (large protein molecules)from breast milk. How might this difference in intestinal function be explained?
A)The tight junctions that prevent molecules from creeping through the epithelial lining of the small intestine are not yet fully developed in infants.
B)The anchoring junctions that interlock adjacent cells can be selectively activated or disabled in infants to permit the selective passage of specific substances.
C)Infants have gap junctions that open to the lumen of the small intestine and admit appropriately sized proteins.
D)Any of the above is a reasonable explanation.
Q2) After entering its target cell, a hydrophobic hormone binds to its intracellular receptor and interacts with the cell's DNA, resulting in the production of a specific
Q3) Cells that experience high mechanical stress, like heart cells, typically connect to one another using a(n)____________________ junction, allowing the stress to be distributed to a larger area.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) When ATP breaks down into ADP and a phosphate group,
A)energy is absorbed by ADP and transferred to enzymes.
B)energy is released and can power cellular activities.
C)ADP becomes the active site in an enzyme.
D)the energy in the broken bond is transferred to the phosphate group.
Q2) A spherical rock rests at the top of a steep hill. The rock has
A)potential energy.
B)chemical energy.
C)kinetic energy.
D)no energy.
Q3) The second law of thermodynamics states that A)metabolic reactions must be balanced.
B)the flow of energy connects living things to their environments.
C)energy can be created but not destroyed.
D)systems tend to become more disorderly.
Q4) According to the ____________________ model, the active site of an enzyme adjusts its shape to mold around a substrate after binding.
Q5) Enzymes can make otherwise impossible reactions happen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) During alcoholic fermentation, pyruvate is converted to ethanol in order to A)increase the efficiency of cellular respiration by producing additional molecules of ATP.
B)release O<sub>2</sub> as a by-product so that cellular respiration can continue.
C)create lactic acid to stimulate muscle contraction.
D)recycle NADH back into NAD+ so that the cell can continue glycolysis.
Q2) Stomata admit CO but also facilitate the loss of water; plants must regulate their stomata carefully or risk dehydration. A reasonable hypothesis associated with the global increase in atmospheric CO is that plants will
A)evolve lower stomatal densities and reduce the potential for desiccation.
B)grow larger and more rapidly than they presently do.
C)keep their stomata closed most of the time to minimize carbon dioxide poisoning.
D)increase stomatal densities to take advantage of the abundance of CO<sub>2</sub>.
Q3) ____________________ reactions break down and gradually oxidize food molecules to produce energy.
Q4) The innermost membrane in a chloroplast is the ____________________ membrane.
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11
Chapter 10: Cell Division
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Q1) The attachment of microtubules to the centromeres of chromosomes during ____________________ of mitosis sets the stage for the positioning of the chromosomes at the metaphase plate.
Q2) The parthenogenetic whiptail lizards of the desert Southwest create no new genetic combinations during crossing-over, like other animals, because A)all the crosses are double, eventually restoring each chromosome to its original condition.
B)they possess no homologous chromosomes; crossing-over in this species occurs between genetically identical sister chromatids.
C)parthenogenetic species forgo meiosis I, when crossing-over normally occurs.
D)accumulated mutation within the species has modified the centromeres, disrupted the formation of a bivalent, and prevented crossing-over from taking place.
Q3) During the S phase, the cell
A)duplicates its DNA.
B)grows in size to prepare for DNA synthesis.
C)completes its preparation for mitosis.
D)rests between divisions.
Q4) Chromosomes become visible during the ____________________ stage of mitosis.
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Chapter 11: Stem Cells, Cancer, and Human Health
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Q1) A woman who has already had children develops skin cancer from overexposure to the sun. Is it possible for her children to have inherited this cancer from her?
A)No, because only mutations that occur in gametes can be passed on to the next generation.
B)No, because any cancer that develops after a person is an adult cannot have a genetic component.
C)Yes, because almost all cancers are caused by genetic factors.
D)Yes, because the woman's children have exactly the same genome as their mother does.
Q2) In the 1960s, biologists successfully manipulated a cell from the leaf of a carrot to grow to become a fully complete carrot plant. What term best describes the growth potential of that manipulated cell?
A)totipotent
B)pleuripotent
C)unipotent
D)multipotent
Q3) A ____________________ is a segment of DNA that encodes for a distinct inherited characteristic.
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Chapter 12: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) The individuals Mendel observed in the F generations were always A)homozygous recessive. B)homozygous dominant. C)heterozygous. D)codominant.
Q2) Most genes contain instructions for building A)carbohydrates. B)steroids. C)proteins. D)lipids.
Q3) There are no known exceptions to Mendel's law of independent assortment. A)True B)False
Q4) Experiments involving small numbers of offspring give more reliable results than experiments observing large numbers of offspring. A)True B)False
Q5) If an offspring has a total of 32 genes, it inherited ____________________ genes from each parent.
Q6) The genetic makeup of an organism, such as Gg, is its ____________________.
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) All diseases are the result of inherited traits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following processes is not a method of generating new combinations of alleles in the offspring of two individuals?
A)crossing-over between chromosomes
B)fertilization of an egg by a sperm
C)independent assortment of chromosomes
D)linkage of genes
Q3) If a genetic disorder is caused by a dominant allele, individuals with which of the following genotypes would be affected by the disorder?
A)AA and aa
B)aa and Aa
C)AA and Aa
D)AA, Aa, and aa
Q4) The known human genetic diseases are due to abnormalities located on just a few chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Dna and Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Would you expect the presence of spacer DNA to increase or decrease the frequency of linkage between genes?
A)Decrease it, because the spacer DNA is removed from the genome before transcription.
B)Decrease it, because the spacer DNA increases the probability of crossing-over between genes.
C)Increase it, because the spacer DNA is tightly connected to the genes on both sides.
D)Increase it, because the spacer DNA encourages the insertion of transposons into the DNA.
Q2) All cells in an organism contain a full copy of that organism's DNA. Your ears do not produce digestive enzymes because
A)stomach cells have extra DNA.
B)ear cells have nonfunctional DNA.
C)some DNA is deleted from cells where it is not needed.
D)different genes are expressed in different parts of an organism.
Q3) The process of DNA replication is error free.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) When one base is changed to another at a single position in the DNA sequence of a gene, a(n)_____ mutation has occurred.
A)insertion
B)deletion
C)frameshift
D)substitution
Q2) Because they are so distantly related, the codons for serine in a black widow spider would probably be much different from the codons for serine in bluebirds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A gene affects an organism's phenotype by controlling A)protein production.
B)the mutation rate.
C)the organism's environment.
D)the organism's ribosomes.
Q4) The stop codon is the sequence of bases at which transcription ends. A)True
B)False
Q5) Most molecules of RNA are ____________________-stranded.
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Chapter 16: Dna Technology
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Q1) A(n)____________________ is a small, circular portion of DNA that is found in bacteria and is not part of the main genome.
Q2) The use of genetic engineering has social, economic, and ecological implications.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The use of DNA analysis to identify individuals is known as A)PCR testing.
B)DNA fingerprinting.
C)genetic modification.
D)cloning.
Q4) The goal of DNA ____________________ is to make many copies of a piece of recombinant DNA so that the DNA can be further manipulated and studied.
Q5) In the first step of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), the two strands of the DNA being amplified must be separated by exposing the DNA to high
Q6) Genetic engineering is a process in which specific sequences of ____________________ are deliberately isolated, modified, and inserted back into a host organism.
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Chapter 17: How Evolution Works
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Q1) Continental drift is the ____________________ of Earth's landmasses through geologic time.
Q2) Which of the following processes does not contribute to the generation of genetic variation within a population?
A)independent assortment
B)crossing-over
C)segregation of alleles
D)random fusion of sperm and egg
Q3) Early scholars recognized that species change over time either due to chance or due to changes imposed by the environment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A species of cave beetle that lives in total darkness is blind but has remnants of what looks like eyes. These "eyes" are
A)vestigial.
B)homologous.
C)analogous.
D)convergent.
Q5) Evolutionary changes on a small scale are called ____________________.
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Chapter 18: Evolution of Populations
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Q1) The four mechanisms that cause microevolution include gene flow, genetic drift, natural selection, and directional selection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ____________________ are the original source of genetic variation within a population.
Q3) Gene flow occurs
A)as a result of genetic drift.
B)if gametes, rather than individuals, move among populations.
C)as a result of mutations in one population but not in another.
D)when individuals within a population interbreed.
Q4) Which of the following statements concerning evolution is false?
A)Natural selection requires variation in the population.
B)An individual that is better adapted than others in a population will always be more reproductively successful.
C)Genetic drift causes little evolutionary change in large populations.
D)Evolution involves a change of frequency of alleles in the gene pool.
Q5) In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, ____________________ represents the predicted frequency of the heterozygous genotype.
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Chapter 19: Speciation and the Origins of Biological Diversity
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Q1) Populations within a species are connected by A)gene flow.
B)speciation.
C)continental drift.
D)genetic drift.
Q2) Two species live in the same area but breed in different parts of their habitat. These species are
A)geographically isolated.
B)ecologically isolated.
C)artificially isolated.
D)likely to produce hybrids.
Q3) Sympatric speciation requires geographic isolation of populations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For the quality of an adaptation to improve over time, _____ must already exist within the population.
A)genetic limitations
B)genetic variation
C)speciation
D)ecological trade-offs
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Chapter 20: The Evolutionary History of Life
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Q1) Members of all of Earth's different species (past and present)have been (or will be)converted into some type of fossil after their death.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The extinction of dinosaurs caused an end to the ____________________ between dinosaurs and mammals, thus allowing mammals to evolve to fill some ecological roles the dinosaurs had previously filled.
Q3) By about a half million years ago, our human ancestors were probably hunting large game and using fire.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Descendants of ____________________ were among the first organisms to colonize land.
Q5) Continental drift has played a role in which of the following?
A)changing regional climate
B)extinctions
C)promoting speciation
D)all of the above
Q6) The first single-celled organisms arose 3.5 ____________________ years ago.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: The Biosphere
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Q1) The biosphere is considered to consist of all living things and the physical environments where they live. To more conveniently characterize it, the biosphere is subdivided into A)ecosystems.
B)biomes.
C)populations.
D)habitats.
Q2) Problems arise during an El Niño event when
A)warm surface water, depleted of its nutrients, flows toward the South American coast.
B)displaced organisms crowd into adjacent habitats.
C)warm surface waters evaporate water more rapidly, causing increased rainfall in every terrestrial biome.
D)ocean current systems reverse their flow directions and impede migrating marine fish and mammals.
Q3) Which of these biomes typically displays the most fertile soils?
A)chaparral
B)grasslands
C)tropical forest
D)bog
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Weather is a density-____________________ factor that can affect the size of a population.
Q2) When an isolated population reaches its carrying capacity
A)the birth rate > the death rate.
B)the birth rate = the death rate.
C)the birth rate < the death rate.
D)It is not possible to generalize these values.
Q3) A population grows as more of its individuals emigrate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When an S-shaped growth curve levels it is an indication that a population may have reached its carrying capacity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n)____________________ is a group of interacting individuals of the same species living within the same area.
Q6) Population size ____________________ when the combination of death and emigration rates are lower than the combination of birth and immigration rates.
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) Once a climax community develops, is it likely to remain that way indefinitely?
A)No; over long-term timescales climate change will probably occur, causing the community to eventually change.
B)No; once a climax community develops, the lack of biotic variability eventually degrades the habitat.
C)Yes; once a climax community develops, it will always remain undisturbed
D)Yes; climax communities become so stable that they prevent disturbances from occurring.
Q2) By definition, primary consumers feed on secondary consumers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____________________ is an interaction between two species that benefits both species.
Q4) Which of the following best characterizes humans' method of obtaining energy?
A)primary consumers only
B)secondary consumers only
C)primary, secondary, and occasionally tertiary consumers
D)secondary producers
Q5) ____________________ are animals eaten by other animals.
Q6) A(n)____________________ is a single sequence of who eats whom in a community.
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) To best use the Earth's NPP to feed the most people, diets should be modified to include _____, and gathering the maximum amount of energy available from a given biomass of producers.
A)only meat, moving higher up the food chain
B)only meat, moving lower down the food chain
C)plant material only, moving lower down the food chain
D)plant material only, moving higher up the food chain
Q2) Net primary productivity in a terrarium could be estimated by
A)carefully controlling the amount of light entering it.
B)counting the change in the number of plant species in it.
C)weighing the terrarium at regular intervals.
D)removing the primary consumers and weighing them at regular intervals.
Q3) ____________________, caused by algal blooms triggered by excess nutrients in a lake, can result from excess decomposition followed by animals dying due to lack of oxygen.
Q4) Phosphorus is the only major nutrient whose cycle is ____________________.
Q5) An atom of phosphorous may remain out of the biological part of its cycle for many millions of years.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Bisphenol A is found in plastic water bottles and has been shown to cause an increased risk of diabetes and reproductive problems among other disorders. Bisphenol A acts as a(n)____________________.
Q2) When plants are initially exposed to elevated carbon dioxide levels most increase their rate of photosynthesis; how might plant communities be affected?
A)no changes other than increased NPP
B)competition increases for other resources such as sunlight or phosphorus with the eventual disappearance of some community members
C)community members decrease in size over time with the removal of the selection pressure for carbon dioxide acquisition
D)Because carbon dioxide is never a limiting factor like water, nitrogen, or phosphorus, increased levels typically have no significant effects.
Q3) In recent years, the amount of nitrogen compounds fixed by human activities has
A)exceeded the amount of nitrogen compounds fixed by natural processes.
B)been reduced to a level below the amounts fixed by natural processes.
C)equaled the amount fixed by natural processes.
D)fluctuated above and below the amounts fixed by natural processes.
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Chapter 26: Internal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) Marine fish must use energy to maintain their body fluid balance, because A)they live in a hypertonic environment and need to use energy to retain water.
B)they must get rid of the excess water that constantly moves into their interstitial fluid.
C)they must actively take up solutes from their surroundings.
D)their kidneys must reabsorb solutes from the external surroundings.
Q2) ____________________ tissue, the interface between an organism and its environment, regulates the amount of water, heat, and other substances that are exchanged with the external environment.
Q3) ____________________ feedback keeps the internal environment in a constant state within a range of external conditions.
Q4) Urea is reabsorbed by the kidney because it acts as an antioxidant, protecting cells from damaging chemicals produced by metabolic reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most marine animals and all land animals are ____________________ because they maintain internal salt and water levels that are not the same as those of their surroundings.
Q6) In kidneys, the glomerulus is composed of a bed of ____________________.
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) Which of the following is not secreted by the mammalian pancreas?
A)pepsin
B)bicarbonate
C)trypsin
D)chymotrypsin
Q2) The main reason that proteins are an important part of your diet is that they are a source of ____________________, the building blocks of the enzymes that run your cells.
Q3) Humans can synthesize some of the amino acids we need. The ones we must obtain from our food are known as ____________________ amino acids.
Q4) The eight essential amino acids required by adult humans
A)are produced by the human body.
B)can be obtained by eating any one type of vegetable.
C)are not found in meat products.
D)are used as building blocks for human proteins.
Q5) The first enzymes that food encounters in our body are in our A)mouth.
B)esophagus.
C)pancreas.
D)small intestine.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Red blood cells are produced in the ____________________.
Q2) Ectothermic animals have a larger surface area available for gas exchange than endothermic animals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____________________ is the process of expelling carbon dioxide from the lungs and taking oxygen into the lungs.
Q4) The thickening of heart muscle over time helps it to pump blood more efficiently throughout the body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In human lungs, gases are exchanged in tiny sacs called A)gills.
B)tracheoles.
C)alveoli.
D)spongy parenchyma.
Q6) The human ____________________ system is used for the internal transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Q7) Human red blood cells contain the red pigment ____________________.
30
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Chapter 29: Animal Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calcitonin is secreted by the A)adrenal glands.
B)kidneys.
C)pancreas.
D)thyroid gland.
Q2) Supplementing the body with hormones
A)can be dangerous because most hormones are needed in large amounts.
B)can be dangerous because most hormones are needed in small amounts.
C)holds no risk because hormones are organic molecules.
D)is safer in children as compared to adults.
Q3) Some hormones do not need receptors and can directly interact with genes in a target cell's nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The development of all female reproductive structures is under the control of a single hormone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n)____________________ is a specialized organ in which hormones are produced.
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Chapter 30: Nervous and Sensory Systems
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Q1) The center of the human retina has a region called the ____________________ where cones are most densely packed.
Q2) A drug that decreases your ability to taste and smell might inhibit the function of A)photoreceptors.
B)thermoreceptors. C)mechanoreceptors. D)chemoreceptors.
Q3) Action potentials and resting potentials are the same thing. A)True B)False
Q4) Axons transmit information in the form of A)resting potentials. B)sodium channels. C)action potentials. D)myelin sheaths.
Q5) We perceive pressure waves in air as ____________________.
Q6) A signal-sending neuron releases a ____________________, a molecule that carries the signal across the synapse between nerve cells.
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Chapter 31: Skeletons, Muscles, and Movement
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Q1) Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton?
A)the spinal column
B)the arm
C)the skull
D)the rib cage
Q2) Your small intestine has smooth muscle in its walls.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You can wave "hello" to a friend, because you have A)joints.
B)muscles.
C)tendons.
D)all of the above
Q4) Generally, the larger an animal, the less of its weight is made up by its skeleton.
A)True B)False
Q5) The three types of muscle in our bodies are smooth muscle, skeletal muscle, and ____________________ muscle.
Q6) Tendons are connective tissues that connect ____________________ to bone.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Defenses Against Disease
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Q1) While pruning your roses, you get scratched by a thorn. A few days later, you notice that the scratch is filled with yellowish pus. What is this pus?
A)Neutrophils and macrophages that die after consuming their fill of the bacteria that entered your wound.
B)Living bacteria that have been successful in avoiding your immune system.
C)Dead self cells and bacterial waste products.
D)Concentrated prostaglandins produced by injured tissue cells.
Q2) What prevents pathogens from entering our bodies through the delicate tissues of the lungs?
A)The lining of the lungs has a low pH that creates an inhospitable environment for most pathogens.
B)The tubes entering the lungs are lined with mucus that traps pathogens and is then removed from the respiratory system.
C)The cells of the lungs are covered by several layers of dead cells that prevent pathogens from getting to living lung tissue.
D)Certain cells in the lungs produce toxins that paralyze pathogens before they can infect the body.
Q3) Macrophages and neutrophils make up a ____________________ response to invaders.
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Chapter 33: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Which of the following statements about hermaphrodites is true?
A)Hermaphrodites can mate with every individual of the same species that they encounter.
B)Hermaphrodites can generally fertilize their own eggs.
C)Hermaphrodites have either testes or ovaries.
D)Few animal phyla include hermaphroditic species.
Q2) The number of chromosomes in secondary spermatocytes is fewer than in primary spermatocytes because
A)sister chromatids are separated during meiosis II.
B)sister chromatids are separated during meiosis I.
C)homologous pairs are separated during meiosis II.
D)homologous pairs are separated during meiosis I.
Q3) Many animals are choosy about their mates because
A)males put more energy into sperm production than females put into egg production.
B)the smaller the genetic differences between two parents, the more likely their offspring are to survive.
C)having a high-quality mate increases the chance of offspring survival.
D)species that do not have two-parent families are less successful than those that do.
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Chapter 34: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Which sorts of behaviors, if any, offer an organism the best chance of survival?
A)only fixed behaviors
B)only learned behaviors
C)both fixed and learned behaviors
D)Behavior has no effect on an organism's ability to survive.
Q2) Which of the following statements about genetically controlled behaviors is true?
A)Identical twins are more likely to express the same behavior than other sets of siblings are.
B)Identical twins will always express the same behavior.
C)The environment has no effect on the expression of behavior.
D)Genetics has no effect on the expression of behavior.
Q3) Imprinted behaviors are fixed behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Group living can have disadvantages such as limited resources and spread of disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ____________________ behaviors are generated from past experiences.
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) A cotyledon is the
A)food-storing organ found in the seeds of flowering plants.
B)embryonic root of a seedling.
C)reproductive organ of a plant.
D)type of ground tissue in mechanical reinforcement of stem structure.
Q2) The vascular tissue responsible for transporting sugars is known as A)phloem.
B)xylem.
C)sclerenchyma.
D)collenchyma.
Q3) Like other organisms, plants are composed of proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids. Based on this, which of the following would be a macronutrient?
A)zinc
B)copper
C)iron
D)carbon
Q4) Flowers are an example of a plant organ.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) In what way does endosperm differ from sperm?
A)Endosperm is triploid rather than haploid.
B)Endosperm is the immature sperm prior to its release from the anther.
C)Endosperm develops only in self-pollinating plants.
D)Endosperm is produced by the sporophyte, and sperm by the gametophyte.
Q2) Forests hold more heat than the grasses and shrubs of the tundra.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Groups of perpetually young, undifferentiated cells from which new cells arise are called A)seeds.
B)meristems.
C)root caps.
D)phloem.
Q4) In plants double fertilization means that
A)the zygote has twice the diploid number of chromosomes.
B)two pollen grains are needed to fertilize an egg.
C)one sperm fertilizes two eggs.
D)one sperm fertilizes an egg, another sperm fertilizes another cell in the embryo sac.
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