Principles of Biology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology introduces students to the fundamental concepts and processes that define living organisms, including cellular structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. The course emphasizes scientific inquiry and critical thinking by exploring how biological knowledge is acquired and applied. Topics such as energy transformation, molecular genetics, principles of heredity, and interactions among organisms and their environments serve as a foundation for further studies in the life sciences. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory experiences, students gain a comprehensive understanding of biological systems and their relevance to issues in health, technology, and the environment.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 4th Edition by Scott Freeman
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Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A friend of yours calls to say that his car would not start this morning.He asks for your help.You say that you think the battery must be dead,and that if so,then jump-starting the car from a good battery will solve the problem.In doing so,you are _____.
A)only stating a hypothesis for why the car won't start
B)searching for observations that might inspire a hypothesis for why the car won't start
C)stating both a specific hypothesis about why the car won't start and a prediction of the hypothesis
D)performing an experimental test of a hypothesis for why the car won't start
Answer: C
Q2) In comparison to eukaryotes,prokaryotes _____.
A)are more structurally complex
B)are larger
C)are smaller
D)lack any cell membranes
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) You've been asked to analyze a reaction that took place at 300 K. H was -150 and S was +0.4.Is the reaction endothermic or exothermic?
A)endothermic
B)exothermic
C)You cannot tell unless you know the potential energy of the reactants and products.
D)You cannot tell unless you know the amount of disorder in the reactants and products.
Answer: B
Q2) Do all human body fluids have the same pH? If not,rank,in the order of low to high,the pH of blood,urine,and stomach acid.
A)Yes.Blood,urine,and stomach acid all have the same pH.
B)No.The pH ranking from low to high is stomach acid,blood,urine.
C)No.The pH ranking from low to high is urine,blood,stomach acid.
D)No.The pH ranking from low to high is stomach acid,urine,blood.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many times does the protein in Figure 3.1 cross the cell membrane?
A)1
B)3
C)4
D)7
Answer: D
Q2) An enzyme has a total of four active sites.When you denature the molecule and study its composition,you find that each active site occurs on a different polypeptide.Which of the following hypotheses does this observation support?
A)The enzyme is subject to allosteric regulation.
B)The enzyme requires a cofactor to function normally.
C)The protein's structure is affected by temperature and pH.
D)The protein has quaternary structure.
Answer: D
Q3) What is the location of the C-terminus of the protein in Figure 3.1?
A)extracellular
B)cytoplasm
C)embedded within the membrane
D)nucleus
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Q1) Bartel's research group showed that an RNA replicase ribozyme could be created by
A)carefully synthesizing a novel ribozyme monomer by monomer based on the sequence of known ribozymes
B)creating large numbers of random RNA segments and testing each one to see if any replicase activity was present
C)starting with random components and allowing selection to result in molecules that were better and better at replicating
D)examining protein replicases and reverse-engineering an RNA molecule capable of doing the same job
Q2) Refer to Nakano's quote.What can be inferred about the free-energy profile for the self-cleavage reaction from the information provided in the paragraph?
A)It must be endergonic.
B)It must be exergonic.
C)It must be endothermic.
D)It must be exothermic.
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Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Q1) What is the major structural difference between starch and glycogen?
A)the types of monosaccharide subunits in the molecules
B)the type of glycosidic linkages in the molecule
C)whether glucose is in the or form
D)the amount of branching that occurs in the molecule
Q2) You isolate an organic molecule that contains C,H,O,N,and S.This molecule _____.
A)is definitely a sugar
B)could be a glycoprotein
C)is definitely a nucleic acid
D)is definitely a protein that is not glycosylated
Q3) Which of the following carbohydrates contains a peptide bond?
A)Carbohydrates don't contain peptide bonds;only proteins do.
B)cellulose
C)chitin
D)peptidoglycan
E)glycogen
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Q1) Why do lipid bilayers form spontaneously?
A)The process is endergonic.
B)The process is exergonic.
C)The process leads to a huge decrease in entropy and no change in potential energy.
D)The process is endothermic.
Q2) Which of the following crosses lipid bilayers the slowest?
A)a sodium ion
B)a small,polar molecule like water
C)a large,polar molecule like glucose
D)a small,nonpolar molecule like oxygen (O )
Q3) What is the most important factor in explaining why osmosis occurs spontaneously?
A)It leads to an increase in entropy.
B)It leads to a decrease in entropy.
C)The process is exothermic.
D)The process is endothermic.
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Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Q1) Why are lysosomes considered part of the endomembrane system?
A)because they deposit end products of digestion in the endoplasmic reticulum
B)because they facilitate movement between stacks of the Golgi
C)because they are formed from products synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum and processed by the Golgi
D)because they are composed largely of phospholipids
Q2) Motor proteins require energy in the form of ATP.ATP hydrolysis results in a conformational change that allows the protein to move along microtubular tracks (pathways).What structural component of the motor protein contains the ATP binding site and,therefore,changes shape to enable movement?
A)the portion of the molecule that binds to the vesicle being transported
B)the stalk
C)the portion of the molecule that binds to the microtubular track along which the vesicle is being transported
D)a location midway between the vesicle binding site and the portion of the molecule that binds to microtubular tracks
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Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Q1) Plasmodesmata are cell-cell junctions that are found between _____.
A)individual cardiac cells in heart muscle tissue
B)adjacent plant cells
C)adjacent animal cells in the same tissue type
D)the plasma membrane of actively dividing prokaryotes
Q2) Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that binds to receptors on skeletal muscle cells.The receptor-signal complex brings about a series of events that result in contraction of skeletal muscle.Venom from black widow spiders causes an explosive release of acetylcholine.What would that do to its victims?
A)The victim's muscles would be unable to contract.
B)The victim's muscles would be unable to relax.
C)The victim's cell receptors would no longer be able to bind regulatory hormones.
D)The victim's cell receptors would be able to bind regulatory hormones but at a rate greatly exceeding normal rates.
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) The glucose molecule has a large quantity of energy in its _____.
A)C-H bonds
B)C-N bonds
C)number of oxygen atoms
D)polar structure
Q2) Which electron carrier(s)function in the Krebs cycle?
A)NAD only
B)both NAD and FAD
C)the electron transport chain
D)NADH and FADH
Q3) The chemiosmotic hypothesis is an important concept in our understanding of cellular metabolism in general because _____.
A)it explains how ATP is synthesized by a proton motive force
B)it explains how electron transport can fuel substrate-level phosphorylation
C)it explains the sequence of the electron transport chain molecules
D)it explains the reduction of oxygen to water in the final steps of oxidative metabolism
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following statements most accurately compares photosynthesis and respiration?
A)ATP generated during photosynthesis is a fundamentally different process than ATP generated during respiration.
B)Photosynthesis is just respiration in reverse.
C)Photosynthesis requires ATP,but respiration does not.
D)Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules;respiration releases the energy stored in complex organic molecules.
Q2) What is the main purpose of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?
A)to generate oxygen by "splitting" H O
B)to produce NADPH for use in respiration
C)to produce NADPH and ATP
D)to use ATP to make glucose
Q3) In the carbon fixation step of the Calvin cycle,ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (a five-carbon compound)is carboxylated to produce _____.
A)5 molecules of carbon dioxide
B)2 three-carbon compounds
C)acetyl CoA (two carbons)and oxaloacetate (four carbons)
D)glucose
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) What is the final result of mitosis?
A)genetically identical 2n somatic cells
B)genetically different 2n somatic cells
C)genetically identical 1n somatic cells
D)genetically identical 2n gamete cells
Q2) Metaphase occurs prior to the splitting of centromeres.It is characterized by _____.
A)aligning of chromosomes on the equator
B)splitting of the centromeres
C)cytokinesis
D)separation of sister chromatids
Q3) Which of the following is not an effect of mitosis-promoting factor (MPF)involved in moving a cell into M phase?
A)phosphorylation of lamins,initiating breakdown of the nuclear membrane
B)phosphorylation of microtubule associated proteins,triggering the formation of the mitotic spindle
C)phosphorylation of an enzyme that breaks down the cyclin molecule
D)degradation of cyclin-dependent kinase
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Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hexaploid wheat was produced synthetically by He and co-workers.They mated the diploid species,Aegilops tauschii,and the tetraploid species,T.turgidum.Which of the following is an accurate statement about the relative contribution of each parent to the genome of the hexaploid offspring?
A)Each parent contributed equally to the genome of the offspring.
B)Aegilops tauschii contributed four chromosomes by failing to complete meiosis after chromosome replication,and T.turgidum contributed two chromosomes.
C)Aegilops tauschii contributed two chromosomes,and T.turgidum contributed four chromosomes.
D)The hexaploid number appeared following mitosis with no subsequent cell division.
Q2) Which type of reproduction is associated with using the most necessary resources (e.g. ,the most nutrients or most energy)?
A)binary fission
B)asexual reproduction
C)budding
D)sexual reproduction
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Q1) A man who carries an allele of an X-linked gene will pass it on to _____.
A)all of his daughters
B)half of his daughters
C)all of his sons
D)half of his sons
E)all of his children
Q2) Assuming independent assortment for all gene pairs,what is the probability that the following parents,AABbCc × AaBbCc,will produce an AaBbCc offspring?
A)1/2
B)1/16
C)1/8
D)3/4
E)9/16
Q3) Different ratios occur in crosses with single gene pairs or two gene pairs.What types of ratios are likely to occur in crosses dealing with a single gene pair?
A)9:3:3:1,1:2:1
B)1:1:1:1,1:4:6:4:1
C)3:1,1:1,1:2:1
D)4:1,1:1,1:4:1
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Q1) What is the difference between the leading strand and the lagging strand in DNA replication?
A)The leading strand is synthesized in the 3 5 direction in a discontinuous fashion,while the lagging strand is synthesized in the 5 3 direction in a continuous fashion.
B)The leading strand requires an RNA primer,whereas the lagging strand does not.
C)The leading strand is synthesized continuously in the 5 3 direction,while the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously in the 5 3 direction.
D)There are different DNA polymerases involved in elongation of the leading strand and the lagging strand.
Q2) What are pyrimidine dimers?
A)pyrimidines (C and T)that have gained an extra nitrogen-containing ring structure
B)pyrimidines on antiparallel DNA strands that form complementary base pairs
C)adjacent pyrimidines on the same DNA strand that join by covalent bonding
D)pyrimidines formed by demethylation of purines
Q3) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which of the structures in the figure breaks hydrogen bonds between complementary bases?
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following findings violated the central dogma?
A)the discovery of RNA viruses that synthesize DNA using reverse transcriptase
B)the discovery that the Archaea and Bacteria are more distantly related than are Archaea and Eukarya
C)the discovery of ribozymes
D)the discovery of DNA as the unit of genetic inheritance
Q2) There are three stop codons (nonsense codons);all remaining codons specify addition of an amino acid (sense codons).How many sense codons are there?
A)20
B)45
C)61
D)72
Q3) Genotype is to _____ as phenotype is to _____.
A)DNA base sequence;amino acid sequence
B)heredity;DNA base sequence
C)gene regulation;translation
D)transcription;amino acid sequence
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Chapter 16: Transcription and Translation
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Q1) Refer to Figure 16.2.The mRNA is smaller than the length of the DNA that codes for it because _____.
A)the regulatory regions (introns)of the gene are not transcribed
B)post-transcriptional modification removes the introns
C)post-transcriptional modification removes the exons
D)bases are added to the tail of the primary transcript
Q2) What molecule in the spliceosome lowers the activation energy so intron removal reactions can occur?
A)RNA polymerase
B)ribozymes
C)proteins of the spliceosome
D)autocatalysis by introns
Q3) The mutation resulting in sickle cell anemia changes one base pair of DNA so it is an example of a _____.
A)point mutation
B)frameshift mutation
C)silent mutation
D)missense mutation
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18
Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) A compound known as X-Gal is widely used in molecular genetic research.When wild-type (normal)E.coli is grown on medium containing X-Gal,the bacterial colonies turn blue.In contrast,when lacZ mutants are grown on medium containing X-Gal,the bacterial colonies remain their normal white color.What is X-Gal likely to be?
A)a compound chemically similar to glucose
B)a compound chemically similar to galactose
C)a compound chemically similar to lactose
D)a compound that cannot be transported into lacZ mutants
E)a compound that can only be transported into lacA mutants
Q2) Full induction of the lac operon occurs when _____.
A)lactose levels are low and glucose levels are low
B)lactose levels are low and glucose levels are high
C)lactose levels are high and glucose levels are low
D)lactose levels are high and glucose levels are high
Q3) An E.coli cell without a functional lacI gene is expected to _____.
A)never produce -galactosidase
B)always produce -galactosidase
C)be unable to transport lactose into the cell
D)be unable to metabolize lactose within the cell
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Predict what would occur in the experiment shown in Figure 18.1 if Tonegawa and colleagues had mistakenly inserted the antibody gene enhancer in reverse orientation (backward)into the -globin gene.
A)There would be no -globin gene expression in the antibody-producing cells.
B)There would be minute levels of -globin gene expression in the antibody-producing cells.
C)There would be transcription of the -globin gene,but on the opposite strand of DNA from the one normally transcribed.
D)There would be little difference in the results of this experiment and the one shown in the figure.
Q2) Gene expression is often assayed by measuring the level of mRNA produced from a gene.If one is interested in knowing the amount of a final active gene product,a potential problem of this method is that it ignores the possibility of _____.
A)chromatin condensation control
B)transcriptional control
C)alternative splicing
D)translational control
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Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) Plasmids are used as vectors in both plant and bacterial genetic engineering.However,there is a major difference in the fate of genes introduced into bacteria on most bacterial plasmids and into plants on Ti plasmids.What is this difference?
A)In bacteria,genes are stably expressed;in plants,gene expression is always lost quickly.
B)Gene expression tends to decrease rapidly and unpredictably in bacteria;gene expression is much more stable in plants.
C)Bacterial plasmids are circular DNAs;Ti plasmid DNA is linear.
D)Bacterial plasmids and the genes they carry usually are not integrated into the chromosome;Ti plasmids and the genes they carry are integrated into the chromosome.
E)Bacterial plasmids typically do not modify the growth of the host cells;Ti plasmids modified for genetic engineering always produce plant galls.
Q2) Which type of disorder is most difficult to correct by gene therapy?
A)a dominant disorder
B)an incompletely dominant disorder
C)a recessive disorder
D)Disorders showing all these forms of dominance present equal challenges.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Genomics
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Q1) If the sequence of a cDNA matches a DNA sequence in the genome,then this genomic DNA is likely to _____.
A)code for a protein
B)code for a ribozyme
C)code for an rRNA
D)be part of an intron
E)be a regulatory sequence
Q2) Why are transposable elements considered to be selfish genes?
A)They have multiple promoters.
B)They require multiple RNA polymerases for transcription.
C)They replicate using the host's resources without direct benefit to the host.
D)They do not produce mRNA.
Q3) A scientist needs to find a collaborating scientist to help her with organizing a large amount of sequence data from the genome of a previously unsequenced and rare plant.This scientist should find a collaborator who specializes in _____,
A)proteomics
B)functional genomics
C)evolutionary genomics
D)bioinformatics
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) Suppose there was a mutation in the segment-polarity genes of Drosophila.What do you suppose might be the outcome?
A)Several segments of the embryo will be missing.
B)Every other segment of the embryo will be missing.
C)Legs will appear in the place of antennae.
D)Antennae will appear in a different part of their usual segment.
Q2) In combination,what do the products of gap genes,pair-rule genes,and segmentation polarity genes of fruit flies do?
A)They trigger the reorganization of the larval body into an adult body.
B)They define the segmented body plan of the embryo.
C)They set up the back-to-belly axis of the larval body.
D)They direct cell movements during differentiation.
Q3) The predominant mechanism driving cellular differentiation is the difference in gene
A)expression
B)sequences
C)order
D)replication
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Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) Which of the following is the most basic process in the developing embryo because all of the other processes listed can occur only after it,or in conjunction with it?
A)organogenesis
B)cell differentiation
C)mitosis
D)morphogenesis
E)germ layer formation
Q2) Sperm-egg interactions are species-specific in sea urchins,but not in mammals.What might be one reason for this difference?
A)Other kinds of signals serve similar functions in mammals.
B)Sperm-egg recognition relies on egg cytoplasmic components in mammals.
C)Sperm have evolved to become more selective in mammals.
D)Sea urchin fertilization occurs in open ocean.
Q3) Which of the following directors of embryonic development can be found within unfertilized eggs?
A)tissue-specific proteins
B)bindin proteins
C)cytoplasmic determinants
D)mRNAs transcribed from embryonic genome
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Page 24
Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) Each of the following describes a similarity between yolk and endosperm except
A)yolk and endosperm both provide nutrition for embryos
B)yolk and endosperm both contain proteins
C)yolk and endosperm are both the result of a second fertilization process
D)yolk and endosperm are both cellular products
Q2) Plant embryos do not undergo the developmental processes of _____.
A)fertilization
B)cleavage
C)embryogenesis
D)gastrulation
E)organogenesis
Q3) Plant embryos cannot undergo gastrulation.What ensures the correct positioning of cells during plant embryogenesis?
A)cell movements inside the seed coat
B)genetic differences among the cells
C)cytoplasmic determinants in the cells
D)different cell sizes and planes of mitosis
E)expansion of the cotyledons
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25
Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) Why was Darwin and Wallace's theory of evolution by natural selection revolutionary?
A)It was the first theory to refute the ideas of special creation.
B)It proved that individuals acclimated to their environment over time.
C)It dismissed the idea that species are constant and emphasized the importance of variation and change in populations.
D)It was the first time a biologist had proposed that species changed through time.
Q2) If two organisms show a developmental homology,you would also definitely expect them to _____.
A)share structural homologies
B)share genetic homologies
C)share genetic and structural homologies
D)be evolutionarily closely related
E)be evolutionarily distantly related
Q3) Explain how one of the following supports the idea that species change through time:
artificial selection,extinction,transitional forms,vestigial traits,antibiotic resistance.
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Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) Refer to the paragraph on dark-eyed junco birds.Which of the following could explain why males display more often?
A)Many male juncos die without fathering any offspring.
B)Females have to expend energy competing for mates.
C)Males are more aggressive than females.
D)energy cost asymmetry in male and female parental investment
Q2) Wikelski and Romero (2003)found that large marine iguanas had higher reproductive success than smaller iguanas did.However,the large iguanas were generally in poor body condition because they could not eat enough;at higher temperatures their foraging efficiency improved,allowing them to eat more.Thus,Wikelski and Romero hypothesize that iguana size will _____ as global warming gradually increases air and water temperatures in the Galápagos Islands.
A)increase
B)decrease
C)stabilize around the mean body size
D)remain unchanged,it is not clear that body size increases fitness
Q3) Which sex typically has more extreme sex-selected characteristics: males or females? Why? Give an example.
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27
Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) Why is speciation by polyploidy more likely in plants than in animals?
A)Plant gametes can be produced from somatic cells that have undergone many rounds of mitosis.
B)Plant gametes lack postzygotic isolating mechanisms.
C)Plants are sessile and,therefore,are never prezygotically isolated to ensure reproduction.
D)Plants are sessile and cannot speciate via dispersal.
E)Plants lack the DNA repair enzymes that animals have.
Q2) Two species of tree frogs that live sympatrically in the northeastern United States differ in ploidy:
Hyla chrysocelis is diploid,and Hyla versicolor is tetraploid.The frogs are identical in appearance;but their mating calls,which females use to find mates,differ.Which difference most likely evolved first?
A)polyploidy
B)difference in mating calls
C)Polyploidy and different mating calls must have evolved at the same time.
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) Which value(s)would be required to calculate how long ago the most recent ancestor of ungulates lived?
A)the number of base pairs that differ among species in a certain genetic sequence
B)the total number of base pairs in the genetic sequence examined
C)the age of a fossil ancestor for calibration
D)all of the above
Q2) The phenetic approach to estimating phylogenetic trees is most like the approach of which species concept?
A)morphospecies concept
B)biological species concept
C)phylogenetic species concept
Q3) Which listing of geological periods is in the correct order,from oldest to most recent?
A)Cambrian,Devonian,Permian,Cretaceous
B)Devonian,Cambrian,Permian,Cretaceous
C)Cambrian,Permian,Devonian,Cretaceous
D)Permian,Cambrian,Cretaceous,Devonian
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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Some researchers have begun attempting to clean up oil spills by adding nonindigenous microbial hydrocarbon degraders to the spill,in the hopes that these bacteria will neutralize the dangerous chemicals in the spill.This is an example of _____.
A)bioremediation via fertilization
B)seeding
C)production of a new antibiotic
D)use of extremophiles for cleanup of organic solvents
Q2) What is the major goal of cellular respiration?
A)reduce an electron acceptor molecule
B)supply cell with fixed carbon
C)produce ATP
D)generate O
E)utilize glucose
Q3) What kind of molecules serve as electron acceptors in cellular respiration?
A)water
B)polar molecules
C)molecules with high potential energy
D)molecules with low potential energy
E)molecules in an excited state
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to the study by Poulsen et al.and Figure 29.3.Cultures of a species of diatom were treated with BDM,a reversible inhibitor of myosin function.Which of the following predictions is consistent with the hypothesis that an actin-myosin interaction is necessary for motility?
A)BDM will significantly decrease motility of the cells in culture.
B)BDM will not significantly alter motility of the cells in culture.
C)BDM will significantly increase motility of the cells in culture.
Q2) Consider the following points:
(a)All excavates live in environments where oxygen availability is low;(b)all excavates lack mitochondria;and (c)all excavates have some mitochondrial genes.Based on this information,which of the following statements is true of the excavate lineage?
A)Their ancestors were eukaryotes that existed prior to the origin of mitochondria.
B)Their ancestors had mitochondria,but the mitochondria were lost over time.
C)Their ancestors were not able to metabolize glucose.
D)Excavates are in the process of acquiring mitochondria through evolutionary adaptation.
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31
Chapter 30: Green Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Liverworts,hornworts,and mosses are grouped together as the Bryophytes.Besides not having vascular tissue,what do they all have in common?
A)They are all wind pollinated.
B)They are heterosporous.
C)They can reproduce asexually by producing gemmae.
D)They require water for reproduction.
E)They have the ability to desiccate and rehydrate with no ill effects.
Q2) Which of the following lines of evidence would most support your assertion that a particular plant is an angiosperm?
A)It produces seeds.
B)It retains its fertilized egg within its archaegonium.
C)It lacks gametangia.
D)It undergoes alternation of generations.
E)It produces gametes by mitosis rather than meiosis.
Q3) Which group of seedless vascular plants was the first to develop roots?
A)club mosses
B)horsetails
C)ferns
D)whisk ferns
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Which of the following is an important role for fungi in the carbon cycle?
A)Fungi help release fixed carbon back to the environment for other plants and photosynthetic organisms to utilize.
B)One of fungi's main roles is to provide already fixed carbon to plants that the plants then use for the production of cellular tissues.
C)Fungi get involved in the fixation of carbon by undergoing photosynthesis.
D)Fungi reduce atmospheric carbon dioxide.
Q2) The fungus used to produce penicillin and other antibiotics belongs to which fungal lineage?
A)Chytridiomycota
B)Ascomycota
C)Basidiomycota
D)Zygomycota
E)Glomeromycota
Q3) Why does total biomass (graph e Figure 31.5)not vary with AMF diversity?
A)Plant growth is unaffected by fungal diversity.
B)Most of the plants in this system do not form mycorrhizal associations.
C)Bromus is the dominant plant species.
D)Lotus corniculatus is a rare species.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Due to its unusual habitat (inside the digestive tracts of other animals),the tapeworm lacks _____.
A)a head
B)a mouth
C)a digestive tract
D)a mouth and a digestive tract
E)a head,a mouth,and a digestive tract
Q2) While looking at some seawater through your microscope,you spot the egg of an unknown animal.Which of the following tests could you not use to determine whether the developing organism is a protostome or a deuterostome?
A)See whether the ectoderm forms the mature animal's skin/exoskeleton or nervous system.
B)See whether the animal exhibits spiral cleavage or radial cleavage during early development.
C)See whether the coelom is formed from a split in the mesoderm or from mesodermal pockets pinched off the gut.
D)See whether the pore formed during gastrulation becomes the mature animal's mouth or its anus.
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Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) You find a multi-legged animal in your garden and want to determine if it is a centipede or a millipede.You take the animal to a university where a myriapodologist quickly tells you that you've found a centipede.Which of the following may have allowed her to make this distinction?
A)segmentation
B)poison-filled glands
C)the total number of legs
D)egg-laying
E)molting
Q2) Which of the following organisms would you expect to have the largest surface-area-to-volume ratio?
A)a rotifer
B)a mollusk
C)an annelid
D)an arthropod
E)a platyhelminth
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35
Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) In what respect do hominins differ from all other anthropoids?
A)lack of a tail
B)eyes on the front of the face
C)bipedal posture
D)opposable thumbs
E)diurnal activity
Q2) Suppose,while out camping in a forest,you found a chordate with a long,slender,limbless body slithering across the ground near your tent.To which of the following lineages could it belong?
A)Myxinoidea
B)Dipnoi
C)Mammalia
D)Amphibia
E)Chondrichthyes
Q3) How are hemichordates,urochordates,and cephalochordates similar?
A)All have motile larvae that become sessile adults.
B)All have pharyngeal gill slits at some point during development.
C)All produce amniotic eggs.
D)All have an endoskeleton of either bone or cartilage.
E)All have a notochord at some point during development.
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Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) When people die from HIV infections,it is usually because _____.
A)they have too many HIV particles in their lymphatic system,which causes it to shut down
B)they have too few T cells to adequately fight infection
C)they have too many T cells,and this overwhelms their immune systems
D)the body diverts too much energy toward replenishing lost T cells
E)the virions (virus particles)destroy the host cells;as the number of virions increases the host loses too many cells to survive
Q2) A biologist develops a new drug that seems to dramatically slow the onset of symptoms resulting from HIV infection.Close monitoring of HIV-infected cells reveals that the viral proteins are in the form of long polyproteins.What kind of drug did the biologist develop?
A)It is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
B)It is a CD4 inhibitor.
C)It is a protease inhibitor.
D)It is a polymerase inhibitor.
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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Which of these actions describes secondary growth?
A)growth in height
B)development of leaves and flowers
C)growth of herbaceous tissue
D)development of wood and bark
E)development of fruit
Q2) Plant leaf epidermal cells have an amazing array of trichomes.What is not a function of trichomes?
A)impale insects that try to lay eggs on the leaves
B)reflect sunlight in sunny locations
C)open and close for gas exchange
D)repel or trap insects with toxic compounds
E)decrease water loss from leaves
Q3) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
Q4) What is present in a shoot apical meristem region?
A)the region of cell division
B)immature buds and leaves
C)give rise to the protoderm,ground meristem,and procambium
D)all of the above
38
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following features of plant cells allows for apoplastic movement of water?
A)porous cell walls
B)plasmodesmata
C)large central vacuole
D)endodermal cells
Q2) The researchers discovered a new proton pump that is involved in phloem unloading in the sugar storage tissue.Predict the movement of ions carried out by this pump.
A)active transport of protons from cytoplasm to vacuole
B)active transport of protons from vacuole to tonoplast
C)active transport of protons from vacuole to cytoplasm
D)active transport of sugar from cytoplasm to vacuole
E)passive transport of sugar from cytoplasm to vacuole
Q3) Cell-to-cell water movement always occurs from _____.
A)higher to lower pressure potential
B)higher to lower solute potential
C)lower to higher solute potential
D)higher to lower water potential
E)lower to higher water potential
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following experiments is able to determine if an element is essential for plant growth?
A)measuring the amount of the element stored in plant tissues
B)measuring the amount of the element in the soil before and after plant growth
C)measuring the weight of the plant and soil before and after plant growth
D)growth of a plant by hydroponics without the element
E)all of the above
Q2) What is the charge on the inside of a plant cell plasma membrane?
A)positive
B)negative
C)neutral
Q3) To determine the requirement of chlorine for plant growth,you decided to perform a hydroponic experiment.What solution are you going to use to grow control plants for comparison with chlorine-derived plants?
A)pure water
B)water with chlorine
C)water with macronutrients and chlorine
D)water with micronutrients and chlorine
E)water with essential elements
Q4) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) When Charles and Francis Darwin first documented phototropism,why was it important that they germinated the grass seeds in the dark before beginning the experiment?
A)so the young shoots would grow slowly
B)so the young shoots would grow quickly
C)so the young shoots would grow straight
D)so the young shoots would be soft enough to bend
Q2) Suppose you laid a seedling on its side so that the root was parallel to the ground.Several hours after the change in position,where in the root cells (position A,B,or C in Figure 39.2)would you find the amyloplasts?
A)A
B)B
C)C
Q3) Which of the following signals indicates shade to a plant?
A)light quantity
B)blue light
C)far-red light
D)red light
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Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these events occurs first in seed germination?
A)Cell division occurs in the embryo,and growth starts.
B)Mitochondria multiply and provide energy for growth processes.
C)Water is taken up.
D)Oxygen is produced and proteins are synthesized.
E)New mRNAs and proteins are produced.
Q2) How are the life cycles of liverworts and angiosperms alike?
A)In both groups,the sporophyte is the dominant generation.
B)In both groups,the gametophyte is the dominant generation.
C)In both groups,the gametophyte is smaller than the sporophyte.
D)In both groups,the sporophyte is smaller than the gametophyte.
E)In both groups,the sporophyte produces spores.
Q3) After double fertilization in angiosperms,what development sequence is correct?
A)The embryo in the seed develops into endosperm.
B)The ovary wall becomes the fruit.
C)The ovule becomes the fruit.
D)The carpel develops into the cotyledons.
Q4) Plants in crop fields such as corn are genetically very similar.What are benefits of this phenomenon? What are pitfalls of this phenomenon?
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Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Environmental influences appear to contribute to cellular mutations that lead to tumor growth.For example,certain diets lead to higher incidence of colon cancers,and overexposure to sunlight leads to higher incidence of skin cancers.The tissues in closest contact with a carcinogen or mutagen (anything that causes genetic mutations)are obviously the ones most likely to develop tumors.Carcinomas and melanomas account for well over half of all cancers.What type of tissue would you guess the term carcinoma and melanoma is most closely associated with?
A)connective
B)muscle
C)epithelial
D)nervous
E)all of the above
Q2) Blood is a type of connective tissue because _____.
A)blood has multiple cell types
B)blood has a liquid extracellular matrix
C)blood functions in transportation
D)blood can be both liquid and solid
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43
Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Table 42.1: Because the shark rectal gland functions only when ATP molecules are present,what can you infer about the movement of Na ,K ,and Cl ?
A)Movement of these ions from circulation into the rectal gland is an active process.
B)Movement of these ions takes place from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
C)These ions move into the rectal gland with their osmotic gradient.
D)The rectal gland is unable to concentrate these ions.
Q2) What is the function of the osmotic gradient found in the kidney?
A)The osmotic gradient allows for electrolytes to move from low to high concentrations in the absence of ATP.
B)The osmotic gradient allows for the precise control of the retention of water and electrolytes.
C)The osmotic gradient allows for the loop of Henle to deliver water to the renal vein.
D)The osmotic gradient allows for the filtration of large cells at the glomerulus.
Q3) Figure 42.1 shows a nephron.Where does filtration take place in the nephron?
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44
Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you place a small piece of a salted cracker on your tongue,what would you expect to happen?
A)The salty flavor would increase the amount of saliva in the mouth.
B)Salivary amylase degrades the starch from the cracker into glucose.
C)The salty flavor will increase the salivary amylase in the mouth.
D)The salty flavor becomes less noticeable because of the glucose in the cracker.
Q2) You are most likely to observe coprophagy in which of the following animals?
A)carnivores
B)herbivores
C)fluid feeders
D)suspension feeders
Q3) Helicobacter pylori is a bacterial organism that causes ulcers and digestive disturbances.How might they survive the acid pH of the stomach?
A)They secrete buffer to neutralize acid.
B)They burrow under the mucus layer that covers the stomach epithelium.
C)They take over the parietal cells.
D)They release chemicals that decrease acid production in the stomach.
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Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) Why is the pharmacological reactivation of fetal hemoglobin in a patient with sickle cell anemia often a successful treatment?
A)Fetal hemoglobin binds more oxygen molecules than adult hemoglobin.
B)Fetal hemoglobin is better able to release oxygen than is adult hemoglobin.
C)Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.
D)Fetal hemoglobin is better able to release carbon dioxide than is adult hemoglobin.
E)Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for carbon dioxide than does adult hemoglobin.
Q2) An animal has a cardiac output of 40 mL/min and a stroke volume of 5 mL.What is its heart rate?
A)8 beats/minute
B)200 beats/minute
C)12.5 beats/minute
D)Heart rate cannot be determined with only these two variables.
Q3) Atria contract _____.
A)just prior to the beginning of diastole
B)during diastole
C)immediately after systole
D)during systole
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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which letter on Figure 45.1 corresponds to a large influx of Na ions into the cell?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) The depolarization phase of an action potential requires _____.
A)opening of K channels in the membrane
B)opening of Na channels in the membrane
C)opening of Ca² channels in the membrane
D)a K concentration gradient across the membrane
E)a Ca² concentration gradient across the membrane
Q3) Which of the following statements about action potentials is false?
A)All action potentials for a given neuron are identical in magnitude.
B)All action potentials for a given neuron are identical in duration.
C)Action potentials are propagated down the length of the axon.
D)Movement of ions during the action potential occurs mostly through the sodium pump.
E)The frequency of action potentials,not their size,is the meaningful signal.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) A salmon follows a scent trail upstream to find its way back to the stream where it hatched.What type of sensory receptor cell would it use?
A)thermoreceptors
B)mechanoreceptors
C)chemoreceptors
D)electroreceptors
E)nociceptors
Q2) Hair cells in the vertebrate ear are responsible for transducing sound pressure waves.Ion channels in the hair cell membrane open when _____.
A)a chemical ligand binds to the ion channel
B)light is absorbed by a molecule in the membrane
C)the cell membrane reaches a threshold voltage
D)the membrane is distorted mechanically
Q3) Acidic amino acids taste sour.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) What property of the steroid hormones allows them to cross the phospholipid bilayer?
A)Steroid hormones are lipid soluble and easily cross the phospholipid bilayer.
B)Steroid hormones can act in very small concentrations and very few molecules of steroids need to cross the lipid bilayer.
C)Steroid hormones act on cells close to where they were produced and very few molecules are required to travel such a short distance to cross the lipid bilayer.
D)Steroid hormones act on the same cells in which they are produced and therefore are within the cell they are acting upon.
E)None of the above are true.
Q2) Which of the following hormones does not act using a second messenger system?
A)glucagon
B)leptin
C)testosterone
D)growth hormone
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on Figure 48.1 above,showing fetal (A)and adult (B)oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curves,which of the following conclusions is true?
A)The mother binds oxygen with greater affinity than the fetus.
B)Adult saturation occurs at lower partial pressures of oxygen than fetal saturation does.
C)At 50 percent saturation,fetal blood will have a higher affinity for oxygen than adult blood will.
D)As the partial pressure of oxygen increases,adult hemoglobin approaches saturation faster than fetal hemoglobin does.
Q2) Which of the following is a challenge to the hypothesis that bats produce an unusually large number of sperm in order to increase the probability of conception when females engage in multiple matings?
A)Female bats can eject the sperm of certain males after mating.
B)A female can actively choose which male mates with her last,thus increasing the odds of conception with that male's sperm.
C)Both of the above are true.
D)Neither of the above are true.
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Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following would put you at increased risk of pathogens entering your body?
A)a mutation that increases the amount of lysozyme you can produce
B)a mutation that increases the amount of wax your ears produce on a daily basis
C)a mutation that causes your mucus secretions to be extremely watery
D)a mutation that decreases the number of cilia present in the respiratory tract
Q2) What kind of immune responses do insects have?
A)innate immunity only
B)innate and adaptive immunity similar to that of vertebrates
C)adaptive immunity only
D)innate and adaptive immunity,but the adaptive immune system has fewer cells than that of vertebrates
Q3) Which of the following is true of the allergic response?
A)Sufferers produce the IgE class of gamma globulins in response to allergens.
B)Upon the very first exposure to an allergen,an allergy sufferer will probably experience a runny nose,watery eyes,and mild wheezing.
C)It is a normal,healthy,adaptive response to an allergen.
D)All of the above answers are true.
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) The specific abiotic factors defining a biome are _____.
A)maximum annual temperature and moisture levels
B)average annual temperature and moisture levels
C)annual variation in temperature and precipitation
D)maximum annual temperatures,moisture levels,and average annual temperature
E)average annual temperature,moisture levels,and annual variation in temperature and precipitation
Q2) According to the latest hypotheses,why do evergreens predominate in cold environments?
A)Evergreens begin photosynthesizing in early spring,even before the snow melts. B)Evergreens do not shed their leaves and thus do not need as many soil nutrients. C)Evergreens photosynthesize all year round.
D)Evergreens begin photosynthesizing in early spring,even before the snow melts.Evergreens do not shed their leaves and thus do not need as many soil nutrients. E)Evergreens do not shed their leaves and thus do not need as many soil nutrients.Evergreens photosynthesize all year round.
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Chapter 51: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) What was the main reason the honeybees switched from the "round dance" to the "waggle dance"?
A)The waggle dance communicates the presence of nectar.
B)The preferred food source was farther away.
C)The round dance uses too much energy.
D)The round dance did not communicate the quality of the food.
Q2) Which animal is best known for migration using chemotaxis?
A)pigeons
B)arctic terns
C)salmon
D)monarch butterflies
Q3) Homing pigeons' ability to always return to their home,no matter where they are released,is an excellent example of _____.
A)piloting
B)compass orientation
C)an innate behavior
D)true navigation
E)all of the above
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Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Q1) It is estimated that a flock of wood buffalo crane should be able to sustain an r of 0.085 for the foreseeable future.If the flock currently contains 350 individuals,how long will it take for that population to double?
A)between 7.0 and 9.0 years
B)between 9.0 and 11.0 years
C)between 11.0 and 13.0 years
D)less than 7 years
E)more than 13 years
Q2) You observe two female fish of the same species breeding.One female lays 100 eggs and the other female lays 1000 eggs.Which one of the following statements does not agree with the concept of fitness trade-offs?
A)The female laying 100 eggs should be able to breed more often compared to the female laying 1000 eggs.
B)The female laying 100 eggs should live longer than the female laying 1000 eggs.
C)The eggs from the female laying 1000 eggs should have larger yolks compared to the yolks of the eggs from the female laying 100 eggs.
D)The female laying 1000 eggs should be larger than the female laying 100 eggs.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) According to Figure 53.1,which species is more successful in competing for seeds?
A)species 1
B)species 2
C)These species do not compete for seeds.
D)This figure does not illustrate which species is more successful.
Q2) Bouchard and Brooks studied the effect of insect flight on dispersal and speciation in rain forest insects.They sampled all of the insects in the study area and found that 60 insect species are flightless and 19 are macropterous (able to fly).What can you conclude so far about this study?
(P)Bouchard and D.R.Brooks.2004.Effect of vagility potential on dispersal and speciation in rainforest insects.Journal of Evolutionary Biology 17: 994-1006. )
A)Flightless insects have a greater dispersal potential from this study area.
B)Flightless insects are more numerous in the study area.
C)Flightless insects have a higher diversity in the study area.
D)Flightless insects are better suited for the tropics.
E)These data do not lead to a conclusion.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following consume other living organisms?
A)primary producers
B)herbivores
C)carnivores
D)decomposers
E)both herbivores and carnivores
Q2) Which habitat types in Figure 54.3 cover the largest area?
A)tropical wet forest plus the ocean neritic zone
B)open ocean
C)algal beds and reefs plus the ocean neritic zone
D)wetlands plus the ocean neritic zone
Q3) Considering the global carbon cycle,where are humans having a large impact?
A)terrestrial ecosystems
B)oceans
C)atmosphere
D)beneath the surface of the Earth
E)in both terrestrial ecosystems and the atmosphere
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28455
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the true statement regarding species diversity and taxonomic diversity?
A)Species diversity measures the relative frequency of all alleles present in a species.
B)In taxonomic diversity,the evolutionary relationships of species in a lineage are important.
C)In species diversity,the number of animals in a particular lineage is important.
D)The variety of species in a given area represents taxonomic diversity.
Q2) Which one of the following is likely not a hotspot for birds?
A)Amazon River basin
B)East Africa
C)Southwest China
D)Southwest United States
Q3) Upon looking at Figure 55.3,what can you conclude about the data?
A)As species richness changes,plant biomass remains consistent.
B)As species richness increases,plant biomass increases.
C)As species richness increases,plant biomass increases and then levels off.
D)As species richness decreases,plant biomass increases.
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