Principles of Biology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology introduces students to the foundational concepts of biological science, covering the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Emphasizing the scientific method and the unifying themes in biology, this course explores how living organisms interact with each other and their environments. Through lectures, laboratory work, and critical analysis, students gain an understanding of life processes, from the molecular level to complex ecosystems, preparing them for advanced studies in biology and related disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Science for Life with Physiology Edition 5th Edition by Colleen M. Belk
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25 Chapters
1631 Verified Questions
1631 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Can Science Cure the Common Cold
Introduction to the Scientific Method
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79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a scientific theory?
A) an explanation supported by large amounts of experimental evidence
B) an explanation that cannot be modified with new experimental evidence
C) little more than one person's educated guess
D) any testable explanation for a question or problem
Answer: A
Q2) What does sampling error refer to?
A) the difficulty in accurately measuring results that are incalculable
B) the differences between a group of experimental subjects and the population as a whole
C) the experimental results that do not support the hypothesis being tested
D) the intentional biases on the part of researchers
Answer: B
Q3) Why are double-blind experiments used?
A) The results will be more biased.
B) The results will be more controlled.
C) The results will be more objective.
D) The results will be more statistically significant.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Science Fiction, Bad Science, and
Pseudoscience:
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term best describes the sugar in a sugarwater solution?
A) product
B) reactant
C) solute
D) solvent
Answer: C
Q2) What type of electric charge do protons carry?
A) negative
B) positive
C) neutral
D) no charge
Answer: B
Q3) Imagine a newly discovered biological molecule that is mostly hydrophobic in its structure. How would this new molecule be classified?
A) carbohydrate
B) lipid
C) nucleic acid
D) protein
Answer: B
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Is It Possible to Supplement Your Way to Better
Performance and Health
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What cell structure defines the outer boundary of all cells, separating the cell's contents from its environment? (two words)
Answer: plasma membrane
Q2) What are nutrients that the human body requires in large quantities?
A) micronutrients
B) macronutrients
C) vitamins
D) minerals
Answer: B
Q3) Which cell component is composed of microtubules and helps move chromosomes around during cell division?
A) centriole
B) chromatin
C) cytoskeletal element
D) nucleolus
Answer: A
Q4) What is the type of diffusion in which water moves down a concentration gradient?
Answer: osmosis
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Chapter
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What actually happens when pyruvic acid loses a carbon dioxide molecule after glycolysis?
A) The pyruvic acid is denatured.
B) The pyruvic acid is phosphorylated.
C) The pyruvic acid is decarboxylated.
D) The pyruvic acid is oxidated.
Q2) What is the function of the protein channel where H ions escape into the matrix of the mitochondrion?
A) to add a phosphate to ADP
B) to remove a phosphate from ATP
C) to break the bonds of ATP
D) to create ADP from ATP
Q3) Which disease may be associated with low levels of body fat and low levels of estrogen?
A) diabetes
B) stroke
C) heart attack
D) osteoporosis
Q4) What proteins, working in series, catalyze the reactions of the citric acid cycle?
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Chapter 5: Life in the Greenhouse: Photosynthesis and Climate Change
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which process does water vapor exit plant stomata?
A) condensation
B) combustion
C) evaporation
D) transpiration
Q2) What happens when water is heated?
A) It's broken into hydrogen and oxygen atoms.
B) New hydrogen bonds are created between water molecules.
C) Hydrogen bonds between water molecules are broken.
D) Hydrogen atoms jump from one water molecule to another water molecule.
Q3) Which plants are best adapted for very dry, hot environments such as deserts?
A) C plants
B) C plants
C) C plants
D) CAM plants
Q4) What is the abbreviated name of the enzyme ribulose biphosphate carboxylase oxygenase that catalyzes the reaction between carbon dioxide and ribulose bisphosphate?
Page 7
Q5) What does the glucose molecule supply to cells?
Q6) What cells regulate gas exchange by opening and closing the stomata?
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Cancer: DNA Synthesis, Mitosis, and Meiosis
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does radiation therapy work on cancer cells?
A) Radiation limits microtubule formation, affecting chromosome alignment during mitosis.
B) Radiation causes tumor cells to stick together, making them easier to remove.
C) Radiation damages DNA in cells so that cells can no longer grow and divide.
D) Radiation makes cancer cells divide so fast that they may develop extra mutations and die.
Q2) What process occurs when cancer cells detach from tumors and spread to other parts of the body?
A) angiogenesis
B) carcinogenesis
C) metastasis
D) mutagenesis
Q3) What is the region in the middle of a replicated chromosome that connects sister chromatids?
A) centriole
B) centromere
C) karyotype
D) chromatid
Q4) What enzyme assists in DNA synthesis? (two words)
Page 9
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Chapter 7:
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71 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many different types of offspring (genotypes) are possible as a result of this cross, according to the Punnett square in the diagram?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) What is the correct sequence for the start of an organism's life cycle?
A) fertilization meiosis zygote embryo
B) meiosis fertilization zygote embryo
C) fertilization zygote meiosis embryo
D) meiosis fertilization embryo zygote
Q3) What may result if a mutation occurs in a gene?
A) There may be no effect on the protein encoded by the gene.
B) A nonfunctional protein may be created.
C) A protein with a new function will not be formed.
D) The phenotype of the organism may be changed.
Q4) What term refers to the genetic makeup of an organism?
Q5) What term refers to an individual who has two copies of the same allele?
Q7) What type of genetic cross involves two traits? Page 10
Q6) What term refers to the physical traits of an organism?
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Chapter 8: DNA Detective: Complex Patterns of Inheritance and
Dna Profiling
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is codominance expressed in an organism?
A) Both of the alleles in a heterozygote are expressed phenotypically in an individual.
B) Expression of two different alleles alternates from one generation to the next.
C) A heterozygote expresses an intermediate phenotype.
D) Offspring exhibit several different phenotypic expressions of a single trait.
Q2) What blood type would a person who is homozygous recessive for all blood type alleles have?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
Q3) What pattern of inheritance includes the AB blood type, in which both A and B alleles are expressed?
A) incomplete dominance
B) codominance
C) independent assortment
D) sex linkage
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Chapter 9: Genetically Modified Organisms: Gene
Expression, Mutation,
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66 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What determines the structure of a protein?
A) the number of amino acids it contains
B) the sequence of the amino acids it contains
C) the function of the nucleic acids it contains
D) the number of fatty acids it contains
Q2) What situation results from a frameshift mutation?
A) One or two nucleotides are added or deleted in a DNA strand.
B) Amino acids are assembled into normal, functional proteins.
C) The DNA is always modified in such a way that protein synthesis is prevented.
D) An amino acid is substituted with a similar one that has no effect on protein synthesis.
Q3) What signal, when present at the ribosome, causes protein synthesis to end?
A) DNA
B) tRNA
C) a stop codon
D) RNA polymerase
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Chapter 10: Where Did We Come From the Evidence for Evolution
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72 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) True or false: The fields of science that support the theory of evolution include geology, molecular biology, and genetics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of evidence for the theory of common descent would include the presence of goose bumps in humans?
A) vestigial structures
B) homologous structures
C) shared developmental pathways
D) DNA similarity
Q3) Bat wings are homologous to the front legs of cats. What does the term homologous mean in this context?
A) Both structures are used for the same purpose.
B) The common ancestor of bats and cats had limbs that functioned as wings.
C) The common ancestor of bats and cats had a limb with a bone structure similar to that found in cat legs and bat wings.
D) Bat wings are vestigial legs.
Q4) What type of trait includes the tailbone found in humans and other primates without tails?
Page 14
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Chapter 11: An Evolving Enemy: Natural Selection
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is able to evolve?
A) individual cats in a home
B) a population of asexually reproducing bacteria
C) a rose bush
D) an HIV virus that has infected a patient
Q2) Your friend was diagnosed with strep throat 2 months ago. She was treated with antibiotics for 10 days, but two weeks after treatment, the symptoms returned. She was given a different antibiotic and her symptoms improved again, initially, but then got worse. What is happening?
A) Your friend has taken antibiotics so long that she has become tolerant to them, making them ineffective.
B) Exposure to antibiotics has caused each individual bacterial cell to evolve resistance to the antibiotics.
C) Your friend was originally infected with some bacteria that were resistant to these two antibiotics and the bacteria multiplied.
D) Your friend probably doesn't have a bacterial infection. There must be some other reason for her symptoms.
Q3) What is the raw material for evolution?
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Chapter 12: Who Am I Species and Races
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What situation results from a postfertilization barrier to reproduction?
A) mutations in genes that control development
B) offspring that fail to develop
C) mechanical isolation of a species
D) gamete incompatibility
Q2) What effect do assortative matings have on populations?
A) They cause one sex to be much different than the other.
B) They cause isolated groups to be more similar to each other.
C) They increase the rate of mutations.
D) They maintain appearance differences between groups.
Q3) True or false: A genealogical species definition includes fewer organisms than a biological species definition.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What results after a speciation event?
A) Two species have evolved that are each different from the original species.
B) One new species evolves, while the original species stays the same.
C) One new species evolves, while the original species may stay the same or evolve into something different.
D) One new species evolves, while the original species goes extinct.
Page 16
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Chapter 13: The Greatest Species on Earth Biodiversity and Classification
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61 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) True or false: Mitochondria and chloroplasts of eukaryotic cells are very similar to prokaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why will the leftovers in your refrigerator be guaranteed to eventually grow mold?
A) Fungi get nutrients from internal processes.
B) Fungi have cell walls.
C) Fungi are widespread and reproduce quickly.
D) Fungi often produce antibiotics.
Q3) Algae are classified as part of which group?
A) Plantae
B) Protista
C) Fungi
D) Archaea
Q4) What evolutionary milestone is shown in the figure?
A) bacteria evolving into archaea
B) prokaryotes evolving into eukaryotes
C) protists evolving into animals
D) algae evolving into plants
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Chapter 14: Is the Human Population Too Large Population
Ecology
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the steep and sudden decline in a population size as birth rates plummet and death rates soar?
A) carrying capacity
B) a "boom and bust" cycle
C) demographic momentum
D) a population crash
Q2) Why may human populations surpass the carrying capacity of their environment?
A) temporary reliance on stored or nonrenewable resources
B) sudden population crashes
C) increases in death rates as the population growth approaches carrying capacity
D) decreases in birth rates as resources are depleted
Q3) Based on estimates that consider the NPP of Earth and human use of these resources, what is the carrying capacity of people calculated by scientists?
A) 6.6 billion
B) 10.6 billion
C) 21 billion
D) 40 billion
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Chapter 15: Conserving Biodiversity: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many mass extinctions were experienced on a global scale before the alarming mass extinction that's now occurring?
A) six
B) five
C) two
D) none
Q2) What law was passed to address the problem of rapid species loss in the United States?
A) the Endangered Species Act of 1973
B) the Wilson-Biophilia Act of 1994
C) the Biodiversity Act of 1975
D) the Human Intervention Act of 1979
Q3) Cattle egrets hitch a ride on domestic cows and eat insects that are stirred up by their activity. What term describes this relationship?
A) commensalism
B) competition
C) predation
D) parasitism
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Chapter 16: Where Do You Live Climate and Biomes
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72 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which evolutionary adaptation is found in a typical desert plant?
A) shallow roots to quickly capture water
B) broad leaves to capture the bright sunlight
C) long-blooming flowers to attract pollinators
D) deep roots to capture all available moisture
Q2) In a general sense, ________ refers to short term environmental conditions, and ________ refers to long term environmental conditions.
Q3) When a patch of land is cleared in a tropical rainforest, the vegetation is often burned to enrich the soil with nutrients from the burned plant material. What description applies to this situation?
A) This works well because so many nutrients are trapped in tropical plants.
B) This works for a few years, but the soil is soon depleted of nutrients.
C) This isn't necessary because tropical soils are filled with nutrients.
D) This helps to promote long-term sustainable agriculture.
Q4) What is the purpose of the fragrant oils found in rosemary and thyme?
A) They encourage humans to pick them and spread their seeds.
B) They protect the plants from fire.
C) They help fuel fires, to which they've become adapted.
D) They discourage humans from consuming the plants.
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Chapter 17: Organ Donation: Tissues and Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct sequence of bodily organization, from simple to complex?
A) cells-tissues-organs-organ systems-organism
B) organs-organ systems-tissues-cells-organism
C) tissues-cells-organs-organ systems-organism
D) cells-tissues-organ systems-organs-organism
Q2) What is a function of loose connective tissue?
A) to hold organs in place
B) to store energy-rich reserves of fat
C) to move substances throughout the body
D) to contract when signaled by nerve cells
Q3) What example of homeostasis includes the maintenance of constant internal body temperature?
Q4) The liver filters which of the following from the blood?
A) toxins
B) chyme
C) hepatocytes
D) glycogen
Q5) What tissue type protects the body from water loss?
Q6) What connective tissue is made from substances secreted by osteocytes?
Page 21
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Chapter 18: Binge Drinking: the Digestive and Urinary Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) True or false: Filtration is the process by which plasma is forced through tiny holes in the capillary walls by blood pressure and into the upstream end of the nephron.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What strategy will encourage a safer engagement with alcohol?
A) adding energy drinks to any alcoholic beverage
B) alternating drinking glasses of water with alcoholic drinks
C) drinking only two to three alcoholic beverages per hour
D) eating a large meal after consuming alcohol
Q3) What would a person born without an epiglottis not be able to do?
A) digest fats
B) digest proteins
C) absorb the products of digestion
D) swallow food without a high risk of choking
Q4) Which organ system acts upon substances contained in the alimentary canal?
A) circulatory system
B) digestive system
C) integumentary system
D) excretory system
22
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Chapter 19: Clearing the Air: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic smoking can lead to the formation of scar tissue in the lungs, permanently damaging alveoli. What condition results from this process?
A) bronchitis
B) asthma
C) emphysema
D) lung cancer
Q2) What is the advantage of having grape-like clusters called alveoli as part of the respiratory system?
A) Alveoli allow for an increase in surface area, which maximizes gas exchange.
B) Alveoli are circular in structure, which is ideal for maximal gas exchange.
C) Because alveoli have thinner walls, gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated.
D) The grape-like shape of alveoli allows capillaries to be in closer proximity to gases.
Q3) As air is inhaled, which of these four structures is the last to be encountered?
A) larynx
B) trachea
C) bronchiole
D) bronchi
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Chapter 20: Vaccination: Protection and Prevention or Peril
Immune System,
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68 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why would individuals with HIV sometimes contract a pneumonia infection that's rare in the rest of the population?
A) They lack helper T cells.
B) They produce too many antibodies to the virus.
C) They possess more antigen diversity.
D) They lack B lymphocytes.
Q2) A mother, father, and son live together in the same house. The mother passes a cold to her son. The son then passes the cold to his father. If the virus has not mutated, should the mother be worried about catching the cold again from her husband?
A) No, memory cells will help the mother's immune system to quickly eliminate the virus.
B) Yes, although the mother has produced some antibodies to the cold virus, it can still overwhelm her immune system.
C) No, the T cells that are left from the previous infection can kill off any virus.
D) Yes, the immune system will treat the cold virus like a new infectious agent.
Q3) Where are developing lymphocytes tested to determine whether they'll bind to self-proteins?
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Chapter 21: Human Sex Differences: Endocrine, Skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) While ________ are involved in bone deposition, ________ are involved in the breakdown of bone tissue.
Q2) Into what units are the myofibrils of skeletal muscle organized?
A) A discs
B) sarcomeres
C) Z discs
D) antagonistic pairs
Q3) True or false: Because women have a broader pelvis, their Q angle is smaller than the Q angle in men.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which type of skeleton protects a human's soft internal organs?
Q5) You are a famous endocrinologist and are presented with a case in which a genetically determined male (XY) exhibits secondary female characteristics, including breast development and lack of facial hair growth. What may you hypothesize about this patient?
A) He may lack receptors for testosterone.
B) He may have a tumor in his testes causing an overproduction of testosterone.
C) He may be abusing steroids.
D) He may actually be perfectly healthy and normal.
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Chapter 22: Is There Something in the Water Reproductive and Developmental Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a diploid cell with 18 chromosomes undergoes meiosis, how many chromosomes will each of the resulting gametes have?
A) 18
B) 16
C) 9
D) 36
Q2) What condition could result from a disease of the bulbourethral glands?
A) insufficient levels of sugar available for sperm to use for energy
B) semen lacking any sperm
C) damaged sperm due to exposure to acidic urine
D) semen lacking the thin, milky white fluid
Q3) Asexual reproduction
A) requires the genetic contributions of two individuals.
B) requires two types of sex cells.
C) results in offspring that are clones of the parent.
D) results in fertilization.
Q4) During labor, what type of feedback mechanism involves the release of oxytocin, which stimulates the uterus to contract, and these contractions stimulate the release of more oxytocin resulting in ever stronger contractions?
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Chapter 23: Study Drugs: Brain Boost or Brain Drain Brain
Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the neuron receives nerve impulses and acts as an "antenna"?
A) axon
B) cell body
C) dendrite
D) nerve
Q2) What does polarization refer to?
A) the electrical signal generated by neurons
B) the lack of concentration gradient for sodium
C) the decrease in charge difference across a membrane
D) the difference in charge across a membrane
Q3) Scientists have known for centuries that we "speak" with the left hemisphere of the brain. You perform an experiment in which your subject was presented with an apple only to the left visual field. When asked to identify what he saw, the subject denied seeing anything. However, when asked to point to the correct object, he was able to see and identify the apple. Which reason would explain this deficit?
A) The subject has a brain lesion in the frontal lobes.
B) The subject suffered head trauma to the back of his head.
C) The subject has a tumor in the left parietal lobe.
D) The subject had his corpus callosum severed to control epileptic seizures.
Page 27
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Chapter 24: Feeding the World: Plant Structure and Growth
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Q1) What are the two most "precious liquids" needed for modern agricultural practices in developed countries?
A) water and liquid fertilizer
B) water and oil
C) oil and pesticides
D) liquid fertilizer and pesticides
Q2) What type of growth does a plant exhibit when its trunk gets thicker?
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) determinate
Q3) What percentage of corn grown in the United States is used to feed hogs, chickens, and turkeys?
A) 10%
B) 50%
C) 80%
D) 95%
Q4) What is the concentration of persistent toxic chemicals at higher levels within a food chain or food web?
Q5) Pollination occurs when the pollen of a flower lands on which plant structure?
Page 28
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Chapter 25: Growing a Green Thumb: Plant Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone promotes the abscission of leaves and fruits?
A) auxin
B) ethylene
C) cytokinin
D) gibberellin
Q2) What process is responsible for the flow of water through a plant, from the soil to the leaves?
A) translocation
B) transpiration
C) respiration
D) internal pumping
Q3) What is the negative water pressure in the xylem of a plant?
A) torsion
B) cohesion
C) adhesion
D) tension
Q4) Which plants live for many years and produce flowers every year?
Q5) What is the response of a plant to the proportion of light and dark in a day?
Q6) Plants that have undergone a gradual cooling period and are able to resist cold environmental temperatures are referred to as ________.
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