Principles of Biology Exam Preparation Guide - 1118 Verified Questions

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Principles of Biology Exam Preparation Guide

Course Introduction

Principles of Biology introduces students to the foundational concepts of biological science, exploring the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, and the diversity of life. The course emphasizes an understanding of how living organisms interact with each other and their environment, as well as the molecular and cellular processes that underlie life. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and discussions, students gain insights into the scientific method, develop critical thinking skills, and build a strong basis for advanced study in the biological sciences.

Recommended Textbook Essentials of Genetics 8th Edition by William S. Klug

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Genetics

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Q1) List the two relatively complex processes in which genetic information is converted into functional products.

Answer: transcription and translation

Q2) Archeological evidence indicates that the earliest domestication of plants and animals occurred within the past 2000 years.

Answer: False

Q3) Name two individuals who provided the conceptual basis for our present understanding that genes are on chromosomes.

Answer: Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri

Q4) In nonviral systems,what is the nature of the hereditary substance?

Answer: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)is a double-stranded polymer organized as a double helix.

Q5) Organisms that are well understood from a scientific standpoint and are often used in basic biological research are called ________.

Answer: model organisms

Q6) Arabidopsis is a model organism for the study of ________.

Answer: plants

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Chapter 2: Mitosis and Meiosis

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Q1) An organism with a diploid chromosome number of 46 will produce 2²³ combinations of chromosomes at the end of meiosis.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) If a typical G1 nucleus contains 2C (two complements)of DNA,a gamete that is haploid (n)contains 1C of DNA.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) When cells withdraw from the continuous cell cycle and enter a "quiescent" phase,which stage are they said to be in?

Answer: G0

Q4) In which stage of the cell cycle is G0 located?

Answer: G1

Q5) How many haploid sets of chromosomes are present in a diploid individual cell with a chromosome number of 46? 32?

Answer: 2; 2

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Chapter 3: Mendelian Genetics

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Q1) The autosomal (not X-linked)gene for brachydactyly,short fingers,is dominant to normal finger length.Assume that a female with brachydactyly in the heterozygous condition is married to a man with normal fingers.What is the probability that (a)their first child will have brachydactyly?

(b)their first two children will have brachydactyly?

(c)their first child will be a brachydactylous girl?

Answer: (a)1/2

(b)1/2 X 1/2 = 1/4

(c)1/2 X 1/2 = 1/4

Q2) How many kinds of gametes will be expected from an individual with the genotype PpCcTTRr?

Answer: 8

Q3) In a Chi-square test,as the value of the ² increases,the likelihood of rejecting the null hypothesis ________.

Answer: increases

Q4) Mendel's Law of Segregation is supported by a 1:1 testcross ratio.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 4: Modification of Mendelian Ratios

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Q1) Pattern baldness is determined by a single autosomal gene pair.When females are homozygous for this gene pair,can they show pattern baldness?

Q2) Many of the color varieties of summer squash are determined by several interacting loci: AA or Aa gives white,aaBB or aaBb gives yellow,and aabb produces green.Assume that two fully heterozygous plants are crossed.Give the phenotypes (with frequencies)of the offspring.

Q3) A 9:7 ratio indicates incomplete dominance.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Many of the color varieties of summer squash are determined by several interacting loci: AA or Aa gives white,aaBB or aaBb gives yellow,and aabb produces green.Crosses among heterozygotes give a 12:3:1 ratio.What type of gene interaction would account for these results?

Q5) Which types of ratios are likely to occur in crosses (F<sub>2</sub>)when one is dealing with two interacting,epistatic gene pairs?

Q6) A typical epistatic ratio is 9:3:4.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Sex Determination and Sex Chromosomes

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Q1) Dosage compensation leads to a variety of interesting coat color patterns in certain mammals.For instance,a female cat that is heterozygous for two coat color alleles,say black and orange,will usually have the "calico" or mosaic phenotype.Describe the chromosomal basis for the mosaicism (calico)in the female.Explain why chromosomally normal male cats do not show the mosaic phenotype,but XXY male cats can be calico.

Q2) An individual with Klinefelter syndrome generally has one Barr body.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A color-blind woman with Turner syndrome (XO)has a father who is color-blind.Given that the gene for the color-blind condition is recessive and X-linked,provide a likely explanation for the origin of the color-blind and cytogenetic conditions in the woman.

Q4) What can cause phenotypic mosaicism for X-linked genes in female mammals?

Q5) Studies done in the 1960s suggested that individuals with the XYY condition were prone to criminal behavior.What conclusions currently seem appropriate concerning this chromosomal condition?

Q6) In Drosophila,the female is the heterogametic sex.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Chromosome Mutations: Variation in Number and Arrangement

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Sample Questions

Q1) The condition that exists when an organism gains or loses one or more chromosomes but not a complete haploid set is known as ________.

A)polyploidy

B)euploidy

C)aneuploidy

D)triploidy

E)trisomy

Q2) In what way might gene duplication play a role in evolution?

Q3) Gene duplications provide an explanation for the origin of gene families.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Inversion heterokaryotypes are often characterized as having reduced crossing over and reduced fertility.Assume that you were examining a strain of organisms you knew to be inversion heterokaryotypes and saw a relatively high number of double chromatid bridges extending between anaphase I nuclei.What would be a likely explanation for this observation? Explain with a labeled diagram.

Q5) What explanation is generally given for lethality of monosomic individuals?

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Q6) Provide an example of gene redundancy that occurs in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes.

Chapter 7: Linkage and Chromosome Mapping in Eukaryotes

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Q1) What are two commonly used DNA landmarks for mapping human genes?

Q2) What advantage does BrdU (bromodeoxyuridine)have in the study of chromosome structure and recombination?

Q3) Sister chromatid exchanges increase in frequency in the presence of X rays,certain viruses,ultraviolet light,and certain chemical mutagens.In what autosomal recessive disorder is there known to be an increase in sister chromatid exchanges?

Q4) Diagram chromosomal events that will ultimately result in the segregation of alleles (A and a)during meiosis II rather than meiosis I.

Q5) The cross GE/ge X ge/ge produces the following progeny: GE/ge 404,ge/ge 396,gE/ge 97,Ge/ge 103.From these data,one can conclude that there are 20 map units between the G and E loci.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Assume that a cross is made between AaBb and aabb plants and that the offspring occur in the following numbers: 106 AaBb,48 Aabb,52 aaBb,94 aabb.These results are consistent with which arrangement of genes?

Q7) Describe a convenient method for determining gene order from three-point cross results.

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Chapter 8: Genetic Analysis and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages

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Sample Questions

Q1) Distinguish between F<sup>+</sup> and F<sup>- </sup>bacteria.

Q2) What experimental observation demonstrated that genes are involved in the integration of foreign DNA into the bacterial chromosome?

Q3) The "interrupted mating technique" provides a genetic map in Drosophila.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Lysogeny is most likely associated with transduction.

A)True

B)False

Q5) In a bacterial cross in which the donor (Hfr)is a<sup>+b+</sup> and the recipient strain (F<sup>-</sup>)is a<sup>+b+</sup>,it is expected that recombinant bacteria will all be a<sup>+b+</sup>.

A)True

B)False

Q6) What is a merozygote?

Q7) Bacteria that are in a particular physiological state to become transformed are called ________.

Page 10

Q8) How does an auxotroph differ from a prototroph?

Q9) What is a bacteriophage?

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Chapter 9: DNA structure and Analysis

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Q1) The base content of a sample of DNA is as follows: A = 31%,G = 31%,T = 19%,C = 19%.What conclusion can be drawn from this information?

Q2) Assume that the molar percentage of thymine in a double-stranded DNA is 20.What are the percentages of the four bases (G,C,T,A)? If the DNA is single-stranded,would you change your answer?

Q3) Briefly define transformation and describe the relationship between the phenomenon of transformation and the discovery that DNA is the genetic material in bacteria.

Q4) In the 1860s,a Swiss chemist,Friedrick Miescher,isolated an acidic substance from cell nuclei.What was the name of this substance,and what was its significance?

Q5) During the polymerization of nucleic acids,covalent bonds are formed between neighboring nucleotides.Which carbons are involved in such bonds?

Q6) Hershey and Chase used labeled DNA and protein to determine that DNA is the genetic material in bacteria.

A)True

B)False

Q7) List three forms of DNA.

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Chapter 10: DNA Replication and Recombination

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Q1) Which structural circumstance in DNA sets up the requirement for the semidiscontinuous nature of its replication?

Q2) Which cluster of terms accurately reflects the nature of DNA replication in prokaryotes?

A)fixed point of initiation,bidirectional,conservative

B)fixed point of initiation,unidirectional,conservative

C)random point of initiation,bidirectional,semiconservative

D)fixed point of initiation,bidirectional,semiconservative

E)random point of initiation,unidirectional,semiconservative

Q3) The Meselson and Stahl experiment provided conclusive evidence for the semiconservative replication of DNA in E.Coli.What pattern of bands would occur in a CsCl gradient for conservative replication?

Q4) DNA replication in vivo requires a primer with a free 3' end.What molecular species provides this 3' end,and how is it provided?

Q5) Describe the function of the RecA protein.

Q6) DNA replication occurs in the 5' to 3' direction; that is,new nucleoside triphosphates are added to the 3' end.

A)True B)False

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Chapter 11: Chromosome Structure and DNA Sequence

Organization

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Sample Questions

Q1) Approximately how much of the mammalian genome is composed of repetitive DNA?

Q2) In addition to highly repetitive and unique DNA sequences,a third category of DNA sequences exists.What is it called,and which types of elements are involved in it?

A)composite DNA; telomeres and heterochromatin

B)dominant DNA; euchromatin and heterochromatin

C)multiple gene family DNA; hemoglobin and 5.0S RNA

D)moderately repetitive DNA; SINEs,LINEs,and VNTRs

E)permissive DNA; centromeres and heterochromatin

Q3) How do VNTRs relate to DNA fingerprinting?

Q4) Viral genomes are always linear,double-stranded DNA.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Although mutations have been observed in many different genes,they have not been isolated in histones.Why does this seem reasonable? If one wanted to produce antibodies to histones,would it be an easy task? Explain your answer.

Q6) What is unusual about the amino acid composition of histones? How is the function of histones related to the amino acid composition? Of which histones are nucleosomes composed?

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Chapter 12: The Genetic Code and Transcription

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Sample Questions

Q1) The relationship between codon and anticodon can be characterized as involving

Q2) Of the following three types of nucleic acids-DNA,mRNA,tRNA-which is most likely to contain modified bases?

Q3) A base at the first position of an anticodon on the tRNA would pair with a base at the ________ position of the mRNA.

Q4) What is the name given to the three bases in a messenger RNA that bind to the anticodon of tRNA to specify an amino acid placement in a protein?

A)protein

B)anti-anticodon

C)cistron

D)rho

E)codon

Q5) The triplet AUG is commonly used as a start codon during translation.

A)True

B)False

Q6) RNA processing occurs when amino acids are removed from nascent proteins. A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Translation and Proteins

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Q1) The ribonucleic acid components known to exist in eukaryotic ribosomes are the following: 5.8S,18S,28S,and 5S.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which protein class directly controls many of the metabolic reactions within a cell?

A)structural proteins

B)repressor proteins

C)operator proteins

D)enzymes

E)hydrophilic proteins

Q3) A procedure that is often used to separate molecules by using their molecular charges is called ________.

Q4) The primary structure of a protein is determined by ________.

A)the sequence of amino acids

B)hydrogen bonds formed between the components of the peptide linkage

C)a series of helical domains

D)pleated sheets

E)covalent bonds formed between fibroin residues

Q5) What is the structure of HbF,fetal hemoglobin?

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Chapter 14: Gene Mutation,DNA Repair,and Transposition

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Q1) What is the common influence of ultraviolet light on DNA?

Q2) Two formal terms used to describe categories of mutational nucleotide substitutions in DNA are ________.

A)base analogs and frameshift

B)error prone and spontaneous

C)transversions and transitions

D)euchromatic and heterochromatic

E)sense and antisense

Q3) What is the Ames test,and how does it work?

Q4) Under certain conditions,the rate of mutation of a particular gene may be determined in humans.Name three properties of the mutation that would favor the most direct determination of mutation rate in humans.

Q5) All insertion sequences (IS elements)contain two features that are essential for their movement.What are these two elements?

A)transposase and inverted terminal repeats

B)integrase and pseudogenes

C)integrase and oncogenes

D)proto-oncogenes and oncogenes

E)transposase and oncogenes

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Chapter 15: Regulation of Gene Expression

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Q1) In general,one could say that there are fewer levels of regulation possible in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What is alternative splicing?

Q3) Describe what is meant by a gratuitous inducer.Give an example.

Q4) Within the control region of the trp operon is a section of DNA that is sensitive to levels of tryptophan in the system.What is the name of this region?

Q5) Describe how nucleosomes may influence gene transcription.

Q6) Two modular elements that appear as consensus sequences upstream from RNA polymerase II transcription start sites are ________.

A)microsatellites and transposons

B)rDNA and nucleolar organizers

C)TATA and CAAT

D)TTAA and CCTT

E)enhancers and telomeres

Q7) Describe three characteristics of enhancers.

Q8) How are siRNA and miRNAs similar?

Q9) Describe the function and general nature of promoters in eukaryotes.

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Chapter 16: The Genetics of Cancer

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Q1) The retinoblastoma protein (pRB),like p53,serves as a(n)________ in regulating the cell cycle.

A)tumor suppressor

B)tumor enhancer

C)up regulator

D)oncogene

E)pseudooncogene

Q2) Name two classes of proteins that combine to directly control progression through the cell cycle.

Q3) Provide a simple definition of a carcinogen.

Q4) Any agent that causes damage to DNA is a potential carcinogen.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Describe the molecular nature of mutation,as related to cancer,in a ras gene.

Q6) Which protein combines with cyclins to exert local control of the cell cycle?

A)cyclin-dependent kinase

B)phosphatase

C)ATPase

D)integrase

E)hexokinase

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Chapter 17: Recombinant DNA Technology

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Q1) Some restriction enzymes cleave DNA in such a manner as to produce blunt ends.Ligation of blunt end fragments is most often enhanced by the use of the enzyme terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase.Speculate on the function of deoxynucleotidyl transferase in terms of using blunt end fragments in cloning.

Q2) When propagating a clone in the lambda phage,would you have more immediate success if the phage entered the lysogenic cycle or the lytic cycle?

Q3) What is meant by the designation EcoRI?

Q4) E.coli is a common YAC.

A)True

B)False

Q5) In the context of molecular genetics,reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR)refers to

A)assembling a DNA sequence from an mRNA

B)assembling an RNA sequence from a DNA sequence

C)translating in the 3' to 5' direction

D)transcribing first,then translating

E)making an amino acid sequence from a DNA sequence

Q6) What is recombinant DNA technology? What are the safety issues related to recombinant DNA technology?

Page 20

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Chapter 18: Genomics,Bioinformatics,and Proteomics

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Q1) Intron frequency varies considerably among eukaryotes.Provide a general comparison of intron frequencies in yeast and humans.What about intron size?

Q2) What is ELSI?

Q3) What is meant by the term pseudogene?

Q4) Explain the goal of the emerging discipline called systems biology.

Q5) The terms proteomics and genomics mean essentially the same thing.

A)True

B)False

Q6) The term paralog is often used in conjunction with discussions of hemoglobin genes.What does this term mean,and how does it apply to hemoglobin genes?

Q7) Compared with prokaryotic chromosomes,eukaryotic chromosomes are

A)large,mainly organized in single gene transcription units without introns

B)small,mainly organized in single gene transcription units with introns

C)large,mainly organized in polygenic transcription units without introns

D)small,mainly organized in polygenic transcription units without introns

E)large,linear,less densely packed with protein-coding genes,mainly organized in single gene units with introns

Q8) What is comparative genomics?

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Chapter 19: Applications and Ethics of Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology

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Q1) Rational drug design involves the synthesis of specific chemical substances that affect specific gene products.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A DNA microarray (also called a DNA chip)can be used to ________.

A)mutate genes of interest

B)isolate genes from eukaryotic cell nuclei

C)assay protein output from a genomic database

D)trap genes that are both active and inactive

E)scan a population of nucleic acids for abundance and mutations

Q3) Once DNA is separated on a gel,it is often desirable to gain some idea of its informational content.How might this be done?

Q4) A term often used to describe an organism that is a genetic mosaic,resulting from the introduction of DNA from another organism,is ________.

Q5) The Human Genome Project seeks to rid the human population of genetic disease.

A)True

B)False

Q6) How are gene therapy and recombinant DNA technology related?

Page 22

Q7) How is a microarray used to scan for mutations in a genome?

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Chapter 20: Developmental Genetics

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Q1) What is the significance of the homeodomain?

Q2) Segmentation genes,such as the pair-rule class,are inherited through mitochondrial DNA in Drosophila.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Provide a brief description of the variable gene activity hypothesis as it relates to development.What information is often provided in support of this hypothesis?

Q4) Caenorhabditis elegans is extremely useful as an experimental organism because it has relatively few cells,and,for the most part,each embryonic cell's fate is developmentally fixed.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Do Hox gene clusters exist in humans? If so,how many are known to exist?

Q6) Give a brief definition of a homeobox.

Q7) In Drosophila,what is the order of function of the segmentation genes?

Q8) Which function earlier in development: maternal-effect genes or zygotic genes?

Q9) The bicoid gene of Drosophila generates embryos with two posterior regions.What aspect embryonic development does the bicoid gene control?

Page 23

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Chapter 21: Quantitative Genetics and Multifactorial Traits

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Q1) What is the formal expression used to examine the relative importance of genetic versus environmental factors?

Q2) Name two mammalian traits with relatively high heritability (h²)values and two with relatively low h² values.

Q3) The multiple factor hypothesis suggests that many factors or genes contribute to the phenotype in a cumulative or quantitative manner.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Interpret the meaning of an H² (broad-sense heritability)value that approaches 0.0.

Q5) Which two relatively recent extensions to QTL mapping center on molecular definitions of phenotypes with quantitative traits?

Q6) Provide a brief description of discontinuous inheritance and continuous inheritance.How are the two related? How are they different?

Q7) Provide a brief definition of the terms additive variance,dominance variance,and interactive variance.

Q8) Provide a formal equation for h² (narrow-sense heritability).

Q9) Name the three components of phenotypic variance.

Page 24

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Chapter 22: Population and Evolutionary Genetics

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Q1) What does the variable 2pq represent?

Q2) One of the Hardy-Weinberg assumptions states that all genotypes in the population are free of selective advantage.What influence might a selective advantage of a genotype have on a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

Q3) Which would change allele frequencies more quickly: selection against a dominant allele or selection against a recessive allele?

Q4) Which single event is probably common to all occurrences of speciation?

Q5) One of the Hardy-Weinberg assumptions states that the population is infinitely large.What influence might a small population size have on a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

Q6) Cytochrome c is a respiratory pigment found in the mitochondria of eukaryotes.Compared with some other proteins,it has changed very slowly over long periods of time.Why?

Q7) In a population of cattle,the following color distribution was noted: 36 percent red (RR),48 percent roan (Rr),and 16 percent white (rr).Is this population in a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? What will be the distribution of genotypes in the next generation if the Hardy-Weinberg assumptions are met?

Q8) List at least three factors that change gene frequencies in populations.

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Chapter 23: Conservation Genetics

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Q1) Interspecific diversity refers to diversity ________.

A)between species

B)within species

C)within a particular population

D)within an individual

E)within an isolated population

Q2) The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)estimated that since 1900,________ percent of the genetic diversity in agricultural crops has been lost.

A)20

B)30

C)50

D)75

E)90

Q3) Interspecific diversity and intraspecific diversity provide an assessment of essentially identical parameters.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is meant by the effective population size (N<sub>e</sub>)?

Q5) What is measured by the inbreeding coefficient (F)?

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