Principles of Biology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology provides an in-depth introduction to the foundational concepts of biological science. This course covers cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students will develop an understanding of key biological processes such as metabolism, reproduction, inheritance, and adaptation. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, experimental design, and the relevance of biology to current issues in health, technology, and the environment. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and group discussions, students gain practical skills and a comprehensive understanding of living systems.
Recommended Textbook
Biology 11th Edition by Sylvia Mader
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A View of Life
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT represent homeostasis?
A)Sensors detect CO<sub>2</sub> levels in the blood and trigger an increase or decrease in the rate of breathing.
B)When body temperature drops,you shiver to generate heat; when your body heats up,you sweat and the evaporation cools you.
C)Feelings of hunger and then fullness affect the length of time and quantity of food you eat,keeping your weight near a "set point."
D)Energy is captured by plants,then transferred to consumers and decomposers,and eventually lost as heat.
E)Cells adjusting the openings on the bottom of leaves respond to differences in water stress in order to maintain moisture inside the leaf.
Answer: D
Q2) Living organisms are characterized by:
A)adapting to the environment.
B)evolving over time.
C)displaying homeostatic controls.
D)all of the choices pertain to living organisms.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Q1) Which of the following would be a proposed mechanism by which stomach antacids work?
A)Antacids dilute the solution,therefore lowering the pH.
B)Antacids are bases and by definition can absorb H<sup>+</sup> out of a solution.
C)Antacids are bases and by definition can absorb OH<sup>-</sup> out of a solution.
D)Antacids contain mostly water and so they neutralize the solution.
Answer: B
Q2) In a water molecule,
A)the oxygen atom is more electronegative than the hydrogen atoms.
B)the oxygen atom has an overall negative charge with the hydrogen atoms having an overall positive charge.
C)unequal sharing of electrons results in a polar molecule.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) Draw two hydrogen atoms using Bohr's model.Now bond them to form a molecule of hydrogen gas.Write the molecular formula.Explain what type of bond you've created and why this is a stable situation.
Answer: NOT ANSWER
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4
Chapter 3: The Chemistry of Organic Molecules
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Q1) After eating eggs for breakfast,you return in the evening,dunk the dirty dishes in water,and notice the yellow streaks remain "dried on." However,after soaking awhile,the complex of various egg yolk molecules easily "washes off." What has happened?
A)Heating denatured the egg protein molecules,hydrolysis reactions then formed bonds in the dried egg,and soaking in water eventually resulted in condensation reactions where water broke these bonds.
B)Heating denatured the egg protein molecules,unorganized condensation reactions then formed bonds in the drying egg,and soaking in water eventually resulted in hydrolysis reactions where water broke these bonds.
C)The egg monomers were fused to become one polymer,which was easily dissolved by water back into monomers.
D)The presence or absence of water changes the molecules from hydrophilic to hydrophobic respectively.
E)The addition of water converted organic molecules into inorganic molecules. Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) The springtail is a very common small insect that lives in rotten logs,rich soil,and other humid places.Its cuticle is water repelling (hydrophobic)except for a strange organ,the collophore,on its ventral side.Because it lacks the excretory organs of other insects,the springtail has this organ in contact with the water (it is responsible for ion balance and secretion of wastes).If we examined the cell structure of this collophore,we would expect to find a high number of A)nuclei.
B)ribosomes.
C)Golgi bodies.
D)lysosomes.
E)centrioles.
Q2) Of the following,which is NOT associated with the mitochondria?
A)ATP production
B)cristae
C)stroma
D)matrix
Q3) Mitochondria have an inner membrane system called thylakoid membranes.
A)True
B)False
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of the following is the reason plants wilt if they are watered with a salt solution?
A)to protect the leaves from full exposure to the salt.
B)an increase in turgor pressure.
C)salt weakens the plant cell walls.
D)loss of water due to the salt solution resulting in a decrease in turgor pressure.
Q2) If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution,which will occur?
A)Salts will move into the cell from the surrounding solution.
B)Water will move into the cell from the surrounding solution.
C)Salts will move out of the cell into the surrounding solution.
D)Water will move out of the cell into the surrounding solution.
E)None of the choices will occur.
Q3) Whether a molecule can cross the plasma membrane depends upon
A)the size of the molecule.
B)the shape of the molecule.
C)the chemical properties of the molecule.
D)the charge of the molecule.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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7
Chapter 6: Metabolism: Energy and Enzymes
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Q1) Identify the missing substrate in the reaction that will oxidize NAD<sup>+</sup>.NAD<sup>+</sup> + 2e + _____ = NADH
A)H<sup>+</sup>
B)3H<sup>+</sup>
C)OH<sup>_</sup>
D)2H<sup>+</sup>
Q2) The activity of an enzyme might be increased by all of the following except
A)increase in substrate concentration
B)a vitamin
C)a 2-4 degree increase in temperature
D)the presence of lead
Q3) Astrophysicists explain that eventually the sun will swell to become a red giant,engulf the earth and "burn out" with all forms of energy dispersing in a final "heat death." Compared with conditions today,the entropy of the universe then will
A)have increased greatly.
B)have decreased greatly.
C)remain the same because energy cannot be created or destroyed.
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis occur in the stroma of the chloroplast.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To what does the term stroma refer?
A)the double membrane of the chloroplast
B)a flattened disk or sac in the chloroplast
C)a stack of thylakoid membrane structures
D)the central fluid-filled space of the chloroplast
E)the cytochrome system in the membranes of the thylakoids
Q3) forms a six-carbon molecule that immediately breaks down into two three-carbon PGA molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of these is NOT a major photosynthetic pigment in plants?
A)chlorophyll a
B)chlorophyll b
C)chlorophyll c
D)carotenoid pigments
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Chapter 8: Cellular Respiration
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Q1) Some desert beetles can live out their life without ever drinking liquid water.They survive on "metabolic water," which
A)was produced as water in the organisms they eat and is retained,never to pass out of the cell membrane.
B)is absorbed from the air along with respiratory oxygen.
C)is formed as a result of the reduction of oxygen as the final electron acceptor from the electron transport chain.
D)is a breakdown product from glycolysis in the cytoplasm.
E)is an original storehouse of water that is never allowed to pass out the cell membrane.
Q2) Fermentation follows glycolysis in some cells when oxygen is not available. A)True
B)False
Q3) Each molecule of NADH produced in the mitochondria provides the energy for two ATP molecules.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: The Cell Cycle and Cellular Reproduction
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Q1) Below the skin are "stem cells" that divide,with some cells continuing the stem cell line and others being pushed toward the surface to flatten and die and be sloughed off.In the bone marrow other stem cells produce erythrocytes that lose their nucleus and function for a few months in the bloodstream before they too die.Such "dead end" cells that reproduce no further
A)leave the cell cycle in a G<sub>0</sub> phase,which immediately follows telophase.
B)leave the cell cycle in a G<sub>3</sub> phase,which immediately follows G<sub>2</sub>.
C)halt in the midst of the S phase.
D)continually cycle but simply fail to go through cytokinesis.
E)reverse from G<sub>2</sub> to G<sub>1</sub>.
Q2) The diploid (2n)number of chromosomes for a human being is A)23.
B)24.
C)44.
D)46.
E)48.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Q1) During which stage of meiosis does the homologue separation occur?
A)prophase I
B)anaphase I
C)telophase I
D)prophase II
E)anaphase II
Q2) The genus Lacerta is composed of a species of lizards that are female and do not mate.They undergo "endomitosis" where one extra chromosome replication results in a tetraploid cell before meiosis begins.Normal female 2n offspring result without fertilization.What change(s)from regular meiosis (in preparation for fertilization)would be required to produce this system?
A)The haploid cell products of meiosis II fuse.
B)Meiosis stops after meiosis I and does not proceed to meiosis II.
C)Cytokinesis does not follow "endomitosis" that results in a tetraploid cell.
D)During anaphase II,the sister centromeres fail to separate and daughter cells will not form.
E)During anaphase II,the daughter chromosomes are non-disjunctive and are all pulled to one daughter cell.
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Chapter 11: Mendelian Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Which allele combination represents a homozygous dominant individual?
A)AA
B)Aa
C)aa
D)none of these are homozygous dominant individuals
Q2) If white eyes are produced by a recessive allele,what is the likely genotype of a white individual?
A)ww
B)Ww
C)WW
D)Cw
Q3) If individuals exhibiting a dominant phenotype are crossed and produce only offspring with the dominant phenotype,what would be the logical genotype of the parents?
A)both are homozygous recessive
B)one is heterozygous and one is homozygous dominant
C)both are homozygous dominant
D)both are heterozygous
E)two of the options may be correct
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Chapter 12: Molecular Biology of the Gene
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Q1) Which of the following statements applies to the semiconservative nature of DNA replication?
A)The old strands serve as a template for the new strand.
B)The old strand is pulled apart and reformed into the new strand.
C)The new strand serves as a template for the old strand.
D)None of these statements apply to the semiconservative nature of DNA replication.
Q2) A (an)_______ is a group of three bases on tRNA that is complementary to a specific mRNA codon.
A)codon
B)anticodon
C)poly-A tail
D)cap
Q3) During DNA replication,the enzyme ___________,catalyzes the elongation of new DNA by adding,to the 3' end of the previous nucleotide,new nucleotides that are complementary to a DNA template.
A)helicase
B)DNA polymerase
C)DNA ligase
D)ATP synthase
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) The mRNA strand includes both introns and exons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Androgen insensitivity is characterized by
A)a lack of male hormones,such as testosterone.
B)external female genitalia.
C)a female karyotype.
D)the internal sex organs of a female and may bear children.
Q3) Identify the major tumor suppressor gene that is more frequently mutated in human cancers than any other known gene.
A)p53 gene
B)hemoglobin gene
C)ras oncogene
D)p16
E)RB tumor-repressor gene
Q4) If a chromosome is highly methylated,
A)the gene is expressed,producing more gene product than normal.
B)the gene is not expressed,even if it is a normal gene in every other way.
C)the gene is expressed,but reduced quantities protein are made.
D)there is no affect on gene expression.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Q1) What was the minimal requirement to perform a "classic DNA fingerprinting" test in order to associate a blood sample with a criminal?
A)one sample of DNA,PCR amplification,restriction enzymes,and gel electrophoresis
B)one sample of DNA,restriction enzymes,a DNA synthesizer,and gel electrophoresis
C)two samples of DNA,PCR amplification,restriction enzymes,and gel electrophoresis
D)two samples of DNA,PCR amplification,a DNA synthesizer,and gel electrophoresis
E)two samples of DNA,PCR amplification,restriction enzymes,and a DNA synthesizer
Q2) Gene therapy is being used in cancer patients to make healthy cells more tolerant of chemotherapy and to make tumors more vulnerable to chemotherapy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Animal cloning is a difficult process with a low success rate.
A)True
B)False
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16
Chapter 15: Darwin and Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following is/are true about natural selection?
A)It acts on genotypes rather than phenotypes.
B)It assures the survival of each fit individual.
C)On average,it favors the survival of more young with adaptive characteristics.
D)It always selects for more complex forms.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Darwin's geometric ratio of increase pertains specifically to
A)the inheritable variations found in a population.
B)the artificial selection of traits in plants or animals.
C)the inheritance of acquired traits.
D)the overproduction potential of a species.
Q3) Alfred Wallace is considered the Father of Zoogeography because of linking geography with the study of animals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following ideas was most commonly held in the eighteenth century?
A)evolution by natural selection over time
B)genetic change through mutation
C)the fixity of species
D)changes in a species through adaptation to the environment
Page 17
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Chapter 16: How Populations Evolve
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Q1) All the members of a single species that occupy a particular area at the same time are known as a:
A)subspecies.
B)gene pool.
C)population.
D)group.
E)sub-population.
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about natural selection?
A)Directional selection occurs when one extreme phenotype is favored over another different extreme phenotype.
B)Stabilizing selection favors an intermediate phenotype over either of the extreme phenotypes.
C)Disruptive selection favors both of the extreme phenotypes over the intermediate phenotype.
D)Directional selection leads to improved selection in a stable environment.
E)Disruptive selection leads to polymorphism,favoring different forms of the same species.
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18
Chapter 17: Speciation and Macroevolution
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Q1) Reproductive isolation
A)means there is no gene flow between two groups of organisms (species).
B)is necessary for species to remain separate.
C)is maintained by certain prezygotic and postzygotic barriers.
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Several species of Caribbean Anoline lizards have evolved from a single ancestral species.The species occupy a wide variety of ecological niches,such as tree trunks and the ground,or tree trunks only,or tree trunks and the crown of trees,etc.This type of allopatric speciation is called
A)adaptive radiation.
B)alloploidy.
C)autoploidy.
D)hybridization.
Q3) A major advantage of the evolutionary species concept is that it
A)relies primarily on reproductive isolation to identify species.
B)applies to both sexually and asexually reproducing species.
C)uses morphological traits to distinguish species.
D)is the same as the classic biological species concept.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Origin and History of Life
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Q1) Who was the individual who proposed the hypothesis of continental drift during the 1920s?
A)Alfred Wegener
B)Charles Darwin
C)Alfred Russel Wallace
D)Charles Lyell
Q2) Which of the following lists of mass extinctions is correctly matched with the date of the extinction?
A)Silurian / 445.2 mya
B)Devonian / 443.7 mya
C)Cretaceous / 65.5 mya
D)Triassic / 251 mya
Q3) Which of the following molecules are believed to have been absent from the primitive reducing atmosphere?
A)water vapor (H<sub>2</sub>O)
B)carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>)
C)hydrogen (H<sub>2</sub>)
D)oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)
E)nitrogen (N<sub>2</sub>)
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Taxonomy,systematics,and Phylogeny
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Q1) Which of the following best represents analogous structures?
A)the arm of a human and the wing of a bat
B)the arm of a human and the leg of a human
C)the wing of a butterfly and the wing of a bee
D)the wing of a bat and the wing of a butterfly
Q2) Of the three domains in Woese's classification system,which do most biologists recognize?
A)Monera,Archae,and Bacteria
B)Fungi,Monera,and Archae
C)Archae,Bacteria and Eukarya
D)Protista,Fungi,and Eukarya
Q3) The use of a molecular clock may be used to indicate relatedness and evolutionary time
A)if nucleic acid changes are neutral and not tied to adaptation.
B)if nucleic acid changes occur at a fairly constant rate.
C)but still needs to be calibrated with the fossil record.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) New data about rRNA led to the three domain system of classification.
A)True
B)False
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Viruses,bacteria,and Archaea
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Q1) Prokaryotes generally range in size from
A)10-400 nm.
B)20-300 mm.
C)10-100 µm.
D)1-10 µm.
E)50-100nm.
Q2) Bacteriophages carry portions of bacterial DNA from one cell to another in a process called
A)transformation.
B)transduction.
C)conjugation.
D)infection.
E)replication.
Q3) Which of the following characteristics about saprotrophs is NOT true?
A)They are viruses that infect plant and fungal cells.
B)They are bacteria that decompose large organic molecules.
C)Saprotrophs are also called decomposers.
D)They are ecologically important in recycling matter.
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22
Chapter 21: Protist Evolution and Diversity
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Q1) Diatoms share a more recent common ancestor with dinoflagellates than with water molds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Chromalveolates that live along the rocky shores of the north temperate zones are able to withstand pounding tides and drying because of their holdfasts and mucilaginous cell walls.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is believed that eukaryotes evolved their mitochondria from a symbiotic relationship with a free-living aerobic bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A common cause of amoebic dysentery is
A)Trichomonas vaginalis.
B)Entamoeba histolytica.
C)Plasmodium falciparum.
D)Giardia intestinalis.
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Chapter 22: Fungi Evolution and Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following traits is not found in both fungi and animals?
A)saprotrophic
B)heterotropic C)multicellular
D)consumers
Q2) When the cap of an average gilled mushroom is cut off and placed on paper,a spoke-like print eventually appears on the paper under the cap.This powdery material would be
A)mycelia.
B)sporangia.
C)hyphae.
D)basidiospores.
E)conidiospores.
Q3) Poisonous or physiologically active chemicals found in various fungi include all of the following EXCEPT
A)muscarine and muscaridine.
B)psilocybin,a structural analog of LSD and mescaline.
C)ergot alkaloids.
D)digitoxin.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Plant Evolution and Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following descriptions applies to megaphylls?
A)Can be found in both the pteridophytes and seed plants.
B)Are broad leaves with strands of vascular tissues.
C)These allowed early plants to photosynthesize more efficiently.
D)None of these statements apply to megaphylls.
E)All of the above apply to megaphylls.
Q2) The gymnosperms produce seeds that are enclosed within a fruit.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the correct sequence of events during the life cycle of a moss?
A.Gametes are produced in the archegonia and antheridia
B.Spores are released
C.The zygote develops within the archegonium
D.The mature sporophyte develops from the gametophyte and produces spores
E.Flagellated sperm swim towards the egg for fertilization
F.Spore germinates into the protonema
A)a - e - c - d - b - f
B)a - e - f - d - b - c
C)a - b - d - c - b - f
D)f - e - b - d - a - c
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Chapter 24: Flowering Plants: Structure and Organization
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Q1) If this structure were nibbled off by browsing deer it would decrease the potential for an increase in height of the plant.
A)The axillary bud.
B)The bark.
C)The terminal bud.
D)The leaf scar.
E)The stem.
Q2) Which of the following tissues transports water and nutrients within the plant?
A)epidermal tissue
B)ground tissue
C)meristematic tissue
D)vascular tissue
Q3) Which of the following tissues forms the outer protective covering of the plant?
A)epidermal tissue
B)ground tissue
C)meristematic tissue
D)vascular tissue
Q4) The outer annual rings where transport occurs is called heartwood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Flowering Plants: Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) Which force pushes water into the xylem as osmosis moves water into the root?
A)water stress
B)atmospheric pressure
C)root pressure
D)guttation
E)transpiration
Q2) Air with varying amounts of CO<sub>2</sub>,within the ranges found in nature,is forced across leaf surfaces and into sub-stomatal cavities; this produces stomatal closure.
A)Supports both Hypothesis I and II.
B)Supports only Hypothesis I.
C)Supports only Hypothesis II.
D)Supports neither hypothesis.
Q3) Phytoremediation is the use of a plants ability to uptake minerals in order to remove pollutants from the environment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Entry of mineral ions into the xylem is regulated by cells of the cortex.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Flowering Plants: Control of Growth Responses
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Q1) A plant's response to an external stimulus involves receptors.A receptor that responds to light normally contains
A)a series of relay proteins.
B)a pigment component.
C)a transduction pathway.
D)an end product of a metabolic pathway.
Q2) Which of the following plant hormones is used to prolong the life of flower cuttings and stored vegetables?
A)auxins
B)cytokinins
C)ethylene
D)IAA
Q3) Which of the following plant hormones was studied in the 1880s by Charles and Francis Darwin in experiments on phototropism?
A)abscisic acid
B)auxin
C)cytokinin
D)ethylene
E)gibberellin
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Chapter 27: Flowering Plants: Reproduction
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Q1) The anther and filament are parts of the A)pistil.
B)sepal.
C)receptacle.
D)petal.
E)stamen.
Q2) Which of the flowering plant structures is used to attract a specific type of pollinator?
A)petals
B)stamens
C)sepals
D)carpel
Q3) Seeds contain all of the following EXCEPT A)an embryo sporophyte.
B)sufficient water for germination.
C)stored food.
D)a seed coat
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Chapter 28: Invertebrate Evolution
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Q1) Molluscs share a three-part body plan consisting of a
A)scolex,proglottids,and an anus.
B)corona,stomach,and intestines.
C)visceral mass,mantle,and foot.
D)eyespots,digestive system,and nervous system.
Q2) Which method of reproduction is used by members of Phylum Echinodermata?
A)sexual
B)asexual
C)budding
D)fragmentation
E)Both sexual and asexual
Q3) Sea stars and sea urchins operate their tube feet by
A)a water vascular system that regulates water pressure.
B)cilia transporting hemolymph from chamber to chamber.
C)sticky threads leading from the mouth and primitive brain.
D)actin and myosin fibers that slide and give muscle actions to the five arms or "rays."
Q4) The structure that directs food into the body of a rotifer is called the corona.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Vertebrate Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Predacious meat eaters with large and conical-shaped canines are
A)cetaceans.
B)chiroptera.
C)carnivores.
D)proboscidea.
Q2) All of the following statements concerning birds are true EXCEPT
A)birds have small,relatively under-developed brains.
B)some birds do not have the ability to fly.
C)birds have acute vision.
D)birds use the sun,stars,and the Earth's magnetic field to guide them.
Q3) What is the main reason that mammals underwent adaptive radiation after the demise of the dinosaurs?
A)They had to adapt in order to physically survive the ice age.
B)The mammals had little competition so it was easier for them to evolve into the niches that were once occupied by the dinosaurs.
C)They had an "inner need" to become better suited to their environment.
D)None of the above.
Q4) All chordates are also vertebrates.
A)True
B)False
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Human Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following is not an anthropoid?
A)chimpanzee
B)human
C)New World monkey
D)lemur
Q2) The proposed advantages of bipedalism,which characterizes hominin evolution,include making it easier to
A)collect food from overhead.
B)travel and move about.
C)carry food back to their camp or their young.
D)carry their young from place to place.
E)All of these are correct.
Q3) People often refer to chimpanzees as monkeys.What characteristic(s)do chimpanzees lack that monkeys have?
A)a tail
B)protruding noses
C)nails
D)binocular vision
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Chapter 31: Animal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) In lactation,the more a baby suckles his mother's breast to obtain milk,the more milk is produced.This is a
A)positive feedback loop.
B)a negative feedback loop.
Q2) Which organ system does not play a role in acquiring materials and energy?
A)cardiovascular
B)skeletal
C)muscular
D)digestive
Q3) Which of the following skin derivatives is mismatched with the organism on which it is found?
A)mammals - hair and nails
B)amphibians - epidermal scales
C)fishes - bony scales
D)birds - feathers
Q4) An average person has about _____ neurons.
A)100,000
B)1 trillion
C)2 million
D)1 billion
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Circulation and Cardiovascular Systems
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Q1) Which organism has hemoglobin located in the fluid portion of the blood,giving it a red appearance?
A)human
B)grasshopper
C)bird
D)earthworm
E)flatworm
Q2) What is the main difference between an open circulatory system and a closed one?
A)An open system will have the blood leave the blood vessels and dump into the hemocoel while the closed one will retain the blood within the system.
B)An open system will keep the blood within the blood vessels while the closed one will dump the blood into the hemocoel.
C)An open system will have the blood leave the blood vessels and dump into the lungs or gills while the closed one will retain the blood within the system.
D)An open system will have the blood leave the blood vessels and dump into the lungs or gills while the closed one will retain the blood within the heomocoel.
E)The blood within a closed circulatory system does not contain hemoglobin.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) Cytokinines
A)are soluble proteins that act as signaling molecules to stimulate white blood cells.
B)are secreted by macrophages to stimulate the replication of cancer cells.
C)repel neutrophils from the site of infection.
D)inhibit production of T and B cells.
Q2) The lymphoid organ in which B lymphocytes are produced is the
A)red bone marrow.
B)lymph nodes.
C)spleen.
D)thymus gland.
E)All of these produce B lymphocytes.
Q3) Which is NOT part of a description of an antibody molecule?
A)contains two light chains and two heavy chains
B)contains an antigen-binding site on each arm
C)contains a constant and a variable region on each chain
D)forms an X-shaped protein molecule
Q4) Complement and interferon are specific kinds of antibodies.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Digestive Systems and Nutrition
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Q1) Identify the correct sequence of events for the digestion of starch?
A.Salivary amylase is produced by the salivary glands
B.Starch digestion begins in the mouth
C.Starch digestion begins in the stomach
D.Starch is converted into maltose
E.Starch is converted into glycogen
F.Maltose is digested into glucose in the small intestine,
G.Glucose is absorbed in the small intestine
H.Glucose is absorbed in the large intestine.
A)a - b - d - f - g
B)a - c - d - f - h.
C)a - b - e - f - g
D)b - c - a - g - h
E)a - b - e - f - g .
Q2) In humans,digestion of starches begins in the A)mouth.
B)esophagus.
C)stomach.
D)duodenum.
E)large intestine.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Respiratory Systems
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Q1) Oxygen-poor blood becomes oxygen-rich blood in the capillary beds of the A)trachea.
B)bronchi.
C)bronchioles.
D)alveoli.
E)larynx.
Q2) Identify the correct pathway of an oxygen molecule as it goes from the nose to the alveolus.
A)nostril,nasal cavity,pharynx,glottis,larynx,trachea,bronchus,bronchiole,alveoli
B)nostril,nasal cavity,glottis,larynx,pharynx,trachea,bronchus,bronchiole,alveoli
C)nostril,nasal cavity,larynx,glottis,pharynx,trachea,bronchus,bronchiole,alveoli
D)nostril,nasal cavity,pharynx,glottis,larynx,trachea,bronchiole,bronchus,alveoli
Q3) Pulmonary tuberculosis in an otherwise healthy individual may indicate a compromised immune system or HIV infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Body Fluid Regulation and Excretory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The urinary bladder is useful because it
A)helps with defecation.
B)is a place where white cells attack bacteria.
C)stores urine to prevent constant urination.
D)transports urine to the outside of the body.
E)filters wastes and recycles nutrients back into the bloodstream.
Q2) Glucose is found in glomerular filtrate but NOT in the urine because
A)the kidney stores glucose as glycogen.
B)kidney cells require glucose because energy is needed for active transport.
C)glucose is reabsorbed back into the bloodstream.
D)glucose is converted to amino acids in the kidney.
E)glucose molecules are too large to pass through the loop of the nephron (loop of Henle).
Q3) The kidneys filter all of the blood within the human body in about 40 minutes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The human kidney has an outer cortex,an inner medulla,and a renal pelvis that collects and stores urine before it leaves the kidney.
A)True
B)False
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Neurons and Nervous Systems
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Q1) Which of the following statements about axonal membranes is NOT true?
A)The resting potential of a typical neuron is -65 mV.
B)There is an electrical potential difference across a neuron's membrane.
C)The polarity correlates with a difference in ion distribution across the membrane.
D)At rest,there is a higher concentration of sodium ions inside the axon.
E)The sodium-potassium pump establishes a concentration gradient across the membrane.
Q2) Which part of the brain contains centers for the heartbeat and respiration?
A)medulla oblongata
B)hypothalamus
C)cerebellum
D)cerebrum
E)pons
Q3) In humans,the central nervous system consists of the _____,which is housed in the _____ and the ______,which is housed in the _____.
A)peripheral nervous system; limbs; brain; skull
B)brain; skull; spinal cord; vertebral column
C)spinal cord; vertebral column; sensory neurons; limbs
D)brain; vertebral column; spinal cord; skull
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Sense Organs
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Q1) Which of the following lists of ear structures are all membranous structures?
A)ossicles,tympanic membrane,oval window,otoliths
B)cochlea,ampulla
C)tympanic membrane,oval window,round window
D)malleus,incus,stapes
E)tympanic membrane,oval window,stapes
Q2) Glaucoma is caused by an increase in intraocular pressure due to inadequate drainage of the
A)vitreous humor.
B)aqueous humor.
C)venous blood.
D)cochlear duct.
E)ampulla.
Q3) What is the aqueous humor?
A)one of the fluids in the inner ear
B)the fluid that surrounds the ossicles of the middle ear
C)the fluid in the eye between the cornea and the lens
D)the fluid in the eye between the retina and the lens
E)the gel-like material in a cupula of a mechanoreceptor
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Locomotion and Support Systems
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Q1) If Ca<sup>+</sup> is restricted to a muscle cell,what are the potential consequences?
A)The myosin head would not be able to bind to the actin filament.
B)The myosin filament would not slide past the actin filament causing a contraction.
C)ATP is not split causing the release of energy.
D)All of these are potential consequences.
E)None of these are potential consequences.
Q2) The type of bone tissue that is found in the middle portion of a long bone and has lacunae arranged in concentric circles around central canals that contain blood vessels and nerves is
A)spongy bone.
B)compact bone.
C)red marrow.
D)yellow marrow.
E)fibrous membrane.
Q3) The pectoral girdle is adapted for great strength,whereas the pelvic girdle is more adapted for flexibility.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Hormones and Endocrine Systems
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Q1) Which of the following statements about non-steroid (peptide)hormones is NOT true?
A)Peptide hormones are derived from peptides,proteins,polypeptides,and derivatives of amino acids.
B)Peptide hormones bind to receptors on the cell surface.
C)Peptide hormones stimulate the formation cyclic AMP inside the cell.
D)Peptide hormones must enter the cell in order to have an effect.
E)Peptide hormones create an enzyme cascade effect.
Q2) Identify the hormone that is released by the anterior pituitary but does not control other endocrine glands.
A)prolactin
B)thyroid stimulating hormone
C)adrenocorticotropic hormone
D)gonadotropic hormone
E)oxytocin
Q3) The pituitary gland controls the hypothalamus by the production of antidiuretic hormones.
A)True
B)False
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) What is the main sex hormone of the human male?
A)testosterone
B)estrogen
C)luteinizing hormone (LH)
D)follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
E)interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH)
Q2) Which form of birth control is the most effective at preventing the spread of sexually transmitted diseases?
A)abstinence
B)male condom
C)female condom
D)morning-after pills
E)intrauterine device
Q3) The hormone produced by cells around the embryo that maintains the corpus luteum and pregnancy is called
A)estrogen.
B)progesterone.
C)luteinizing hormone (LH).
D)follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
E)human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG).
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Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Q1) The neural tube of vertebrates develops during morphogenesis of the nervous system by the
A)folding of ectoderm tissue.
B)migration of mesoderm cells.
C)fusion of ectoderm and mesoderm.
D)contraction of the endoderm away from the mesoderm.
E)extension of endoderm into a thin spinal column.
Q2) Identify the correct order of steps in the development of the central nervous system.
A.Neural folds develop on either side of the neural groove.
B.The neural tube forms.
C.Thickening of cells on the dorsal surface called the neural plate occurs.
D.The anterior end of the neural tube develops into the brain.
A)c - a - b - d
B)c - a - d - b
C)a - c - b - d
D)a - b - c- d
E)d - c - b - a
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Chapter 43: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) An example of a pheromone in humans is A)testosterone.
B)a chemical released by males that reduces premenstrual tension in women.
C)the mother's milk that transfers immunity to the infant.
D)saliva exchanged during kissing (as a sexual stimulant).
Q2) Which of the following is a disadvantage of maintaining a large territory?
A)There will be a large number of females that reside within the territory.
B)There will be a large diversity of food types within the territory.
C)There will be ample room for nesting sites.
D)It will be energetically expensive to control and defend the territory.
E)All of the choices are disadvantages of a large territory.
Q3) A female chooses a mate by
A)courtship display rituals.
B)selecting the more aggressive and vigorous males.
C)selecting traits that improve the chances of offspring survival.
D)All of the choices apply.
Q4) Auditory communication is the most effective form of communication in every environment inhabited by animals.
A)True
B)False
Page 45
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Chapter 44: Population Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following circumstances would cause exponential growth to move into a logistic growth phase?
A)A reduction in the number of females within the population.
B)A large increase in the population over three generations.
C)The introduction of a non-native predator into the environment.
D)Habitat alteration resulting in the conversion of 1200 acres of forests into agricultural fields and housing developments.
E)All of these would cause exponential growth to move into logistic growth.
Q2) Opportunistic species
A)are composed of large individual organisms.
B)are good dispersers and colonizers of new habitats.
C)are slow to mature.
D)have long life spans.
E)are adapted to stable environments.
Q3) Only the LDC's will be experiencing overpopulation growth in the near future.
A)True B)False
Q4) Many species are held below the environmental carrying capacity by predation. A)True B)False
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Chapter 45: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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Q1) As animals take in food energy approximately 10% of it is made available to the next level in the food chain.Which of the following is one of the ways in which the energy is used by the organism and not passed along?
A)cellular respiration
B)defecation
C)excretion
D)death
E)All of these are ways in which the organism uses the energy.
Q2) The frequent change in HIV surface proteins is a type of A)coevolution.
B)parasitism.
C)mutualism.
D)commensalism.
Q3) Organisms in all trophic levels may be consumed by decomposers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The first species to begin secondary succession are called pioneer species,or colonizers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Major Ecosystems of the Biosphere
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT characterize tundra?
A)permafrost
B)trees
C)shrub
D)caribou
Q2) All of the following are terrestrial biomes EXCEPT A)tundra.
B)lentic systems.
C)coniferous forests.
D)savannas.
E)deserts.
Q3) The sunlit portion of a lake is specifically referred to as the A)littoral zone.
B)limnetic zone.
C)profundal zone.
D)benthic zone.
E)abyssal zone.
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Chapter 47: Conservation of Biodiversity
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Q1) The situation with major oceanic fishing areas is
A)good,since the oceans are so large,they are the one remaining natural ecosystem that is not susceptible to extinction.
B)generally positive,with only one or two of the 15 major oceanic fishing areas over-exploited.
C)generally negative,with 11 of the 15 major oceanic fishing areas overexploited.
D)positive for the bottom dwellers that are protected but negative for the schools of swimming fish.
E)negative for the bottom dwellers that are over-fished by trawling but positive for the schools of swimming fish that can easily get away.
Q2) As the producer biodiversity doubles what will happen to the rate of photosynthesis?
A)It will double.
B)It will decrease by 50%.
C)It will increase by .1 - .2.
D)It will increase by .5 - .8.
E)It will decrease by .2 - .4.
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