Principles of Biology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology introduces students to the foundational concepts of biological science, covering the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Emphasizing critical thinking and scientific inquiry, the course explores how living organisms interact with their environment, respond to evolutionary pressures, and maintain homeostasis. Through lectures, laboratory experiences, and discussions, students gain a comprehensive understanding of the mechanisms that govern life processes and the relevance of biology to modern societal challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Essentials 3rd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels Dr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Scientific Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pollination is a step of ________ in a plant.
A) sexual reproduction
B) asexual reproduction
C) development
D) metabolism
E) homeostasis
Answer: A
Q2) Which is the correct sequence for levels of biological organization occurring beyond an organism?
A) population - ecosystem - community - biosphere
B) community - population - ecosystem - biosphere
C) community - population - biosphere - ecosystem
D) population - community - ecosystem - biosphere
E) ecosystem - population - biosphere - community
Answer: D
Q3) The "kingdom" is the most all-inclusive taxonomic category.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) In a covalent bond
A) atoms share electrons.
B) atoms of opposite charges attract each other.
C) atoms share protons.
D) atoms share neutrons.
E) atoms are repelled by each other.
Answer: A
Q2) The four nitrogen bases found in RNA are
A) adenine, thymine, guanine, and uracil.
B) adenine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil.
C) adenine, thymine, cytosine, and uracil.
D) thymine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil.
E) None of the answer choices is correct.
Answer: B
Q3) For most atoms,the outermost electron shell would be full if it contained
A) one electron.
B) four electrons.
C) eight electrons.
D) sixteen electrons.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) In most mammals,the mitochondrial DNA is inherited from A) the father only.
B) the mother and father.
C) either parent.
D) the mother only.
E) Mitochondria are not found in mammals.
Answer: D
Q2) All eukaryotic cells produce proteins.Proteins that will be secreted from the cell are made by ribosomes attached to the A) cell wall.
B) chloroplast.
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum.
D) mitochondrion.
E) Golgi apparatus.
Answer: C
Q3) Magnetism-detecting bacteria turn with an applied magnetic field.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Q1) Phagocytosis is the process used by cells to bring in small amounts of fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The energy source that powers photosynthesis is A) water.
B) glucose.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) sunlight.
E) oxygen.
Q3) The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of one gram of water by one degree Celsius is a A) calorie.
B) joule.
C) kilocalorie.
D) measure of density.
E) measure of light.
Q4) Enzymes speed up chemical reactions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The carbon reactions can run on their own without the products of the light reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Green and yellow wavelengths of light are used to power photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Reactants in a chemical reaction are the molecules that are assembled together or broken down to form products.The reactants in photosynthesis are
A) oxygen and glucose.
B) water and carbon dioxide.
C) chlorophyll and oxygen.
D) glucose and water.
E) glucose and oxygen.
Q4) Herbicides may kill plants by
A) blocking carotenoid synthesis.
B) blocking electron flow in photosystem II.
C) diverting electrons away from photosystem I.
D) interfering with amino acid synthesis.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
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Chapter 6: Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) In the electron transport chain,if some of the protons are utilized for other functions in the cell and do not flow through the ATP synthase,then
A) fewer ATP will be made.
B) fewer glucose molecules are needed.
C) more ATP will be made.
D) more glucose molecules are needed.
E) more carbon dioxide molecules are generated.
Q2) In the electron transport chain,what occurs between the two membranes of mitochondria?
A) Glycolysis occurs in the membranes.
B) Protons are pumped into the space between the membranes.
C) Oxygen is transported across the membranes.
D) The membranes prevent the mitochondria from rupturing during osmosis without two membranes.
E) The Krebs cycle enzymes are found on the outer mitochondrial membrane.
Q3) Aerobic respiration uses oxygen as its final electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Gene Function
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Q1) The correct sequence of stages of viral replication is
A) attachment-synthesis-penetration-assembly-release
B) penetration-attachment-assembly-synthesis-release
C) penetration-attachment-synthesis-release-assembly
D) attachment-penetration-assembly-synthesis-release
E) attachment-penetration-synthesis-assembly-release
Q2) In DNA molecules,
A) cytosine pairs with guanine.
B) thymine pairs with uracil.
C) adenine pairs with uracil.
D) adenine pairs with guanine.
E) cytosine pairs with thymine.
Q3) A DNA sequence that signals the start of a gene is
A) a codon.
B) an anticodon.
C) a terminator.
D) a promoter.
E) an amino acid attachment site.
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Chapter 8: DNA Replication,Binary Fission,and Mitosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a common cause of cervical cancer?
A) human papillomavirus
B) UV radiation
C) dietary saturated fat
D) tobacco use
E) All answers are correct.
Q2) The plant cell in the image labeled "B" is in the cell cycle stage
A) interphase.
B) telophase.
C) anaphase.
D) metaphase.
E) prophase.
Q3) Semiconservative DNA replication comes from the basepairing that is part of the basic structure of the DNA double helix.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During cytokinesis of a plant cell,the cell divides by forming a cleavage furrow.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) 1<i>n</i> is an abbreviation for A) haploid.
B) somatic cells.
C) diploid.
D) mitosis.
E) meiosis.
Q2) The roundworm Caenorhabditis <i>elegans</i> is a hermaphrodite and can only undergo sexual reproduction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a diploid germ cell in a male goes through meiosis,it will generate A) two haploid cells.
B) four diploid cells.
C) two diploid cells.
D) four haploid cells.
E) This is not possible.
Q4) Meiosis generates genetic variability by crossing over of homologous chromosomes in haploid somatic cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) A test cross is a mating of an individual with an unknown genotype and an individual that
A) is heterozygous.
B) is homozygous dominant.
C) is homozygous recessive.
D) has any known genotype.
E) is the wild type.
Q2) Crossing over is more likely to separate genes on a chromosome if they are A) close together.
B) far apart.
C) recessive genes.
D) dominant genes.
E) mutated genes.
Q3) Of all the people who have studied inheritance,the person who made the most lasting impression on the science of genetics is
A) Charles Darwin.
B) Robert Hooke.
C) King George III.
D) Frederick Griffith.
E) Gregor Mendel.
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Chapter 11: DNA Technology
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Q1) Human DNA encodes A) proteins.
B) regulatory sequences that control gene expression.
C) tRNA.
D) rRNA.
E) All answers are correct.
Q2) Gene probes locate specific DNA sequences by
A) binding with the complementary sequence in a genome.
B) turning off genes in specialized cells.
C) creating cloned genes.
D) electrophoresis.
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) DNA technology is used to A) copy DNA.
B) sequence DNA nucleotides.
C) search for specific sequences of DNA.
D) turn genes on and off.
E) All answers are correct.
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Chapter 12: Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Q1) If you were going to apply the principles of Darwin to business,you would allow employees to submit a wide range of ideas and then test many,keeping the winners because in evolution,natural selection
A) neither preserves nor rejects harmful variations in a population.
B) preserves harmful variations and rejects favorable variations in a population.
C) preserves favorable and harmful variations in a population.
D) preserves favorable variations and rejects harmful variations in a population.
E) No answer is correct.
Q2) The mode of natural selection in which one extreme phenotype is fittest and the environment selects against the others is
A) directional selection.
B) disruptive selection.
C) stabilizing selection.
D) artificial selection.
E) uniformitarianism.
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Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) The abundant remains of ammonites in Oklahoma indicate that Oklahoma was
A) always a vast desert with almost no rainfall.
B) once part of a mountain range that has now eroded.
C) once covered by a shallow ocean.
D) once part of a vast tropical forest.
E) always a grassland.
Q2) Marsupials are mammals that
A) lay eggs.
B) do not give live birth.
C) have evolved recently.
D) carry their young in a pouch.
E) breathe through gills.
Q3) Placental mammals give birth to more fully developed offspring than marsupial mammals and therefore have a greater chance of survival.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Dinosaurs lived during the Paleozoic era.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction
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Q1) Reading a cladogram,birds are least related to A) nonavian dinosaurs.
B) crocodiles.
C) turtles.
D) mammals.
E) amphibians.
Q2) The process by which new species originate and can no longer interbreed with others in the group is
A) germination.
B) extinction.
C) migration.
D) speciation.
E) immigration.
Q3) Punctuated equilibrium is the steady,gradual loss of species due to normal evolutionary processes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sympatric speciation is more accepted by scientists than allopatric speciation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Evolution and Diversity of Microbial Life
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Q1) A prokaryote that occupies a habitat that is characterized by extreme heat (above 50°C)is a(n)
A) thermophile.
B) acidophile.
C) halophile.
D) basophile.
E) hydrophile.
Q2) Chlamydomonas is unicellular and photosynthetic.Chlamydomonas is which of the following?
A) a slime mold
B) an apicomplexan
C) an amoeba
D) a water mold
E) a green alga
Q3) What was likely the first informational molecule of life?
A) carbohydrates
B) lipids
C) proteins
D) RNA
E) DNA
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Chapter 16: Evolution and Diversity of Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) What reproductive adaptation did plants evolve on dry land?
A) stomata
B) vascular tissues
C) cuticle
D) pollen
E) lignin
Q2) All angiosperms have their pollen and seeds moved by animals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which group of plants have phloem and xylem,seeds,flowers,and fruit and in many cases require animals for reproduction?
A) liverworts, hornworts, and mosses
B) ferns, club mosses, horsetails, and whisk ferns
C) ginkgo, cycads, conifers, and gnetophytes
D) monocots and eudicots
E) This is true of all groups of plants.
Q4) Hornworts are bryophytes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Evolution and Diversity of Animals
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Q1) Which of the following is a cartilaginous fish?
A) shark
B) tuna
C) salmon
D) lungfish
E) catfish
Q2) The closest living relatives to humans on the evolutionary tree are
A) gibbons.
B) gorillas.
C) orangutans.
D) homo erectus.
E) chimpanzees.
Q3) Segmentation is easy to observe in the cuticle of a nematode.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If you were eating sea urchin and starfish soup,you would be eating echinoderms.
A)True
B)False
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Populations
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Q1) When exponential growth is plotted over time a J-shaped curve emerges.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a survivorship curve,a type II species,like a song bird,is a species that has
A) an equal probability of dying at any age.
B) a strong possibility of becoming extinct in a relatively short period of time.
C) the highest probability of dying as it reaches its maximum life span.
D) an extremely short life span.
E) the highest probability of dying at a very young age.
Q3) Based upon the age structure diagram,you expect the Indian population to
A) grow because all of the age classes have roughly equal proportions of people.
B) grow then shrink because many of the people will be entering the postreproductive years.
C) grow because a large proportion of the population will be entering the reproductive years.
D) grow then decline because a lower proportion of individuals are in prereproductive age classes.
E) No answer is correct.
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Chapter 19: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) In this system,mercury released from coal-burning power plants would be at the highest concentration in
A) the phytoplankton.
B) the zooplankton.
C) the minnows.
D) the walleye pike fish.
E) The amount of mercury would be the same in all organisms.
Q2) Based on the 10% rule,if there are 10,000 calories of net primary productivity in an ecosystem,how much energy will be generally available to a primary consumer?
A) 100 calories
B) 10,000 calories
C) 10 calories
D) 1,000 calories
E) 1 calorie
Q3) A network of interconnected food chains is a food web.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Preserving Biodiversity
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Q1) Extinctions affect biodiversity.The more extinctions,
A) the lower the species biodiversity.
B) the lower the habitat biodiversity.
C) the higher the genetic biodiversity.
D) the higher the species biodiversity.
E) the higher the habitat diversity.
Q2) What resulted in the biodiversity on Earth?
A) evolution
B) global climate change
C) the greenhouse effect
D) overexploitation
E) bycatch
Q3) Overexploitation is harvesting a species faster than it can reproduce.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A vulnerable species is one that is likely to become extinct in the more distant future.Therefore,it is not monitored by conservation biologists.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which best describes a compound leaf?
A) multiple blades attached to a single petiole
B) a single blade attached to a petiole
C) a single leaflet attached to a petiole
D) multiple leaflets attached to a single petiole
E) multiple leaflets attached to multiple petioles
Q2) What is NOT a function of plant roots?
A) anchor the plant
B) produce energy that the plant can use to carry out metabolism
C) absorb water
D) absorb mineral nutrients for the plant
E) form beneficial relationships with microorganisms, thereby increasing the plant's ability to obtain nutrients
Q3) The tendency of water molecules to "cling" together is
A) cohesion.
B) adhesion.
C) hydrolysis.
D) condensation.
E) evaporation.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Reproduction and Development of Flowering
Plants
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Q1) If whorl four of a plant was damaged,this would interfere with A) supporting the flower.
B) the male reproductive parts.
C) the female reproductive part.
D) attracting pollinators.
E) pollen availability.
Q2) The main pollinators of red flowers are
A) beetles.
B) bees.
C) birds.
D) moths.
E) bats.
Q3) As discussed in the Investigating Life feature,scientists tested the hypothesis that chili peppers are hot
A) to deter seed destroyers without affecting dispersers.
B) to deter all animals from destroying the seeds.
C) to promote dispersion when animals drop the hot fruit.
D) for a reason unrelated to seed dispersal or destruction.
E) to promote pollination of the peppers.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems
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Q1) An action that counters an existing condition is called
A) negative feedback.
B) a mistake.
C) positive feedback.
D) directional control.
E) No answer is correct.
Q2) You are asked to research what the eye is.You read that it contains nerves,muscles,and blood cells.Therefore,you decide that it is a(n)
A) organ.
B) tumor.
C) organ system.
D) tissue.
Q3) The type of connective tissue with a mineralized extracellular matrix is A) cartilage.
B) bone.
C) adipose.
D) blood.
E) loose connective.
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25
Chapter 24: The Nervous System and the Senses
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Q1) The nervous tissue that consists of myelinated axons transmitting information throughout the central nervous system is the
A) white reflex.
B) gray matter.
C) red reflex.
D) red matter.
E) white matter.
Q2) The size of the opening for light coming into the eye is regulated by the A) cornea.
B) pupil.
C) iris.
D) cone.
E) lens.
Q3) Odorous molecules are first detected in the nose and are transduced into receptor potentials,which travel to the olfactory bulb and then to the cerebral cortex.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Biochemicals produced in a gland that travel through the bloodstream and alter the metabolism of specific target cells are
A) enzymes.
B) pheromones.
C) neurotransmitters.
D) hormones.
E) pectines.
Q2) Which is not an endocrine gland?
A) hypothalamus
B) testes
C) gallbladder
D) pineal gland
E) adrenal gland
Q3) Type 2 diabetes is strongly associated with A) obesity.
B) old age.
C) premature infants.
D) a suppressed immune system.
E) calcium deficiency.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Q1) Without muscles,bones ________ and without bones,muscles ________.
A) would remain in one location; would move soft tissue layers
B) would remain in one location; would remain in one location
C) would provide movement; would remain in one location
D) would be useless; would remain under control of the nervous system
E) would remain under control of the nervous system; would be useless
Q2) Ligaments are connective tissues that connect ________ to ________.
A) muscle; muscle
B) muscle; bone
C) tendons; bone
D) bone; bone
E) cartilage; bone
Q3) Which will be true of the muscles of a bedridden person?
A) Only calcium levels will be lower than normal.
B) Mitochondrial enzyme activity will be lower than normal.
C) Only ATP production will be lower than normal.
D) Calcium levels and ATP production will be lower than normal.
E) ATP production and mitochondrial enzyme activity will be lower than normal.
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Chapter 27: The Circulatory and Respiratory Systems
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Q1) The most important signal that the brain uses to set the breathing rate is the level of blood
A) nitrogen.
B) oxygen.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) sulfur.
E) hemoglobin.
Q2) A whole blood cell transfusion would be used to treat which of the following?
A) arrhythmia
B) aneurysm
C) anemia
D) heart attack due to atherosclerosis
E) tachycardia
Q3) An increase in the number of red blood cells is called anemia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The human circulatory system transports blood in a one-directional circuit throughout the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: The Digestive and Urinary Systems
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Q1) The main site of food absorption in the human digestive system is the A) stomach.
B) esophagus.
C) small intestine.
D) large intestine.
E) rectum.
Q2) Rhythmic smooth muscle contractions occurring along the human digestive system that propel food along the system are termed A) countercurrent exchange.
B) phagocytosis.
C) peristalsis.
D) rumination.
E) sphincter contractions.
Q3) In animals,the pouch that forms the entrance to the large intestine is the A) gastrovascular cavity.
B) rumen.
C) cecum.
D) anus.
E) appendix.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: The Immune System
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Q1) Why do lymph nodes often become swollen during an infection?
A) T cells reproduce in lymph nodes after being exposed to pathogens.
B) B cells reproduce in lymph nodes after being exposed to pathogens.
C) Macrophages move to lymph nodes after engulfing pathogens.
D) Cytotoxic T cells attack pathogens in the lymph nodes, triggering inflammation.
E) Vasodilation increases blood flow in the lymph nodes.
Q2) Which of the following occurred during the coevolution of humans and pathogens that cause disease?
A) The pathogens produce substances that suppress our immune system.
B) Our immune system can destroy the pathogens before they cause disease.
C) Pathogens have become less infectious.
D) Our immune system no longer sees the pathogen as foreign.
E) Pathogens have developed their own immune system to counteract ours.
Q3) B cells and T cells are
A) basophils.
B) invaders.
C) lymphocytes.
D) allergies.
E) vaccines.
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Chapter 30: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Q1) The tube-like structure that serves as the birth canal in the human female is the A) cervix.
B) vulva.
C) vagina.
D) uterus.
E) uterine tube.
Q2) In organisms that reproduce sexually,________ are the sex cells that carry the genetic information from each parent.
A) diploid zygotes
B) haploid zygotes
C) haploid gametes
D) diploid gametes
E) diploid hormones
Q3) Which is correct about sexually transmitted infections?
A) All STIs are treatable with antibiotics if caught early enough.
B) Viruses, bacteria, protists, and fungi can cause STIs.
C) STIs cannot be contracted through oral sex.
D) All STIs can kill a human if left untreated.
E) All answers are correct.
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