Principles of Biology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts of biological science, covering topics such as the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. The course emphasizes the scientific method, experimental design, and critical thinking as students explore the molecular and cellular basis of life, energy transformation, information flow, and the interdependence of organisms in the biosphere. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory exercises, students gain an understanding of how biological principles apply to real-world issues and the ongoing advancements in biological research.
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Biology Now 1st Edition by Anne Houtman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science
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Q1) Land biomes are most commonly defined by
A)their climate, physical characteristics, and dominant animal life.
B)only the dominant plant life in them.
C)the dominant plant life that influences the dominant animal life in them.
D)their climate and physical characteristics which influence the dominant plant life and, subsequently, animal life in them.
Answer: D
Q2) New medications undergo extensive human testing before receiving FDA approval. These tests represent an experiment and variations in the dosage given to participants represents the
A)dependent variable.
B)independent variable.
C)correlation coefficient.
D)invariable.
Answer: B
Q3) The genetic material used for reproduction by those organisms conventionally considered to be living is ________.
Answer: DNA
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3
Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Q1) In making your morning tea, you drop a sugar cube into the hot water. You stir the mixture but no longer see the sugar cube at the bottom of your mug. In this scenario, the sugar is
A)nonpolar.
B)the solvent.
C)an acid.
D)a solute.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following most commonly represents the shape associated with functional proteins?
A)a long linear chain of amino acids
B)individual amino acids that are not covalently joined together
C)coils and sheets of joined amino acids
D)three-dimensional folded chains of amino acids
Answer: D
Q3) Molecules with an uneven distribution of charge are described as ________. Answer: polar
Q4) The class of macromolecules that do NOT form true polymers are the ________. Answer: lipids
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Chapter 3: Life Is Cellular
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Q1) ________ transport of molecules across a selectively permeable membrane requires the input of energy from the cell whereas ________ transport of molecules across a selectively permeable membrane does not require the use of cellular energy.
Answer: Active; passive
Q2) lysosome
A)photosynthesis
B)regulate what moves in and out of cell
C)structure and support for cell
D)lipid synthesis
E)tags proteins for movement
F)enzymatic breakdown of large molecules
G)protein synthesis
H)cellular respiration
I)water and solute storage
J)location of DNA
K)internal organization and structural support
Answer: F
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Chapter 4: How Cells Work
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Q1) Glycolysis is an anaerobic process, indicating that the glycolytic reactions
A)require no oxygen.
B)produce molecular oxygen.
C)produce ATP.
D)produce citric acid.
Q2) A given enzyme
A)can be used for many different kinds of chemical reactions.
B)is permanently changed during a chemical reaction.
C)has a special site where the products bind before the reaction begins.
D)increases the rate of a particular reaction.
Q3) Excess carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is increasing climate change. How do photosynthesis and cellular respiration relate to this issue and how can we use this knowledge to help decrease this problem?
Q4) What would occur if the mitochondria of a cell did not produce an inner membrane?
A)The mitochondria would be unable to maintain the proton gradient required for ATP production.
B)The mitochondria would be unable to capture ATP from the sun.
C)The mitochondria would be unable to perform the Krebs cycle.
D)The mitochondria would be unable to perform glycolysis.
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Chapter 5: Cell Division
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a factor that influences a cell's progression through the cell cycle?
A)gametes
B)cell cycle regulatory molecules
C)hormones
D)growth factors
Q2) Chromosomes decondense and nuclear envelopes form during the ________ portion of mitosis.
Q3) Which processes associated with meiosis ensure genetic diversity in offspring? Name two processes that promote variation and explain how they operate.
Q4) An actively dividing cell has six chromosomes. How many sister chromatids are present within this cell at the end of G phase?
A)0
B)3
C)6
D)12
Q5) A cell has completed S phase and is preparing to divide via mitosis. How is the genetic material arranged in G phase?
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Chapter 6: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) A Punnett square charts the separation of alleles into ________.
Q2) According to Mendel's law of ________, when gametes are formed, the separation of alleles for one gene is unrelated to the separation of alleles for other genes.
Q3) A single gene with one dominant allele for black hair (B) and one recessive allele for brown hair (b) controls hair color in mice. A male mouse with black hair mates with a female mouse with brown hair and they have 12 offspring. Are you able to determine the predicted ratio of hair color in their offspring using a Punnett square? Explain your answer.
Q4) Which of the following statements is true of Mendel's laws?
A)They are less accurate than Punnett square results.
B)They are useful only in unusual situations.
C)They correctly explain how genes are inherited.
D)They correctly predict the phenotype of an organism.
Q5) Which of the following might explain how two separate genes control a single trait?
A)Both genes have the same alleles.
B)One gene functions better at higher temperatures.
C)There are two genes to control two separate steps in a pathway.
D)Two genes cannot control a single trait.
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Chapter 7: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) Both members of a couple are carriers for a recessive disease allele. If the couple has four children, which of the following statements must be true?
A)One of the children has the disease.
B)Two of the children have the disease.
C)All of the male children have the disease.
D)Fifty percent of the children could be carriers of the disease.
Q2) Which of the following information is available in a Punnett square showing the inheritance pattern for an autosomal recessive disorder?
A)percentage of males likely to be affected by the disorder
B)percentage of females likely to be affected by the disorder
C)percentage of all children likely to be affected by the disorder
D)number of children born to the two parents
Q3) The gender of a human child is determined by the A)loci.
B)egg.
C)autosomes.
D)sperm.
Q4) An allele that "hides" in heterozygous carriers is called a ________ allele.
Q5) Why are dominant genetic disorders more rare than recessive disorders?
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Chapter 8: What Genes Are
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Q1) A scientist is interested in studying the mechanism of horizontal gene transfer.
A)The scientist should select a prokaryotic cell.
B)The scientist should select a eukaryotic cell.
C)The scientist can select either a prokaryotic or a eukaryotic cell.
D)The scientist will need to design a novel cell using DNA sequencing.
Q2) Which of the following is true of eukaryotic genomes?
A)They consist of a single chromosome.
B)Most of the DNA codes for proteins.
C)Genes are organized by function.
D)The DNA is in the nucleus of the cell.
Q3) A mutation is due to the addition of two bases in a strand of DNA. This is called a(n)
Q4) A permanent change in the DNA base sequence due to an uncorrected mismatch error is called a(n)
A)mutation.
B)replication.
C)repair protein.
D)insertion.
Q5) A chemical that disrupts hydrogen bonds is added to a test tube containing DNA. What would be the result of this reaction?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: How Genes Work
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Q1) Organisms can regulate both transcription and translation to control gene expression. What is one advantage and one disadvantage of regulating transcription rather than translation?
Q2) Which of the following is true about gene regulation in cells?
A)Gene expression is nonvariable for cells; it is the same for all cells of the same type.
B)Gene expression is highly variable; it changes for many different reasons throughout the life of a cell.
C)Gene expression is set by internal factors early in the life cycle of a cell and remains the same from that point forward.
D)Gene expression is set by external factors early in the life cycle of a cell and remains the same from that point forward.
Q3) Which of the following is a codon?
A)U
B)UU
C)UUU
D)UUUU
Q4) The process of using an RNA template to make proteins is called ________.
Q5) The genetic code is ________, which means that all cells use the same code.
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Chapter 10: Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) Some whales have teeth as embryos but do not as adults. What is the most likely explanation of this phenomenon?
A)Whales are in the process of evolving teeth.
B)Whale teeth appear as the result of a frequently occurring mutation.
C)Whales evolved from organisms that have teeth.
D)The allele for teeth is unusually common in some whale populations.
Q2) Dolphin embryos develop hind limb buds, but these buds disappear after a short time. What is one mechanism to explain how this change occurs in the embryo?
A)The hind limbs are not used and atrophy.
B)The dolphin does not have the gene for the production of hind limbs.
C)The hind limbs are not adaptive and dolphins with hind limbs do not survive as well.
D)Genes that control the development of the embryo turn off the development of the hind limb.
Q3) Dogs have vestigial digits called dewclaws. Describe the most likely origin of these structures.
Q4) The preserved remains of formerly living organisms are called ________.
Q5) The human appendix is an example of a(n) ________ structure.
Q6) The study of organisms prior to birth or hatching is called ________.
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Chapter 11: Mechanisms of Evolution
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Q1) The result of convergent evolution is ________ traits.
Q2) Two unrelated species evolving to look more similar due to environmental pressures is called
A)gene flow.
B)genetic drift.
C)convergent evolution.
D)divergent evolution.
Q3) Compared to a large mainland population, genetic drift in a small island population is
A)less important because there is less variation with which to work.
B)less important because only a few individuals do all the breeding.
C)more important because of a smaller gene pool.
D)more important because of the absence of competition.
Q4) Gene flow occurs
A)as a result of genetic drift.
B)when an individual migrates between two otherwise isolated populations of a species.
C)as a result of mutations in one population but not in another.
D)when individuals within a population interbreed.
Q5) Compare and contrast bottleneck and founder effect.
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Chapter 12: Adaptation and Species
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Q1) Which of the following statements gives an example of coevolution?
A)Two unrelated species form at the same time after ancestral species populate a newly formed volcanic island.
B)Two closely related mice species on different mountaintops in the southwest United States both adapt the same trait because food sources are similar.
C)An ant species and a plant species both develop adaptations in response to changes in the other species.
D)A wild cat species and a wild dog species both have similar bacteria living in their guts, which allow them to produce vitamin K.
Q2) Some freshwater snail eggs are accidentally introduced into a new habitat that is geographically isolated from the original population. Which of the following must occur before these snails are described as two separate species?
A)gene flow
B)sympatric speciation
C)adaptation
D)genetic divergence
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Chapter 13: The History of Life
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Q1) Imagine the discovery of an undescribed nonphotosynthetic, multicellular organism. To determine whether it is a(n) ________, you would need to examine it microscopically to determine if its ________.
A)animal or fungi; cells have cell walls
B)animal or plant; cells have nuclei
C)plant or fungi; cells have cell walls
D)animal or fungi; cells contain DNA
Q2) The first eukaryotes evolved approximately ________ years ago.
A)200,000
B)200 million
C)2 billion
D)2 trillion
Q3) What criteria best characterize membership in the kingdom Protista?
A)a continuous lineage of descent from a common ancestor
B)a large assortment of unique shared derived traits
C)a common evolutionary heritage
D)the inability to meet the characteristics that define each of the remaining eukaryotic kingdoms
Q4) In an evolutionary tree, a given ancestor and all its descendants make up a ________, or branch.
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Chapter 14: Human Evolution
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Q1) Fossilized foot bones show that some hominids living between 3 and 3.5 mya walked upright but had partially opposable big toes. This suggests that
A)the shift to bipedalism was not sudden and complete, and the earliest bipedal hominins may have also spent some time in the trees for shelter or to find food.
B)the shift from quadrupedalism to bipedalism happened abruptly about 2.5 mya when hominins could no longer find any food in trees.
C)hominins actually shifted from bipedalism to quadrupedalism as it proved to be an advantage when acquiring food.
D)having a partially opposable big toe helped bipedal hominins run faster to avoid their predators.
Q2) What evidence would support the hypothesis that a male Homo sapiens mated with a female Homo neanderthalensis and produced offspring?
Q3) In the eighteenth century, a Swedish naturalist devised a system of biological classification known as ________.
Q4) List in order from most exclusive to most inclusive the seven levels of the Linnaean hierarchy of biological classification.
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Chapter 15: General Principles of Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following would best be considered an aspect of climate?
A)a large thunderstorm
B)average rainfall
C)a shifting hurricane
D)a widespread blizzard
Q2) One of the major effects of an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide is
A)an increase in average global temperature.
B)cooler average temperatures as carbon dioxide reflects sunlight back into space.
C)an acceleration of the depletion of ozone.
D)an increase in the pH of oceans and lakes.
Q3) The single most significant human-caused contribution (about 75 percent) to the worldwide increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide is
A)acid rain and the subsequent chemical reactions that release carbon dioxide from the soil.
B)nitrogen supplements that accelerate decompositional activity and recycle carbon before it can become sequestered in the soil.
C)the burning of fossil fuels and the subsequent emission of carbon dioxide.
D)deforestation and the subsequent decline in photosynthesis.
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Chapter 16: Growth of Populations
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Q1) A population will remain at a constant size when emigration equals immigration and A)food is not a limiting factor.
B)births equal deaths.
C)predators leave the area.
D)available space remains the same.
Q2) The top of the "S" in an S-shaped curve indicates that the population
A)is on the verge of collapse.
B)is experiencing abnormally heavy pressure from predators.
C)has reached its carrying capacity.
D)is poised for further exponential growth.
Q3) Use a specific example to explain how population density may change for people living in one country without any change in population size.
Q4) China's population ________ is 137 people per square kilometer.
Q5) Explain why logistic growth curves have an "S" shape.
Q6) If we humans do not limit our population growth rate, we will exceed the ________ of our environment, leading to a larger population than the environment can support.
Q7) Weather is a density-________ factor that can affect the size of a population.
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Chapter 17: Communities of Organisms
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Q1) If a disease quickly spreads through a desert and kills moths that are the sole pollinators of long-lived yucca plants, the most likely outcome would be
A)another pollinator would quickly take over and begin to pollinate the yucca plants.
B)the yucca plants would self-pollinate.
C)the yucca plants would die the season after the last yucca moth died.
D)the yucca plants would not be pollinated and would eventually go extinct.
Q2) Why would a food web rather than a food chain be the preferred way to represent the movement of food through the community?
A)Food chains are oversimplified and suggest that a consumer eats only a single food item.
B)Food webs place producers at the bottom, whereas food chains place them at the top.
C)Food webs are based on a foundation of producers.
D)Actually, ecologists prefer to use food chains to describe food movements.
Q3) A(n) ________ is a single sequence of who eats whom in a community.
Q4) An ecological ________ is an association of populations of different species that live in the same area.
Q5) Compare and contrast exploitative and interference competition.
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Chapter 18: Ecosystems
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Q1) When humans consume rice they occupy which trophic level of a food chain?
A)primary consumer
B)secondary consumer
C)tertiary consumer
D)primary producer
Q2) Areas of the ocean that are very cloudy due to large amounts of stirred sediment or eroded soil are likely to
A)experience decreased primary productivity levels.
B)experience increased primary productivity levels.
C)experience no change in primary productivity levels.
D)experience an increase in primary productivity levels with a decrease in secondary productivity levels.
Q3) Ecologists often define an ecosystem by describing how ________ and ________ are acquired and distributed by the biotic community.
A)energy; nutrients
B)producers; consumers
C)decomposers; consumers
D)nutrients; producers
Q4) Explain why ecosystems do not always have sharply defined physical boundaries.
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Chapter 19: Homeostasis, Reproduction, and Development
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Q1) Insulin is a protein hormone that helps cells use glucose. In type 1 diabetes, insulin-making cells in the pancreas are attacked and destroyed. This is an example of A)the digestive, circulatory, and excretory systems affecting one another.
B)the importance of only one system being needed to perform a function.
C)the importance of the excretory system in removing wastes and other toxins from the body.
D)the endocrine, digestive, circulatory, and immune systems affecting one another.
Q2) After about an hour of basking in the sun, the body temperature of the marine iguana reaches 37°C, and the animal dives into the water to feed. In the water, its body temperature rapidly drops, and the iguana must return to the rocks to warm up. This process is an example of
A)tissue shock.
B)negative feedback.
C)set point control.
D)positive feedback.
Q3) In homeostatic regulation, cells seek to ensure relatively constant conditions by maintaining a normal state called the ________.
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Chapter 20: Digestive, Muscular, and Skeletal Systems
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Q1) The knee is part of the ________ skeleton, which is designed primarily for
A)axial; protection
B)axial; motion
C)appendicular; protection
D)appendicular; motion
Q2) vitamin E
A)Deficiency of this vitamin reduces calcium absorption and leads to poor formation of bones and teeth.
B)This vitamin is used to produce visual pigments in the eyes.
C)This vitamin protects lipids in cell membranes.
D)Deficiency of this vitamin leads to scurvy.
E)Deficiency of this vitamin affects the ability to control bleeding.
Q3) The lower region of the small intestine is structured to create large amounts of surface area so that it can more efficiently
A)produce enzymes to break food down into smaller molecules.
B)grind food down into smaller molecules.
C)absorb the chemical building blocks that are produced by digestion.
D)eliminate waste products.
Q4) ________ are the contractile units within muscle fibers.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Circulatory, Respiratory, Urinary, and Nervous Systems
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Q1) Shortages of iron in our diet can cause iron deficiency anemia, a condition that reduces the amount of hemoglobin in red blood cells. Iron deficiency anemia is a potentially serious condition that is characterized primarily by
A)a change in the color of blood from its normal red to various shades of blue and purple.
B)a reduction in the blood's capacity to transport oxygen.
C)a delay in the time required for the blood to clot and a potential for extensive blood loss in the event of trauma.
D)a reduction in the concentration of white blood cells and an increased vulnerability to infection.
Q2) Blood vessels that are designed to carry blood under high pressure are called ________. Blood vessels that have thin, porous walls are called ________.
Q3) The structures that carry signals away from the cell body of a neuron are called A)dendrites. B)axons. C)nuclei. D)synapses.
Q4) Describe two ways in which the structure of capillaries allows gas exchange.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Endocrine and Immune Systems
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Q1) Upon first exposure to a pathogen, a ________ immune response is triggered.
Q2) physical barriers lining the respiratory and digestive system that prevent the invasion of pathogens
A)macrophages
B)mucous membranes
C)cytokines
D)B cells
E)lymph nodes
F)platelets
Q3) In hormonal signaling, are target cells typically close to or far away from endocrine cells? Explain your answer.
Q4) Which of the following statements about memory cells is true?
A)They include B cells and T cells that remain in the body for long periods of time after the first exposure to a pathogen.
B)They are macrophages that store copies of antibodies for decades.
C)They make copies of T cells that remain active long after the primary response has ended.
D)They become T cells during a secondary response to a pathogen.
Q5) The hormone-producing tissues of animals make up the ________ system.
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Chapter 23: Plant Physiology
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Q1) One of your plants produces more roots and fewer shoots than a healthy plant. This plant most likely has
A)higher-than-normal concentrations of both auxins and cytokinins.
B)lower-than-normal concentrations of both auxins and cytokinins.
C)higher-than-normal concentrations of auxins and lower-than-normal concentrations of cytokinins.
D)lower-than-normal concentrations of auxins and higher-than-normal concentrations of cytokinins.
Q2) After a particularly hot and dry summer, plants are likely to contain elevated levels of A)auxins. B)cytokinins.
C)abscisic acid.
D)ethylene.
Q3) dermal tissue
A)This structure transports water.
B)This structure transports sugars.
C)This structure controls gas exchange.
D)This structure is a protective outer covering.
E)This structure conducts photosynthesis.
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Chapter 24: Applying the Science
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Q1) You search the Internet for information regarding the use of a particular herbal supplement because you have heard claims that it will help you safely build muscle while losing fat. During your search you come across a site that claims to have evidence to support those claims. What questions should you ask as you peruse the site?
Q2) National Geographic, a popular magazine about science and the world
A)primary
B)secondary
Q3) Observational studies that follow a particular group of individuals over a certain time period are
A)case-control studies.
B)meta-analysis studies.
C)beta-analysis studies.
D)cohort studies.
Q4) Biology Now, your textbook
A)primary
B)secondary
Q5) Science, a peer-reviewed scientific journal
A)primary
B)secondary
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