Principles of Astronomy Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Astronomy introduces students to the fundamental concepts and methods used in the study of the universe beyond Earth. Covering topics such as the solar system, stars, galaxies, cosmic evolution, and the tools astronomers use, the course emphasizes observation, theory, and the scientific process. Students will gain an understanding of celestial phenomena, explore the laws of physics that govern the cosmos, and consider recent discoveries in astronomy. Designed for both science and non-science majors, this course lays the groundwork for appreciating our place in the universe and the ongoing quest to unravel its mysteries.
Recommended Textbook
Astronomy Today 8th Edition by Eric Chaisson
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28 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Charting the Heavens: The Foundations of Astronomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) As it orbits the Earth,the Moon appears to move eastward about its own diameter every hour.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The places where the Sun crosses the equator are called the:
A) annalemmas.
B) prime meridians.
C) zeniths.
D) equinoxes.
E) solstices.
Answer: D
Q3) A year is defined as:
A) the time it takes for Earth to complete a rotation on its axis.
B) the time it takes for the Moon to complete an orbit of Earth.
C) the time it takes for the Moon to complete a phase cycle.
D) the time it takes for Earth to complete an orbit around the Sun.
E) the time it takes for the Sun to complete an orbit around Earth.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Copernican Revolution: The Birth of Modern Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these observations of Galileo refuted Ptolemy's epicycles?
A) the complete cycle of Venus' phases
B) the rotation of sunspots across the Sun's surface
C) the revolution of Jupiter's moons around it
D) the craters on the Moon
E) the visibility of many more stars with the telescope
Answer: A
Q2) Orbital speed is the speed with which a planet moves around the Sun.This speed is determined by:
A) the mass of the planet only.
B) the mass of the Sun only.
C) both the mass of the planet and the mass of the Sun.
D) the mass of the planet and its distance from the Sun.
E) the mass of both the planet and the Sun and the distance between the two.
Answer: E
Q3) Like the Sun and the Moon,the stars appear to move from west to east from one day to the next.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Radiation: Information from the Cosmos
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Sample Questions
Q1) Star A has a temperature 3 times that of star B.Both star A and star B are the same physical size.Which statement about star A and star B below is correct?
A) Star A is redder and dimmer than star B.
B) Star A is bluer and dimmer than star B.
C) Star A is redder and brighter than star B.
D) Star A is bluer and brighter than star B.
E) Star A and star B have the same color, but star A is brighter.
Answer: D
Q2) The light from an object moving tangentially (to your left or right)will exhibit:
A) a blueshift.
B) a redshift.
C) a shift in peak wavelength towards the red.
D) a shift in peak wavelength towards the blue.
E) no shift.
Answer: E
Q3) The product of the wavelength times the frequency of a wave is its ________. Answer: velocity
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Chapter 4: Spectroscopy: The Inner Workings of Atoms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how Bohr's model creates emission and absorption lines in the spectrum.
Q2) A low density gas must be hot in order to produce an absorption line.
A)True
B)False
Q3) State the relationship between photon energy,frequency,and wavelength.
Q4) The observed spectral lines of a star are all shifted towards the red end of the spectrum.Which statement is true?
A) This is an example of the photoelectric effect.
B) This is an example of the Doppler effect.
C) The second law of Kirchhoff explains this.
D) The star is not rotating.
E) The star has a radial velocity towards us.
Q5) Molecular spectra,like elemental ones,involve only the vibration of the particles.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The Doppler effect can reveal the rotation speed of a star by the splitting of the spectral lines.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Telescopes: The Tools of Astronomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is true of radio telescopes?
A) They have poorer angular resolution than a refractor.
B) They have better angular resolution than a reflector.
C) They are the smallest, most compact telescopes.
D) They can only be used above the atmosphere.
E) They are most sensitive to the opacity of the ozone layer.
Q2) What are two advantages of large scopes over smaller ones?
A) Large scopes have a larger field of view and sharper focus.
B) Large scopes are not subject to atmospheric turbulence and opacity like smaller ones.
C) Large scopes are easier to mount and control than small ones.
D) Large telescope have more light grasp and better resolution.
E) Large telescopes give higher magnification and are easier to build.
Q3) Which reflector telescope would be the easiest to construct,and why?
Q4) Why is it easier to travel to a remote viewing site with an 8" Cassegrain than an 8" Newtonian reflector?
Q5) If used in a single instrument to greatly enhance its resolution,the four separate mirrors of the VLT will be acting as a(n)________.
Q6) Explain why the image seen in astronomical telescopes is inverted.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Solar System: Comparative Planetology and Formation Models
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these bodies has the lowest density?
A) Saturn
B) Jupiter
C) a comet
D) an asteroid
E) a Kuiper Belt object
Q2) Different temperatures within the solar nebula ultimately determined the compositions of the planets and their moons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Name the four principal types of solar system debris; pair them up in terms of composition.
Q4) All of the jovian planets rotate more rapidly than any of the terrestrial planets. A)True
B)False
Q5) Small rocky bodies with compositions similar to Earth that are in orbit around the Sun are called ________.
8
Q6) How do the atmospheres of terrestrial worlds compare with the jovians?
Q7) Discuss the role that gravity assist played in Voyager 2 and its Grand Tour.
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Chapter 7: Earth: Our Home in Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Greenhouse Effect works by trapping:
A) incoming ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.
B) outgoing ultraviolet radiation from the Earth.
C) incoming infrared radiation from the Sun.
D) outgoing infrared radiation from the Earth.
E) the heat from the Sun in Earth's atmosphere.
Q2) Seismic waves are most useful for mapping:
A) the surface of Venus with Magellan.
B) the surface of Mars with Global Surveyor.
C) the Earth's core and mantle.
D) the density of the hydrosphere.
E) the depths of the oceans.
Q3) The hydrosphere accounts in large part for the fact that our atmosphere in thinner than Venus' and contains far less carbon dioxide.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The oldest rocks found on the Earth's surface date back about ________ billion years.
Q5) What is the principal evidence that new plate material is continually being formed?
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Chapter 8: The Moon and Mercury: Scorched and Battered Worlds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Relate the formation of Mercury's scarps to its differentiation.
Q2) Moonquakes on the Moon were detected by:
A) the radar observations over time from Earth.
B) the seismographs left these by the Apollo astronauts.
C) laser beams reflected off mirrors left on the Moon by Apollo missions.
D) seismographs attached to the Russian Lunar rovers.
E) telescopic observations of lunar landslides.
Q3) What do moonquakes reveal about the Moon?
A) It has a strong magnetic field generated by a large molten core.
B) It has a differentiated core, displaced away from us by the Moon's rotation.
C) Its small, partially molten core has been pulled toward us by tidal forces.
D) The Moon has been geologically dead throughout its entire history.
E) The Moon is quite active, almost as much so as Jupiter's moon Io.
Q4) Why does the Moon lack a true atmosphere?
Q5) Mercury's smooth plains are most similar to the Moon's:
A) maria.
B) highlands.
C) craters.
D) mountain ranges.
Q6) Why is it so difficult to observe the planet Mercury from Earth? Page 10
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Chapter 9: Venus: Earth's Sister Planet
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Sample Questions
Q1) Volcanic activity on Venus is thought to be:
A) more frequent, but less violent than volcanic activity on Earth.
B) more frequent and more violent than volcanic activity on Earth.
C) less frequent, but more violent than volcanic activity on Earth.
D) less frequent and less violent than volcanic activity on Earth.
E) the same as volcanic activity on Earth.
Q2) Venus is only a little bit (5%)smaller than Earth,and its density is only slightly less than Earth's.Therefore,its mass is:
A) the same as Earth's.
B) just a little bit greater than Earth's.
C) much greater than Earth's (more than 20% different).
D) just a little bit less than Earth's.
E) much less than Earth's (more than 20% different).
Q3) What is the primary effect that the carbon dioxide in Venus' atmosphere has on the planet?
Q4) Every time the Earth and Venus are closest,the same side of Venus is facing us.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How does the rotation of Venus' clouds compare to the rotation of its surface?
Q6) The Greenhouse Effect on Venus is due to ________ in its atmosphere.
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Chapter 10: Mars: A Near Miss for Life?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is Mars red?
A) Dust storms on the planet have blasted the planet so fiercely that the rocks have reddened.
B) The iron in the surface rocks have been oxidized over time.
C) Mercuric oxide is abundant and has a red tint.
D) Sulfuric acid rain etched a reddish color into iron-rich surface rocks.
E) The ancient volcanoes poured out vast plains of molten sulfur, much as on Io, which has now solidified and preserved the reddish color.
Q2) What piece of evidence suggests that the Martian moons did NOT form with Mars?
A) Their composition is significantly different from Mars and the terrestrial planets.
B) They have ages that are much younger than Mars.
C) They have circular orbits above the Martian equator.
D) They rotate synchronously, with one side tidally fixed toward Mars.
E) They are both irregularly shaped and are heavily cratered.
Q3) Why does Mars appear red from Earth's surface?
Q4) The vast flood deposits support the hypothesis that Mars once had much running water.Assuming that Mars did have water once,what happened to it?
Q5) How is the Mars Rover mission different from Global Surveyor mapping mission?
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Chapter 11: Jupiter: Giant of the Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How large is Jupiter's magnetosphere?
A) It is about as large as the Earth's.
B) It is so large it extends out to the orbit of Io.
C) It is a million times the volume of the Earth's, extending beyond the orbit of Saturn.
D) It extends inward to the orbit of Mars.
E) It envelopes even the Sun and rest of the solar system.
Q2) Colors in Jupiter's clouds are largely due to helium compounds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where is Jupiter's ring located?
A) above Jupiter's cloud tops and inside the orbit of its inner-most moon
B) between the orbits of Io and Europa
C) sharing the orbit of Amalthea
D) in a thin ring at the distance of Io but inclined by an angle of about 30 degrees to Io's orbit
E) between the orbit of the inner-most moon and the orbit of Io
Q4) Except for Io,the other three Galilean satellites have periods of rotation and revolution that are ________.
Q5) The apparent "surface" of Jupiter is actually the tops of ________.
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Chapter 12: Saturn: Spectacular Rings and Mysterious
Moons
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Sample Questions
Q1) When Cassini entered orbit around Saturn,it caused the planet's orbit to change. A)True
B)False
Q2) Why do scientists think Titan has an atmosphere while the large moons of Jupiter (Ganymede,Callisto,Europa and Io)do not?
A) The jovian satellites lost their atmospheres because of Jupiter's thermal radiation.
B) The jovian satellites never formed atmospheres because the solar nebula was too hot there.
C) The jovian satellites had their atmospheres stripped by Jupiter's gravitational pull.
D) The jovian satellites experienced too many collisions in their lifetimes to maintain atmospheres.
E) Titan got its atmosphere by accreting gases from Saturn. The jovian satellites were competing with one another to do this, so it was unsuccessful for any of them.
Q3) Why are Saturn's rings much brighter than any other jovian's ring system?
Q4) One of the most popular symbols of astronomy is Saturn with its system of rings.Describe the structure and makeup of these rings.
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Chapter 13: Uranus and Neptune: The Outer Worlds of the Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neptune's large moon ________ is the only large satellite known in a retrograde orbit.
Q2) A day at the north pole of Uranus lasts:
A) about 7 hours.
B) about 8 hours.
C) about 21 years.
D) about 42 years.
E) about 84 years.
Q3) The rotation period of Uranus was measured through:
A) observations of the motions of its satellites.
B) observations of the features on its cloud surface.
C) observations of radio signals associated with its magnetosphere.
D) observations of its motion around the Sun.
E) observations of Neptune's motion around the Sun.
Q4) Triton shows similar cratering to the Lunar highlands,which suggests that it too is an old surface.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
Q5) Neptune's moon Triton appears to have a nearly uncratered surface.Explain.
Q6) In what ways are the magnetic fields of Uranus and Neptune unusual?
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Chapter 14: Solar System Debris: Keys to Our Origin
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nucleus,or main solid body,of a comet has a typical size of:
A) a few centimeters.
B) a few meters.
C) a few kilometers.
D) a few hundred kilometers.
E) a few thousand kilometers.
Q2) What are the Aten asteroids?
Q3) What are the Kirkwood Gaps? What role does Jupiter play?
Q4) Pluto's orbit takes it closer to the Sun than Neptune for part of its orbit.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Long period comets are thought to reside mainly in the: A) asteroid belt.
B) Kirkwood gaps.
C) Kuiper Belt.
D) Oort Cloud.
E) Interstellar Medium.
Q6) Triton and Pluto both probably originated in the Kuiper Belt.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 15: Exoplanets: Planetary Systems Beyond Our Own
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Sample Questions
Q1) None of the other stars yet studied has more than one planet orbiting it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain how the Doppler Effect has been used to detect invisible planets orbiting other Sun-like stars.
Q3) In the process of planetary formation,when would the inward migration of Jupiters have most likely occurred?
A) shortly after all of the planets had finished forming
B) just after the system was cleared of the remaining gas
C) before these planets had grown to full size
D) after these planets had reached full size, but before terrestrial planets had finished forming
E) at least hundreds of millions of years after planetary formation ended
Q4) The Collision Hypothesis and Evolutionary Theories are considered to be equally plausible explanations of how planetary systems form.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Hot Jupiters have ________ period orbits.
Q6) Why are infrared observations useful when observing extrasolar planets?
Page 19
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Chapter 16: The Sun: Our Parent Star
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Sample Questions
Q1) About what percent of the incoming energy from the Sun reaches Earth's surface?
A) 80-100%
B) 70-90%
C) 60-80%
D) 50-70%
E) 30-60%
Q2) A solar flare creates a radio disturbance on Earth a few minutes after going off and again several days later.Explain.
Q3) The Sun's ________ transports material from the Sun's equator to its poles and back to the equator.
Q4) The solar winds blow outward from:
A) sunspots.
B) flares.
C) the entire photosphere.
D) coronal holes.
E) the Sun's poles only.
Q5) The surface magnetic field of the Sun is found by measurement of the extra width in spectral lines due to the ________ Effect.
Q6) Explain what the granulation of the solar surface is related to.
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Chapter 17: The Stars: Giants,Dwarfs,and the Main Sequence
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can the color index give the star's temperature?
Q2) Star A and star B both have an absolute magnitude of 2.0,but star A is at a distance of 50 pc and star B is at a distance of 20 pc.Which statement below is correct?
A) Star A appears brighter than star B, but actually star B and star A are the same brightness.
B) Star B appears brighter than star A, but actually star B and star A are the same brightness.
C) Star A and star B appear to have the same brightness, but actually star B is brighter than star A.
D) Star A and star B appear to have the same brightness, but actually star A is brighter than star B.
E) It is impossible to determine how bright these stars are or appear to be relative to one another, given the information above.
Q3) A star of ten solar masses would probably stay stable on the main sequence only about 1/1000th as long as our Sun.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What role does helium play in spectral classification?
Page 21
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Chapter 18: The Interstellar Medium: Gas and Dust among the Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ionization of hydrogen in H II regions is most visible at:
A) 12,367 nm, the Paschen alpha line.
B) 656.3 nm, Balmer alpha line for 3-2 electron transition.
C) 21 cm in the radio region for the spin-flip of its electron.
D) 121.3 nm, the Lyman alpha ultraviolet line for 2-1 electron transition.
E) 473.2 nm, the blue-green emission line for 4-2 electron transition.
Q2) Explain the colors of emission nebulae.
Q3) Emission nebulae are blue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The dark dust clouds can be explored better with infrared than with visible light.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Emission nebula take up about how much of the Milky Way galaxy?
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 99%
E) 100%
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Chapter 19: Star Formation: A Traumatic Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protostars can be observed in:
A) the Crab Nebula.
B) the Andromeda Galaxy.
C) the Orion Nebula.
D) our Solar System.
E) the Helix Nebula.
Q2) In terms of Jupiter masses,what is the range of brown dwarfs? What are objects above and below this range called?
Q3) What do we mean by the term molecular clouds? Why do they exist? How can observation of their properties yield clues to the processes of stellar formation?
Q4) A typical protostar may be several thousand times more luminous than the Sun.What is the source of this energy?
A) chemical combustion of hydrocarbons
B) nuclear fusion in its core
C) from the release of gravitational energy as the protostar continues to shrink
D) the ionization of the gas as it heats up
E) from nearby hot stars or supernovae that have initiated the star formation process
Q5) Discuss the relationship between young stars and the interstellar medium.
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Chapter 20: Stellar Evolution: The Life and Death of a Star
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared to a cluster containing type O and B stars,a cluster with only type F and cooler stars will be:
A) younger.
B) older.
C) further away.
D) more obscured by dust.
E) less obscured by dust.
Q2) A high-mass star dies more violently than a low-mass star because:
A) it must always end up as a black hole.
B) it generates more heat and its core eventually collapses very suddenly.
C) it cannot fuse elements heavier than carbon.
D) gravity is weakened by its high luminosity.
E) it is most often found as part of a binary system.
Q3) Give evidence that magnetism plays a role in planetary nebula formation.
Q4) What is peculiar about Sirius based on historical records?
Q5) In an H-R Diagram,the path showing changes in a star's luminosity and surface temperature as a function of time is called its ________.
Q6) The longest stage in the life cycle of a star is as a(n)________ star.
Q7) When a low-mass star runs out of hydrogen in its core,it gets brighter.Why?
Q8) Why can we say a star spends its life trying to maintain equilibrium?
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Chapter 21: Stellar Explosions: Novae,Supernovae,and
Formation of the Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 20 solar mass star will stay on the main sequence for 10 million years,yet its iron core can exist for only a:
A) day.
B) week.
C) month.
D) year.
E) century.
Q2) As a star's evolution approaches the Type II supernova,we find:
A) the heavier the element, the less time it takes to make it.
B) the heavier the element, the higher the temperature to fuse it.
C) helium to carbon fusion takes at least 100 million K to start.
D) photodisintegration of iron nuclei begins at 10 billion K to ignite the supernova.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q3) What is stellar nucleosynthesis?
A) the formation of heavier elements inside stars
B) the formation of planetary nebulae by red giants
C) the formation of stars from a nucleus of contracting material
D) the formation of white dwarfs, neutron stars, and black holes from stars
E) the process by which stars form interstellar dust
Page 25
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Chapter 22: Neutron Stars and Black Holes: Strange States of Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Schwartzschild radius for a 12 solar mass star is:
A) 4 km.
B) 15 km.
C) 36 km.
D) 100 km.
E) 3000 km.
Q2) X-ray bursters occur in binary star systems.The two types of stars that must be present to make up such an object are:
A) a white dwarf and a neutron star.
B) a contact binary system of two red giants.
C) a white dwarf and a main sequence star.
D) a main sequence or giant star and a neutron star in a mass transfer binary.
E) two neutron stars in a mass transfer binary.
Q3) A system of terrestrial-sized planets has been detected in orbit around a millisecond pulsar.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the accepted explanation for millisecond pulsars?
Page 26
Q5) The Crab Nebula and its pulsar were produced by a ________ supernova.
Q6) All pulsars are neutron stars; why is the reverse not true?
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Chapter 23: The Milky Way Galaxy: A Spiral in Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) The temperature of the innermost part of the spinning gas near our galaxy's central black hole is:
A) 2.7 K.
B) 300 K.
C) 10,000 K.
D) over 1,000,000 K.
E) varying rapidly from 300 K to 1,000,000 K.
Q2) Arcturus shows a large proper motion,almost perpendicular to the galactic plane.What Population does it belong to,and why?
Q3) RR Lyrae stars pulsate,but with shorter periods and lower luminosities than Cepheids. A)True
B)False
Q4) Shapley correctly argued that the rotation of the spiral nebulae proved they could not be very distant.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What features of the telescopic view of the Andromeda Galaxy,M-31,are also visible to the naked eye for our similar Galaxy?
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Chapter 24: Galaxies: Building Blocks of the Universe
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Q1) Astronomers observe unobscured X-rays generated in active galactic nuclei.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is true of spiral galaxies?
A) They are much less common at larger redshifts.
B) They are relatively rare in regions of high galaxy density.
C) They are only found in the center of rich galaxy clusters.
D) They have never been seen to have large redshifts.
E) They evolve from giant ellipticals.
Q3) Explain what a standard candle is and how it could be used to determine a galaxy's distance.
Q4) Why do astronomers speak in terms of redshifts rather than distances to faraway objects?
Q5) Most galaxies are spirals.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Irregular galaxies,although small,have large H II regions and much on-going star formation for their size.
A)True
B)False
Page 29
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Chapter 25: Galaxies and Dark Matter: The Large-Scale
Structure of the Cosmos
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cosmological principle calls for the distribution of galaxies to be homogeneous.On the large scale,is this true?
Q2) A nearby galaxy has a radius of 4,000 million A.U.and rotates once every 800 million years.What is its mass in solar masses?
Q3) Why are supermassive galaxies often found at the cores of rich galaxy clusters?
A) Most of the matter forming the cluster fell into the center to form one large galaxy.
B) They are the result of many galactic mergers; one galaxy growing at the expense of others.
C) Such a large galaxy attracted smaller galaxies around it to form a cluster.
D) Large galaxies, passing a cluster, get captured into the center.
E) Many globular clusters swarmed together to form it.
Q4) Why would spiral galaxies be less common now than in the early universe?
Q5) Distant galaxies tend to be much bluer than those nearby.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Giant elliptical galaxies may be the result of ________ in the centers of rich clusters.
Q7) Why do almost all active galaxies occur in clusters of galaxies?
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Chapter 26: Cosmology: The Big Bang and the Fate of the Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Big Bang was an expansion of matter into empty space.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The low density universe is an open one,with expansion continuing forever.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the data from the microwave background radiation,at what speed and in what direction is Earth moving through the universe?
A) 380 km/s in the direction of Leo
B) 70 km/s in the direction of the Big Bang
C) 300,000 km/s in the direction of Polaris
D) 250 km/s in the direction of Vega
E) 600 km/s North
Q4) What is the meaning of a "closed" universe?
A) The universe will expand forever.
B) The universe will someday stop expanding and start to collapse.
C) The universe will stop expanding in an infinite amount of time.
D) The universe is in a steady-state.
E) The universe will disappear into a white hole in time.
Q5) How does dark energy affect the expansion of the Universe?
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Chapter 27: The Early Universe: Toward the Beginning of Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) The universe was ________ old when electrons and positrons formed.
Q2) The density of the cosmos at the end of the lepton epoch was comparable to iron,about ten times denser than water.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A compelling advantage of the inflation theory is its explanation of both the ________ and ________ problems.
Q4) Before the Planck time of 10 ³ seconds,the Big Bang must be treated as a singularity,with even general relativity yielding no information about it.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Before about 50,000 years after the Big Bang,the universe was:
A) radiation dominated.
B) quark dominated.
C) lepton dominated.
D) matter dominated.
E) dark energy dominated.
Q6) What happened in the Planck Era? At what temperature did it end?
Q7) Why was the separation of the superforce into three forces so important?
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Chapter
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Q1) To date,our serious searches for extraterrestrial life have been done almost entirely:
A) in Roswell and Gulf Breeze.
B) with radio telescopes.
C) with optical telescopes looking for nuclear tests.
D) with microwaves in the giant molecular clouds.
E) with infrared telescopes looking for greenhouse gases.
Q2) Elliptical galaxies,with older stars,will be more likely to have evolved intelligences than the stars close to us in the Milky Way.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the material for life were introduced from space after the Earth formed,a major carrier would have been:
A) the solar wind.
B) tektites from the Moon.
C) comet impacts.
D) encounters with other solar systems.
E) iron meteorites.
Q4) Why does SETI concentrate on the water hole?
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