Principles of Anatomy Review Questions
Course Introduction
Principles of Anatomy is an introductory course exploring the structure and organization of the human body. The course covers the major systems including skeletal, muscular, nervous, circulatory, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive highlighting their components and functions. Students learn essential anatomical terminology, spatial relationships, and foundational concepts through lectures, laboratory activities, and hands-on experiences. By understanding the normal anatomical arrangements and their relevance to basic clinical practices, students develop a solid foundation necessary for advanced studies in health and life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology An Integrative Approach 2nd Edition by McKinley
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3928 Verified Questions
3928 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Sciences of Anatomy and Physiology
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128 Verified Questions
128 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The median space in the thoracic cavity is called the A)pleural cavity.
B)pericardial cavity.
C)mediastinum.
D)peritoneal cavity.
E)hypochondriac space.
Answer: C
Q2) Damage to the heart can cause inadequate blood circulation,which can lead to more damage to the heart.This is an example of a positive feedback cycle.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Respiratory physiology is primarily the study of A)cell shape within the alveoli of the lungs.
B)the branching pattern of the small airways of the lungs.
C)the tissue composition of the airways,air sacs,and blood vessels.
D)how gases are transferred between the lungs and the blood vessels supplying them.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Atoms,Ions,and Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polar R groups of closely positioned amino acids often enter into _________ with each other,which helps give a protein its three-dimensional shape.
A)hydrophobic interactions
B)ionic bonds
C)hydrogen bonds
D)van der Waal repulsions
E)sulfur-carbon bonds
Answer: C
Q2) Ionic bonds involve:
A)electrostatic interactions between anions and cations.
B)the sharing of electrons between two atoms of the same element.
C)the attraction between water and salts.
D)the release of protons by negatively charged particles.
Answer: A
Q3) A protein consists of
A)an amine group,a carboxyl group,and an R group.
B)more than 200 amino acids.
C)between 3 and 20 amino acids.
D)a C-terminal,several nucleic acids,and an N-terminal.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Energy,Chemical Reactions,and Cellular
Respiration
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125 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycolysis requires oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The first law of thermodynamics states that once energy is consumed,it can no longer be converted to any other form of energy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Compare and contrast chemical energy and radiant energy.Into which broad category of energy (kinetic or potential)does each fit
What are two examples of each type of energy that relate to human physiology
Answer: Chemical energy is potential energy and radiant energy is kinetic energy.Two examples of chemical energy are triglycerides and complex carbohydrates such as glycogen.Two examples of radiant energy are UV light (a DNA mutagen)and visible light (sensed by the visual system).
Q4) The form of kinetic energy that refers to the movement of electromagnetic waves is _________ energy.
Answer: radiant
5
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Chapter 4: Biology of the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) The microscope of choice for a detailed three-dimensional study of the surface of a specimen is the
A)scanning electron microscope.
B)transmission electron microscope.
C)light microscope.
D)telescope.
Q2) In humans,the only cell that bears a flagellum is the ________ cell.
A)kidney
B)oocyte
C)red blood
D)brain
E)sperm
Q3) The diameter of a red blood cell is a little less than 1 \(\mu\)m.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A start codon consists of the three-base sequence AUG.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The process of programmed cell death ("cell suicide")is known as __________.
Q6) The two identical cells that arise from mitosis are called ____________ cells.
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Chapter 5: Tissue Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) You would most likely find goblet cells in what type of tissue
A)Cartilage
B)Nervous tissue
C)Muscle tissue
D)Bone
E)Epithelial tissue
Q2) Endocrine glands secrete
A)sweat.
B)hormones.
C)saliva.
D)digestive enzymes.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which type of epithelial tissue would be the least protective
A)Stratified keratinized
B)Stratified nonkeratinized
C)Simple columnar
D)Transitional
E)Simple squamous
Q4) Clusters of cells that make up the secretory portion of an exocrine gland are known as __________.
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood capillaries that supply nourishment for the epidermis are located in the A)dermal papillae.
B)epidermal ridges.
C)reticular connective tissue.
D)epidermis proper.
E)subcutaneous layer.
Q2) Which number indicates the eponychium
A)1
Q3) Which number indicates the arrector pili muscle A)1 B)2 C)3 D)4 E)5
Q4) The stratum _________ derives its name from the spiny appearance of the "bridges" that connect neighboring cells.
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System: Bone Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before beginning orthodontic treatment,a patient may have her wrist and hand x-rayed to determine her stage of growth.What feature of the long bones will the orthodontist use to assess this
A)Osteon
B)Periosteum
C)Spongy bone
D)Epiphyseal plate
E)Compact bone
Q2) For most individuals the main source of vitamin D is dietary intake of milk.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What would be the effect on bone growth of insufficient dietary calcium
A)There would be no effect,because the body is able to synthesize calcium.
B)The matrix would be softer.
C)The bone would be less flexible.
D)The epiphyseal plates would ossify earlier in development.
E)There would be increased formation of spongy bone.
Q4) Blood vessels enter the diaphysis of a long bone through an opening called the _________ foramen.
Q5) A fracture of the distal end of the radius is a _________ fracture.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System: Axial and Appendicular
Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Though it does not articulate with any other bone,the hyoid bone is considered to be part of the axial skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pelvic inlet is also known as the superior pelvic aperture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the correct order for the vertebral regions,from superior to inferior
A)Cervical - thoracic - sacral - coccygeal - lumbar
B)Thoracic - sacral - lumbar - thoracic - coccygeal
C)Cervical - thoracic - lumbar - sacral - coccygeal
D)Thoracic - coccygeal - cervical - lumbar - sacral
E)Thoracic - cervical - lumbar - coccygeal - sacral
Q4) Which bone is not part of the axial skeleton
A)Malleus
B)Sacrum
C)Clavicle
D)Atlas
E)Frontal bone
Q5) The roof of the cranium is called the _________,or skullcap.
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Chapter 9: Skeletal System: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A synarthrotic joint would have
A)high mobility and high stability.
B)high mobility and low stability.
C)low mobility and low stability.
D)low mobility and high stability.
Q2) This figure shows the temporomandibular joint.Which number indicates the articular capsule
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) Sutures permit skull growth during childhood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A fibrous joint contains a joint capsule.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A _________ is an elongated,rigid object that can be used to alter the distance of movement produced by a force.
11
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared to slow-twitch fibers,fast-twitch fibers respond to a stimulus with less delay and with a shorter contraction duration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A circular muscle band that contracts at an orifice is also known as a _______________.
Q3) Increased phosphate ion concentration is believed to contribute to fatigue by interfering with
A)calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B)levels of available ATP to provide energy for contraction.
C)phosphate release by myosin heads during crossbridge cycling.
D)ACh release by synaptic knobs of motor neurons.
Q4) When someone engages in exercise that requires more oxygen than is available,they develop a(n)_____ _______ (2 words),which results in heavy breathing for several minutes after the exercise is complete.
Q5) A continuous,smooth contraction of muscle in which twitches are fully fused is referred to as _________.
Q6) A reduced ability to generate tension due to recent exertion of force is known as muscle ________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Muscular System: Axial and Appendicular
Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure shows a medial view of the right eye.What muscle does number 2 indicate
A)Superior oblique
B)Inferior oblique
C)Lateral rectus
D)Medial rectus
E)Superior rectus
Q2) Hamstring muscles extend the thigh.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The piriformis muscle inserts on the greater trochanter of the femur.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Many of the muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm work to _______ the wrist,and they have their origin on the _______ epicondyle of the humerus.
A)flex,lateral
B)flex,medial.
C)extend,lateral,
D)extend,lateral
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not a function of the motor division of the nervous system
A)Conducts impulses from the CNS
B)Transmits impulses to muscles and glands
C)Transmits impulses from the viscera
D)Voluntary control of skeletal muscle
E)Involuntary control of the heart
Q2) The type of neuronal circuit in which several neurons process the same information at one time is a _____________ circuit.
A)converging
B)diverging
C)reverberating
D)parallel-after-discharge
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) In the CNS all axons are myelinated,but in the PNS some are myelinated and some are unmyelinated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A postsynaptic potential is a graded potential.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Nervous System: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anatomical asymmetries between the two cerebral hemispheres are known as _______.
Q2) The vestibulocochlear nerve is the only cranial nerve that doesn't exit the skull via an opening or foramen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Non-REM sleep
A)comprises most of our sleep time.
B)is characterized by movements of the eyes.
C)is where we have our most memorable dreams.
D)is a time when the brain is very active.
Q4) Axons of the corticospinal tract cross the brainstem at the
A)middle cerebellar peduncle of the pons.
B)decussation of the pyramids in the medulla oblongata.
C)primary fissure of the cerebellum.
D)cerebral aqueduct of the midbrain.
E)hypoglossal canal.
Q5) The process by which the notochord induces the formation of the neural tube is known as _________.
Page 15
Q6) Dull,emotionless speech is called _________.
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Chapter 14: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of upper motor neurons is to
A)directly excite skeletal muscle cells.
B)excite or inhibit skeletal muscle cells.
C)excite or inhibit lower motor neurons.
D)excite motor portions of the thalamus.
E)excite or inhibit motor portions of the cerebral cortex.
Q2) Two of the nerves of the lumbar plexus are the
A)femoral and sciatic nerves.
B)femoral and obturator nerves.
C)obturator and pudendal nerves.
D)pudendal and sciatic nerves.
Q3) When the Achilles tendon is tapped or the bottom of the foot is stroked,the reflexive response is that the foot
A)plantar flexes.
B)dorsiflexes.
C)inverts.
D)everts.
Q4) Axons of the anterior corticospinal tracts decussate in the medulla.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Nervous System: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscarinic receptors are proteins that bind the neurotransmitter
A)acetylcholine.
B)epinephrine.
C)norepinephrine.
Q2) A rise in blood pressure causes a reflexive
A)activation of the parasympathetic system and inhibition of the sympathetic system.
B)activation of the sympathetic system and inhibition of the parasympathetic system.
C)activation of both the parasympathetic system and the sympathetic system.
D)inhibition of both the parasympathetic system and the sympathetic system.
Q3) The ANS uses pathways that include two-neuron chains to innervate its effector organs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Parasympathetic stimulation of the ciliary muscles allows one to see close-up objects.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The second neuron in an autonomic pathway is called a _________ neuron.
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Chapter 16: Nervous System: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most axons within the optic tract terminate in the
A)temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex.
B)occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex.
C)lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus.
D)medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus.
Q2) Gustatory receptors are classified as mechanoreceptors because food molecules must be dissolved in saliva before they can be tasted.PS
A)True
B)False
Q3) When light strikes a photoreceptor it
A)deporlarizes and releases more neurotransmitter.
B)depolarizes and releases less neurotransmitter.
C)hyperpolarizes and releases more neurotransmitter.
D)hyperpolarizes and releases less neurotransmitter.
Q4) In this illustration of the ear,what structure does number 1 indicate
A)Vestibule
B)Cochlea
C)Stapes
D)Incus
E)Tympanic membrane
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Chapter 17: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the effects of water-soluble hormones on their target cells are considered,the hormone itself is
A)the G protein.
B)the second messenger.
C)the first messenger.
D)the hormone-response element.
E)the phospholipase.
Q2) The metabolic condition called ___________ results from the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas due to an autoimmune response.
A)Type 2 diabetes
B)gestational diabetes
C)beta cell diabetes
D)insulin-independent diabetes mellitus
E)Type 1 diabetes
Q3) Parathyroid hormone functions to raise blood calcium levels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Eicosanoids are a primary type of local hormone.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Cardiovascular System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _______________ (singular)is the name for the cylinder shape that erythrocytes form as they line up in single file for passage through the smallest blood vessels.
Q2) The main function of leukocytes is to
A)trigger allergies.
B)defend against pathogens.
C)carry oxygen through the blood.
D)carry carbon dioxide through the blood.
E)form clots.
Q3) Fibrin,which is produced from the plasma protein _______________,helps form blood clots.
Q4) A malnourished person might have abnormally low levels of plasma proteins.As a result,colloid osmotic pressure
A)increases,and there is fluid retention in the interstitial space.
B)increases,and so blood volume is abnormally high.
C)decreases,and there is fluid retention in the interstitial space.
D)decreases,and so blood volume is abnormally high.
Q5) The process of hemopoiesis starts with hemopoietic stem cells called ________________.
Q6) The production of leukocytes is called _______________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Cardiovascular System: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which valve prevents the backflow of blood into the left ventricle when the ventricles relax
A)Left atrioventricular valve
B)Aortic semilunar valve
C)Right atrioventricular valve
D)Pulmonary semilunar valve
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) The membrane of a contractile cardiac muscle cell contains A)no calcium pumps.
B)calcium pumps that move calcium out of the cell.
C)calcium pumps that move calcium into the cell.
D)calcium pumps that open and allow calcium to diffuse down its concentration gradient to reach equilibrium.
Q3) Which type of muscle cell exhibits a longer refractory period
A)Cardiac muscle cell
B)Skeletal muscle cell
Q4) The inferior chambers of the heart are called ________________.
Q5) The heartbeat is initiated by the cells of the _______________ node.or
Q6) The numerous ________________ within the intercalated discs prevent cardiac muscle fibers from pulling apart.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Cardiovascular System: Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In arteries,the thickest layer of the wall is the A)tunica externa.
B)tunica media.
C)tunica intima.
D)tunica adventitia.
E)None of the answers are correct because all the layers are of the same dimension.
Q2) The superior vena cava is formed by the merging of the _______ veins.
A)internal thoracic
B)inferior epigastric
C)lumbar
D)brachiocephalic
E)internal jugular
Q3) Which of the artery types contain the internal and external elastic laminae
A)Elastic arteries
B)Arterioles
C)Muscular arteries
D)Elastic and muscular arteries
E)Elastic arteries and arterioles
Q4) _________________ capillaries have pores within each endothelial cell.
22
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Chapter 21: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pulsing of arteries that are adjacent to lymphatic vessels provides a pressure on the vessels that helps them propel the lymph.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The thoracic duct collects lymph from all of the following except the A)abdomen.
B)left leg.
C)right arm.
D)right foot.
E)left shoulder.
Q3) Lymph nodes
A)filter lymph.
B)contain a dense network of collagen fibers.
C)serve as auxiliary exchange surfaces for respiratory gases.
D)produce red blood cells.
E)serve as the main recycling centers for red blood cells and their parts.
Q4) Lymph contains red blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Lymph from the head and neck is drained by the _________ trunks.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Immune System and the Bodys Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) B-lymphocytes cannot bind directly with an antigen,and so require presentation by another type of cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When they leave the red marrow,pre-T-lymphocytes have
A)only the CD4 protein.
B)only the CD8 protein.
C)both the CD4 and CD8 proteins.
D)neither the CD4 nor CD8 protein.
E)either the CD4 or CD8 protein.
Q3) Cytokines have a _____ half-life and exert influence on ________________.
A)long;immune cells only.
B)long;immune and non-immune cells.
C)short;immune cells only.
D)short;immune and non-immune cells.
Q4) Active immunity is a natural process,whereas passive immunity is generated artificially.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The larynx is supported by nine pieces of cartilage.Which cartilages occur in pairs
A)Thyroid and corniculate
B)Corniculate and cricoid
C)Cricoid,corniculate,and arytenoid
D)Corniculate,cuneiform,and arytenoid
E)Arytenoid and epiglottis
Q2) Histamine release results in increased airway resistance and decreased airflow.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lungs remain inflated because
A)intrapulmonary pressure is less than intrapleural pressure.
B)intrapleural pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure.
C)intrapleural pressure is exactly equal to intrapulmonary pressure.
D)intrapleural pressure is exactly equal to atmospheric pressure.
Q4) Bronchoconstriction results from relaxation of smooth muscle in the walls of airways.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Another name for the tertiary bronchi is the _________ bronchi.
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reabsorption of both sodium and potassium is carefully regulated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism responds to an increase in A)systemic blood pressure by signaling for a decrease in heart rate through blood-borne hormones.
B)urine production by signaling for a decrease in urine production through the hormone ADH.
C)NaCl concentration in tubular fluid by signaling for afferent arteriole constriction with local chemical messengers.
D)glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure by signaling for afferent arterioles to constrict and increase filtration rate.
Q3) Upon leaving the renal pelvis,urine passes directly into a ureter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Large proteins and red blood cells normally pass freely through the filtration membrane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Fluid and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) When blood starts to become too acidic,the kidneys respond by
A)synthesizing and secreting bicarbonate ions while reabsorbing H<sup>+</sup>.
B)synthesizing and reabsorbing H<sup>+</sup>while filtering bicarbonate ions.
C)synthesizing and reabsorbing bicarbonate ions while secreting H<sup>+</sup>.
D)decreasing filtration rate and increasing reabsorption of both bicarbonate ions and H<sup>+</sup>.
E)increasing filtration rate and increasing reabsorption of H<sup>+</sup>.
Q2) Collectively,the renal and respiratory systems comprise the chemical buffering system of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Extreme hypotonic hydration can cause brain cells to swell.
A)True B)False
Q4) Angiotensin II stimulates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Changes in blood osmolarity within capillaries of the hypothalamus are a signal for ADH release.The neurons that are sensitive to these changes in osmolarity are
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Chapter 26: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin K and B vitamins produced by bacteria of the large intestine are absorbed into the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As a protein is broken down into smaller and smaller fragments,each fragment ultimately requires splitting of the last peptide bond within it.The breaking of the bond between those last two amino acids is catalyzed by the enzyme A)pepsin.
B)chymotrypsin.
C)dipeptidase.
D)trypsin.
E)glucoamylase.
Q3) For the majority of the GI tract,which layer(s)of the wall contain smooth muscle
A)Muscularis only
B)Mucosa and adventitia
C)Serosa only
D)Mucosa and muscularis
E)Submucosa and muscularis
Q4) The process of swallowing is also called _____________.
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Positive nitrogen balance is a condition where
A)an individual's nitrogen input is equal to its loss in urine and feces.
B)an individual absorbs more nitrogen than is excreted.
C)an individual's nitrogen intake is greater than phosphate intake.
D)too many proteins are being ingested in the diet.
E)a food has a positive effect on blood nitrogen levels.
Q2) Simple sugars are carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Iron is considered a
A)major mineral,because it has a crucial physiological role.
B)trace mineral,because less than 100 milligrams are required daily in the diet.
C)major mineral,because it is extremely abundant in the Earth.
D)trace mineral,because it is rare on the Earth.
Q4) Iodine is an example of a(n)
A)essential amino acid.
B)vitamin.
C)mineral.
D)nitrogenous base.
Q5) The major regulatory hormone of the postabsorptive state is ___________.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Reproductive System
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146 Verified Questions
146 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The acrosome cap contains A)testosterone.
B)nutrients to sustain the sperm.
C)enzymes to allow penetration into the oocyte.
D)mitochondria to provide energy for movement.
E)buffers to neutralize the acidity of the female reproductive tract.
Q2) The expression of the ________ gene results in the production of proteins that stimulate synthesis of androgens that initiate development af a male phenotype.
A)MDF
B)SRY
C)GRH
D)YXP
Q3) Although the lining of the uterine tubes contains cilia and the lining of the uterus does not,the epithelium within both organs is categorized as A)pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
B)simple columnar epithelium.
C)nonkeratinized squamous epithelium.
D)stratified cuboidal epithelium.
E)simple cuboidal epithelium.
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Chapter 29: Development,Pregnancy,and Heredity
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127 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When epiblast cells travel through the primitive streak and underneath the epiblast layer,that movement is described as
A)capacitation.
B)invagination.
C)chemotaxation.
D)cleavage.
Q2) Fertilization typically occurs in the _________,and it restores the _________ number of chromosomes.
A)ampulla of the uterine tube;haploid
B)ampulla of the uterine tube;diploid
C)body of the uterus;polyploid
D)isthmus of the uterine tube;haploid
E)isthmus of the uterine tube;polyploid
Q3) Describe the main functions of the placenta.
Q4) Pregnancy increases a woman's risk of urinary tract infection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Substances that can cause birth defects or the death of the embryo are referred to as __________.
Q6) The germ layer between the ectoderm and the endoderm is the __________.
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